|
I passed the exam today still dump is very good. the best for preparation
|
Plz send master dump with correct answers thanks
|
Question 1.
Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A. The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
B. The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
C. You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are
missing.
D. The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
Answer: B, C
Question 2.
In your database, the LDAP_DIRECTORY_SYSAUTH initialization parameter has been set to YES and the users who need to access the database as DBAs have been granted SYSDBA enterprise role in Oracle Internet Directory (OID). SSL and the password file have been configured. A user SCOTT with the SYSDBA privilege tries to connect to the database instance from a remote machine using the command:
$ SQLPLUS scott/tiger@DB01 AS SYSDBA where DB01 is the net service name.
Which authentication method would be used first?
A. authentication by using the local OS of the database server
B. authentication by using the Oracle Internet Directory
C. authentication by password file
D. authentication by using certificates over SSL
Answer: C
Question 3.
Examine the following values of the initialization parameters in the database having the SID ORCL:
BACKGROUND_DUMP_DEST=/u01/app/oracle/product/11.1.0/db_1/bdump
USER_DUMP_DEST=/u01/app/oracle/product/11.1.0/db_1/udump
CORE_DUMP_DEST=/u01/app/oracle/product/11.1.0/db_1/cdump
DIAGNOSTIC_DEST=
The environment variables have the following value:
ORACLE_BASE=/u01/app/oracle
ORACLE_HOME=/u01/app/oracle/product/11.1.0/db_1
What is the location of the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home?
A. /u01/app/oracle/product/11.1.0/db_1
B. /u01/app/oracle
C. $ORACLE_HOME/bdump
D. $ORACLE_HOME/log
Answer: B
Question 4.
Observe the following PL/SQL block:
BEGIN
dbms_spm.configure('SPACE_BUDGET_PERCENT', 30);
END;
Which statement is correct regarding the above PL/SQL block?
A. It automatically purges the SQL management objects when SMB occupies more than 30% of
the SYSAUX tablespace.
B. It reserves 30% of the space in the SYSAUX tablespace for SQL Management Base (SMB).
C. It reserves 30% of the space in the SYSTEM tablespace for SMB.
D. It generates a weekly warning in the alert log file when SMB occupies more than 30% of the
SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: D
Question 5.
Exhibit:
View the Exhibit to examine the output produced by the following query at three different times since the database instance started and has undergone workloads of different capacities:
SQL> SELECT substr(component, 0, 10) COMP, current_size CS,
user_specified_size US
FROM v$memory_dynamic_components
WHERE current_size!=0;
What do you infer from this?
A. All sessions are connected to the database instance in dedicated mode, and no RMAN or
parallel query operations have been performed.
B. The database instance is running with manual shared memory management.
C. The database instance is running with manual PGA management.
D. The database instance has the MEMORY_TARGET value set to a nonzero value.
Answer: D
Question 6.
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance having three disks in a disk group with ASM compatibility attribute set to 11.1.0 and redundancy set to high. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure.
Which statements will be true in this scenario? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The disk is immediately dropped from the disk group.
B. The ASM tracks the extents that are modified during the outage.
C. The ASM migrates the extents from the unavailable disk to the remaining disks.
D. The disk automatically goes offline.
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
The SQL Tuning Advisor has been configured with default configurations in your database instance.
Which recommendation is automatically implemented without the DBA's intervention after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. statistics recommendations
B. SQL profile recommendations
C. restructuring of SQL recommendations
D. index-related recommendations
Answer: B
Question 8.
Exhibit:
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.
You executed the following commands:
SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := 'my_instance_analysis_mode_task';
DBMS_ADDM.INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname,'Sg_directive','SCOTT');
END;
Which statement describes the consequence?
A. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to
suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT
schema only.
C. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT
schema.
D. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has
not been reset to its initial state.
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which statements are true regarding table compression? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It saves disk space and reduces memory usage.
B. It saves disk space but has no effect on memory usage.
C. It incurs extra CPU overhead during DML as well as direct loading operations.
D. It incurs extra CPU overhead during DML but not direct loading operations.
E. It requires uncompress operation during I/O.
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database.
Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
D. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an
undo tablespace for that size.
E. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
Your application includes a standard tab set TS1 with two tabs. You want the tabs to show up only in page 1 but not in page 2.
Which actions achieve the stated requirement?
A. Edit the tab definition. In the Tab Also Current for Pages field, specify the page number for
which the tab is to be rendered.
B. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current page Expression 1" for Condition Type and then specify
page 1 in the "Expression 1* field. Repeat this process for the other tab.
C. Edit the tab definition. Select "Current page is NOT in Expression 1" for Condition Type and
then specify the page number for which the tab is to render in the "Expression 1" field.
D. Change the region template on the page where the tabs should not be rendered.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B (not A): Even though you set the current for, the tab will still be visible. Only if you use a condition (or authorization) will the table disappear.
Question 2.
The Interactive Report is displayed in Exhibit 2
Which combination of three actions would need to take place to create the interactive report?
A. Create an Interactive Report region to show the list of EMPLOYEES and PRODUCTS based
on the Customer ID.
B. Create an Interactive Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS,
EMPLOYEES, PRODUCTS and SALES table.
C. Create an SQL Report region that contains a query between the CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS
and SALES tables only.
D. Create a filter on Customer FIRST_NAME and LAST_NAME.
E. Create a Control Break on Sales Representative.
F. Concatenate FIRST_NAME and LAST NAME for both CUSTOMERS and EMPLOYEES in the
query.
Answer: B, E, F
Explanation:
B: The report needs to access data from all four tables.
E: You can create a break group of one or several columns by selecting Control Break from the Actions menu. Creating a break group pulls the columns out of the interactive report and displays them as a master record.
F: The concatenated names of the Sales Representative (from Employee table) and the concatenated names of Customers are used.
Note: Interactive reports include components that enable users to alter the layout of report data. Users can select columns, create filters, apply highlighting, sort columns, define break groups, aggregate columns, create charts, and define computations. Once customized, users can then save an interactive report as named report and download the data to various file formats.
Question 3.
There are four departments listed as radio group, appearing one below the other in a form (View Exhibit A). You want to edit the item attributes so that they appear as shown in Exhibit B (horizontally, next to each other).
Which action would you take to satisfy this requirement?
Exhibit A
A. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to No and set "Begin on New Field"
attribute to Yes.
B. Change "Begin on new Line" attribute of radio group to Yes and set "Begin on New field"
attribute to Yes.
C. Change "Begin on new Line” attribute of radio group to No and set "Begin on New field"
attribute to No.
D. Edit the List of Values section for the item. Change the "Number of Columns" attribute to the
number of columns that should be displayed horizontally.
E. Edit the List of Values In Shared Components. Specify the number of columns that you want
the List of Values to span.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which three actions can be performed by a Workspace Administrator?
A. Monitor workspace activity
B. Manage workspace to schema assignments
C. Manage user accounts
D. Approve workspace requests
E. View usage reports of workspace
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
Developers can create and edit applications and view developer activity, session state, workspace activity(A), application, and schema reports. Workspace administrators additionally can create and edit user accounts (C), manage groups, and manage development services.
Question 5.
Which three steps are presented when importing an application?
A. Specify where to store the imported application
B. Browse to the file location and select the name of the file to be imported
C. Select how to resolve Application ID conflicts
D. Select the parsing schema and build status
E. Select the database character set
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
To import an Application or Page Export into a target Oracle Application Express instance:
1. Navigate to the Import page (B)
2. For Specify File, specify the following:
a. Import file - Click Browse and navigate to the file.
b. File Type - Select Application, Page, or Component Export.
c. Verify that File Character Set is correct.
d. Click Next.
Once you import a file, you have the option to install it.
3. To install an imported file, click Next.
4. In the Install Application wizard, specify the following:
(D) a. Parsing Schema - Select a schema.
b. Build Status
(C) c. Install As Application - Select one of the following:
– Auto Assign New Application ID
– Reuse Application ID From Export File
– Change Application ID
Use these options to avoid application ID conflicts. These options come in handy when you have two versions of the same application in the same instance. For example, you might be migrating an application to a production instance and still need to maintain the development version.
Reference: Oracle Application Express, Application Builder User’s Guide, Release 3.2, To import an Application or Page Export into a target Oracle Application Express
Question 6.
You have created an access control list. Which authorization scheme would you select to control access to an application or a page component?
A. Access control 1 update
B. Restricted access. Only users defined in the access control list are allowed
C. Public read only. Edit and administrative privileges controlled by access control list
D. Access control - view
E. Administrative access only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 7.
In your Orders application, you created a 30 Pie Flash chart page to display products by category.
You provided the following query:
Select null link, category_name# count (*) from (SELECT CASE
WHEN (category_id between 10 and 19) THEN 'Television1
WHEN (category_id between 20 and 29) THEN 'Computer1
ELSE 'Others1
END category_name
VMM new_product. Group by category_name order by 1
View the Exhibit.
What action should you perform to display the chart title and the total number of products under each category without using custom XML?
A. Edit the Flash Chart region to select the Show Values check box.
B. Modify the query to display the value and edit the Flash Chart region to display the chart title
C. Edit the Flash Chart region to specify the chart title and select the Show Values check box.
D. Edit the Flash Chart region to specify the chart title.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which two are true about creating interactive reports?
A. A form and Interactive' -report can be created at the same time,
B. An interactive report must be baseiHHp SQL Query.
C. All the columns must be shown in the Interactive report.
D. Only one interactive report can be defined on a page.
D. More than one Interactive report can be viewed on a page.
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which two statements is true relating to authentication in Oracle Application Express?
A. It is a process of establishing user identity before the user can access an application.
B. An authentication scheme can be specified for an entire application, page, or specific
Components Such as item, button and regions on a page.
C. An authentication scheme prevents a user from accessing session state belonging to other
users.
D. An authentication scheme helps a user to reestablish their session when they log back into an
application allowing them to bookmark the application.
E. An authentication scheme can only be applied to one application.
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
A: Authentication establishes the identity of each user who accesses your application. Authentication is the process of establishing each user's identify before they can access your application. Authentication may require a user identify a user name and password or could involve the use of digital certificates or a secure key.
C: When running custom authentication, Oracle Application Express attempts to prevent two improper situations:
* Intentional attempts by a user to access session state belonging to someone else. However, users can still type in an arbitrary application session ID into the URL.
* Inadvertent access to a stale session state (probably belonging to the same user from an earlier time). This would commonly result from using bookmarks to application pages.
Reference: Oracle Application Express, Application Builder User’s Guide, Release 3.2, Using Preconfigured Authentication Schemes
Question 10.
You have 5 buttons in a region. These buttons are of style "HTML Button". Each button is of a different size (depending on the name of the button).
How will you ensure that all the buttons are of the same size (150 pixels) and they look uniform?
A. Set the button attribute for each button to style "width: 150px”.
B. The size of an HTML Button is always decided based on the label of the button.
C. Select the button type as "Template Driven". Choose the same template for each button.
D. Change the button style to "Image. Create an image-based button of same size for each of the
buttons and use them in the application.
Answer: A
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
Payroll has completed, but the payroll process is in incomplete status. The pre-payment process is run. ?
A. The pre-payment process will not process any employee.
B. Prepayments are processed only for those employees whose payroll process status Is
Incomplete.
C. Pre-payments are processed only for those employees whose payroll process status Is
Complete.
D. Prepayments are processed for all the employees for whom payroll was run.
E. Pre-payments will be processed for all the employees with default payment method.
Answer: C
Reference: Oracle Human Resources Management Systems Payroll Processing Management
Guide, Payroll Processing and Analysis
Question 2.
HR department of the XYZ company has two types of users: HR Administrator and Head of Department (HoD), using the HR Executive and HR Manager responsibilities, respectively. The HoD wants to ensure that the HR Administrator has read-only access to the Grade Description form (Navigation: Work Structures > Grade > Description).
Assuming that the Grade Description form and Taskflow associated with both the responsibilities are different, how can this be done?
A. Add the parameter QUERY_ONLY=YES to the Grade Description form associated with the HR
Executive responsibility.
B. Create a new form using Custom form (Navigation: Security > Customform) under the HR
Executive responsibility with the specific restrictions.
C. Use HR Security profile to make the Grade Description form as read-only.
D. HR Forms cannot be made read-only.
E. Exclude the Grade Description function in the HR Executive responsibility.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
In Core HR, how can an organization capture all the recruitment activities for the current financial year within a parent recruitment activity?
A. Create the parent recruitment activity. While creating the child recruitment activities specify the
parent recruitment activity in the 'Within Recruitment Activity1 section.
B. Attach multiple recruitment activities to the same requisition.
C. Attach multiple recruitment activities to the same vacancy.
D. While creating the child/parent recruitment activities check the primary flag for the parent
recruitment activity.
E. A recruitment activity cannot be linked to any other recruitment activity.
Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation
Use the Recruitment Activity window to define either single recruitment activities or groups of activities. You can associate a recruitment activity with an organization and with one or more vacancies. You can record and monitor the cost effectiveness of any activity, or group of activities.
Reference: Oracle Human Resources Management Systems Workforce Sourcing, Deployment, and Talent Management Guide, Recruitment and Hiring
Question 4.
An element exists with the classification, "Tax Deduction." The element is not appearing in the Adjust balance element list. Identify two reasons for this.
A. Adjustment cannot be done for the Element classification "Tax Deduction."
B. A valid element link is not created.
C. The element must have an input value of the type date.
D. If a Payroll is run for the effective date, then the element will not be available in the List of
Values (LOV).
E. The element creation date is later than the current effective date.
Answer: B, E
Explanation:
Question 5.
Identify the two tasks that can be performed in Compensation Workbench (CWB)
A. Set Budgets
B. Review and Submit
C. Change Supervisor
D. Change Cost Center
E. Change Job
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Typically, there are five tasks performed in CWB :
* Set Budgets
* Review and Submit
* Allocate Compensation
* Manage Approvals
* Employee Statements
Reference: Compensation Work Bench, An Overview
Question 6.
For a new employee, the Assignment and Element related data was updated into the system. After the payroll and the post payroll processes were run, it was found that the employee's Bank Account Information was not entered into the system.
Assuming that no Override Payment Method was specified while running the Prepayment Process, what Payment Method would the system use for the new employee?
A. The prepayment process would error out for the employee since the employee's Bank Account
Information has not been added to the system.
B. The employee would be paid by the Default Payment Method associated with the payroll of the
employee.
C. The employee would be paid by the Default Payment Method associated with the
Consolidation Set.
D. The employee's Pre-Payment will not be processed.
E. The employee would be paid by the Default Payment Method associated with the Business
Group.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Payment Methods are defined for each Payroll with a Default specified. This default is used when the Payroll is associated with the employee and no personal payment method information has been entered for the employee
Question 7.
In the Approval Management Engine (AME), how are the approvers notified in the Consensus Voting Regime?
A. Members are notified in parallel.
B. Members are notified one after the other, in an order consistent with the member's order
numbers.
C. The first member to respond to the notification requesting approval becomes the group's
approval decision.
D. No approval is required; only FYI notification is sent.
E. Members are notified in Serial.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The decision to parallelize the transaction's approver groups and chains of authority amount to choosing consensus voting regimes for the approver groups.
Reference: Oracle Approvals Management Implementation Guide, Implementing Oracle Approvals Management
Question 8.
In Core HR, an applicant was created on 1-JUL-2009 with applicant status Accepted. On 20-JUL- 2009 the same applicant was hired in the system with the hire date set as 20-Jul-2009. No other transactions were done for this person. The hire date now needs to be changed to 10-Jul-2009.
How can this be done?
A. Date Track to 20-Jul-2009 and update the latest start date field with the new hire date.
B. Date Track to 10-3UL-2009 and update the latest start date field with the new hire date.
C. Date track to Ol-Jul-2009 and update the latest start date field with the new hire date.
D. Date track to 10-JUL-2009. Click Cancel application and re-hire the employee on 10-Jul-2009.
E. Date track to 10-JUL-2009. Click Delete and select the DELETE-NEXT-CHANGE date track
option. Save the changes and re-hire the employee on 10-Jul-2009.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Answer A is wrong as you can’t update the record on 20th as on 10th the status is application.
Question 9.
Identify which four are available as a dynamic database item in a fast formula of the type "Oracle Payroll.
A. Table Values
B. Elements
C. Balances
D. Absence Types
E. Grade Rates and Pay Scale Rates
Answer: B, C, D, E
Explanation:
Dynamic database items are generated from your definitions of:
– elements
– balances
– absence types
– grade rates and pay scale rates
– flexfield segments
Reference: Oracle Human Resource Management Systems, Database Items
Question 10.
A new Key Flexfield structure has been defined for the "Personal Analysis Flexfield.
Which additional step is required to enable the Special Information structure in the Person Special Information Form (Navigation: People > Enter and Maintain > Others > Special information)?
A. In the Special Information Types (SIT) form, create a row for the new SIT. Select the Enabled
check box for other.
B. For each business group, select the new SIT structure while defining the business group
information in the additional organization information window.
C. Run the Register Extra Information Types (EITs) concurrent program.
D. Assign the SIT to the responsibility using the Information Type Security form.
E. No additional steps required. SIT will be visible in the Special Information form in Core HR.
Answer: A
Explanation: Implementation: of special information type
A. Configure the key Flexfield
B. Add segments to the key flex field
C. Assign value sets to segments. Skip this step if you want your key flexfled segment to be free
text. Value sets are attached to each such segment that requires validation.
D. In HRMS Superuser responsibility , enable the key flexfield context in screen "Define special
information type" (A).
Reference: Special Information Types -SIT in HRMS
|
Question 1.
You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context.
Which control command allows you to do this quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any
signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2
analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a
decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
Answer: B
Question 3.
How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical
separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or
traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create logical
separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create
logical separation of traffic.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.
Answer: A
Question 5.
The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
Answer: C
Question 6.
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B. A list of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses and their lease times.
D. Server time information
Answer: C
Question 7.
Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application
services.
B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application
services
C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as
JPEG or HTML.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well
known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to
65535 and are assigned by IANA.
C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range
from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by
IANA and can have any value.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A. IBM.
B. US Military.
C. Alcatel-Lucent.
D. NASA.
E. Bell Labs
Answer: B
|
Question 1.
A client's health screening should be administered before
A. Any contact with the client.
B. Any physical activity by the client at your facility.
C. Fitness assessment or programming.
D. The initial "walk-through" showing of a facility.
Answer: B
Question 2.
A well-designed consent document developed in consultation with a qualified legal professional provides your facility with
A. Documentation of a good-faith effort to educate your clients.
B. Legal documentation of aclient's understanding of assessment procedures.
C. Legal immunity against lawsuits.
D. No legal benefit.
Answer: A
Question 3.
Relative contraindications for exercise testing are conditions for which
A. A physician should be present during the testing procedures.
B. Exercise testing should not be performed until the condition improves.
C. Exercise testing will not provide accurate assessment of health-related fitness.
D. Professional judgment about the risks and benefits of testing should determinewhether to
conduct an assessment.
Answer: D
Question 4.
A male client is 42 years old. His father died of a heart attack at age 62. He has a consistent resting blood pressure (measured over 6 weeks) of 132/86 mm Hg and a total serum cholesterol of 5.4 mmol/L.
Based on his CAD risk stratification, which of the following activities is appropriate?
A. Maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
B. Sub maximal assessment ofcardiorespiratory fitness without a physician supervising.
C. Vigorous exercise without a previous medical assessment.
D. Vigorous exercise without a previous physician-supervised exercise test.
Answer: C
Question 5.
During calibration of a treadmill, the belt length was found to be 5.5 m. It took 1 minute and 40 seconds for the belt to travel 20 revolutions.
What is the treadmill speed?
A. 4 m/min.
B. 66 m/min.
C. 79 m/min.
D. 110 m/min.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which of the following would most appropriately assess a previously sedentary, 40-yearold female client's muscular strength?
A. Using a 30-pound (18-kg) barbell to perform biceps curls to fatigue.
B. Holding a handgrip dynamometer at 15 pounds (7 kg) to fatigue.
C. Performing modified curl-ups to fatigue.
D. U sing a 5-pound (2.2-kg) dumbbell to perform multiple sets of biceps curls to fatigue.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Flexibility is a measure of the
A. Disease-free ROM about a joint.
B. Effort-free ROM about a joint.
C. Habitually used ROM about a joint.
D. Pain-free ROM about a joint.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding informed consent?
A. Informed consent is not a legal document.
B. Informed consent does not provide legal immunity to a facility or individual in the event of injury
to a client.
C. Negligence, improper test administration, inadequate personnel qualifications, and insufficient
safety procedures are all items expressly covered by the informed consent.
D. Informed consent does not relieve the facility or individual of the responsibility to do everything
possible to ensure the safety of the client.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following statements about underwater weighing is TRUE?
A. It can divide the body into bone, muscle, and fat components.
B. It assumes standard densities for bone, muscle, and fat.
C. It can divide the body into visceral and subcutaneous fat components.
D. It is a direct method of assessing body composition.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which of the following criteria would NOT classify a client as having "increased risk"?
A. Signs and/or symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease.
B. Signs and/or symptoms of metabolic disease.
C. Two or more major risk factors for CAD.
D. Male older than 40 years with a history of clinical depression.
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a project. You notice that a section of the project is located in the wrong phase. The section includes a summary task that contains eight subtasks and two milestones. You need to move the section complete with the summary tasks and milestones to a different project phase. You want the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) numbering to be updated to match the destination phase.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should select the summary task and select Change Working Time on the Project ribbon.
B. You should select the summary task and modify the start and finish dates.
C. You should open the properties of the summary task, select the Advanced tab and configure
the WBS code.
D. You should select the section including the summary task and milestones and click the Move
task option.
E. You should select the summary task and drag it to the correct phase.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You have several tasks in your project schedule. The tasks are a mix of active and inactive tasks that are automatically or manually scheduled. Some tasks are summary tasks that include subtasks. The tasks are listed using different text colors and fonts including bold, underline and strikethrough fonts. A new member of the project team uses Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007. He asks you to save the project as a Project 2007 project until his version of Project is upgraded to 2010. As a result of some features of the task list not being compatible with Project 2007, you would like to complete the task without creating any new milestones.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should alter all the tasks to be Manually Scheduled tasks.
B. You should alter all the tasks to be Auto Scheduled tasks.
C. You should alter the font of all tasks listed with a strikethrough font.
D. You should alter the font of all tasks listed with a bold font.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage multiple projects. Some resources are shared and work is distributed between the projects. You have received instructions to modify the workload for some of the shared resources.
Which two of the following actions should you take? (Choose two.)
A. You should consider inserting the existing project schedules into a blank project as
subprojects.
B. You should consider select the Links Between Projects option.
C. You should consider opening each existing project schedule and select the shared resource
pool.
D. You should consider enabling the Load Summary Resource Assignments option.
E. You should consider selecting the Level Resource function and select the required resources.
F. You should consider selecting the Level All function.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
Question 4.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are working on a Software System Development project. You have a task named Business Requirements Definition that is scheduled to be completed by 20th July. The constraint type for all tasks listed in the project schedule is configured as “As Soon As Possible”. The project team members inform you that the Business Requirements Definition task will be completed by 15th July. You want the default Gantt chart to show 20th July as the completion date instead of 15th July.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Constraint date field.
B. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Deadline date field.
C. Open the task information window and select the Fixed Units option in the Task Type field.
D. Open the task information window and enter 20th July in the Finish date field.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a new project. The project will be divided into five major phases. The time that each phase will take is still being calculated but the entire project needs to be completed within 6 months.
How should you configure the project to indicate that the entire duration will be 180 days?
A. You should configure five summary tasks each with a duration of 36 days.
B. You should set the Status Date to 180 days into the future.
C. You should enter the project timescale in the project calendar.
D. You should create a single summary task with the manually scheduled option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Project Professional 2010 to manage a new project. The resources in the project work from 6pm to 10pm four days a week from Monday through Thursday. You have been instructed to create a new default calendar for the project so that the working hours of the part-time resources are reflected.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should modify the Standard calendar then select the Update Project option.
B. You should navigate to the Change Working Time window and click Create New Calendar.
Then change the calendar type in the Project Options dialog box.
C. You should change the calendar type to part-time in the Project Options dialog box.
D. You should navigate to the Change Working Time window and change the calendar type to
part-time.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 7.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are configuring the tasks for a new project. You notice that the default constraint type for tasks that you create is set to As Soon As Possible. You are required to make sure that the default constraint type for new tasks is changed to As Late As Possible
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should configure the Schedule From option in the Project Information window to Project
Finish Date.
B. You should configure the Schedule From option in the Project Information window to Project
Start Date.
C. You should check the New Tasks are effort driven check box in the Project Options.
D. You should select all tasks then click the Update Project option.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
You work as a Project Manager at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Project Professional 2010 to manage a project.
Task1 is represented by the following icon in the default Gantt Chart view:
Task2 is represented by the following icon in the default Gantt Chart view:
What would you need to change to configure Task2 to be the same type as Task1?
A. You would need to configure Task2 to be automatically scheduled.
B. You would need to configure Task2 to be manually scheduled.
C. You would need to configure Task2 as critical.
D. You would need to configure Task2 as a milestone.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010. You are calculating the timescales for a new project using the bottom-up scheduling method. You have created three tasks named Drawings, Prototype and Review. You want to group the Drawings, Prototype and Review tasks into a project phase named Design.
How would you group the three tasks?
A. By selecting the three tasks and clicking the Outdent Task option.
B. By selecting the row above the three tasks and entering a new Summary Task.
C. By selecting the three tasks and clicking the Indent Task option.
D. By selecting the three tasks and selecting the Insert Summary Task option.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Your work at ABC.com includes management of projects using Microsoft Project Professional 2010.
How can you display a task that lists the project name, total project duration and start and finish dates by default in the project schedule?
A. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Critical Tasks checkbox.
B. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Summary Tasks checkbox.
C. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Project Summary Task checkbox.
D. By navigating to the Format tab and selecting the Outline Number checkbox.
Answer: C
Explanation:
|
Question 1.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. A ITCertKeys.com user named Mia Hamm uses a Windows 95 client computer named ITCertKeys-WS270. ITCertKeys-WS270 contains a single hard disk drive with two partitions that have been assigned the drive letters C and D. You need to perform a clean install of Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys-WS270. You decide to install a second hard disk drive in ITCertKeys-WS270 and assign it the drive letter E.
You want the E: drive to become the boot partition. What should you do?
A. Select Advanced Options from the Install Options dialog box in Setup.
B. At the command prompt, run winnt32.exe /syspart:E.
C. Define the TargetPath option in an answer file and use the answer file to perform an
unattended installation.
D. Use Sysprep to create an image for ITCertKeys-WS270.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The boot partition is the partition that constrains the %SystemRoot% folder into which set up copies the Windows XP Professional system files. This partition can be the primary partition of a logical partition. You can specify which drive letter or partition Setup should use in the Advanced Options dialog box.
Incorrect answers:
B: The syspart switch is used to copy Set up files to a temporary hard disk drive that can be moved to another computer on which the installation is to be performed. The syspart switch marks the specified drive letter as the system partition to which Setup will copy the Setup startup files. The hard drive can then be moved to a new computer where Windows XP Professional Setup will begin at the next phase.
C: The TargetPath option of an answer file specifies the name of the folder in which Windows XP Professional will be installed. It does not specify the drive letter or partition.
D: Sysprep is used to create an image that contains the operating system and the applications that are to be installed on a target computer. However, the Sysprep image can only contain a single partition and will replace the C: drive.
Reference:
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 1
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 12
Question 2.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server. Half the client computers run Windows NT 4.0 Workstation and the rest run Windows XP Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network also contains a file server named ITCertKeys-SR24. You need to upgrade a Windows NT 4.0 client computer named ITCertKeys-WS290 to Windows XP Professional. However, the Windows XP Professional installation CD does not contain the drivers for the network adapter card currently installed on ITCertKeys-WS290. You copy the i386 folder from the Windows XP professional installation CD to a shared folder named i386 on ITCertKeys-SR24. In the i386 shared folder you create a folder named Testadpcrd and copy the drivers for the network adapter card to the Testadpcrd folder. You want the Testadpcrd folder to be copied to the folder on ITCertKeys-WS290 during the upgrade process. After the upgrade, you want to be able to access the drivers in the Testadpcrd folder for future use.
What should you do on ITCertKeys-WS290?
A. At a command prompt, run the Winnt.exe command with the /r:testadpcrd switch.
B. At a command prompt, run the Winnt.exe command with the /rx:testadpcrd switch.
C. At a command prompt, run the Winnt32.exe command with the /copysource:testadpcrd switch.
D. At a command prompt, run the Winnt32.exe command with the /copydir:testadpcrd switch.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the i386 folder you will find the Winnt32.exe or Winnt.exe. In the command prompt you the use the Winnt32.exe command with the copydir switch. The copydir:folder name create a customized subfolders that can be used with the Windows XP Professional installation. If you use the /copydir option, the folder is not deleted.
Incorrect answers:
A: The /r switch is used with the winnt command. The winnt command is used to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that is not running Windows 98, Windows Me, Windows NT 4 Workstation, Windows 2000 Professional, or Windows XP Home Edition.
B: The /rx switch is used with the winnt command. The winnt command is used to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that is not running Windows 98, Windows Me, Windows NT 4 Workstation, Windows 2000 Professional, or Windows XP Home Edition.
C: The /copysource:folder name is used to create a temporary subfolder for Windows XP Professional files to be used during the installation process. Once the installation process is complete, the folders created with this process are deleted. If you use the /copydir option, the folder is not deleted.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 11
Question 3.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 98 client computers. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 25 employees over the next 3 months. The company has purchased 25 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers. The new client computers consist of five different hardware configurations as shown in the following table:
All the hardware on the new client computers appears on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL).
You intend to use RIPrep to deploy Windows XP Professional and the applications on the new client computers. How many RIPrep images would you require?
A. Twenty Five
B. Five
C. Four
D. One
Answer: C
Explanation:
The 25 client computers are classed in four categories because you need a separate image for each supported hardware abstraction layer (Hal) that is used in the four different client computers. To use Sysprep, all computers to which you intend to install Windows XP Professional (also known as target computers) must have the same hardware abstraction layer (HAL), Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) support, and mass storage controller devices as found in the reference computer that you prepare using Sysprep. The HAL for the imaged computer and the target computers must match. For example, you could not apply an ACPI-based HAL on a non-ACPI-based computer. For other hardware differences, the RIPrep wizard will use Plug and Play capabilities to detect any hardware differences between the source and destination computers.
Incorrect answers:
A: There is no need to create 25 images; the installation wizard will detect hardware components. If the devices are Plug and Play, the Plug and Play manager will configure the device.
B, D: You do not need to create one or for that matter five images; different HALs are needed for the computers that support ACPI and those not. Different HALs are needed for single processors and dual-processor systems.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 41
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Question 4.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com contains a server named ITCertKeys-SR10 that is used for Remote Installation Services (RIS) and Remote Installation Preparation (RIPrep). Due to company growth, ITCertKeys.com has acquired 40 new client computers. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers.
You intend using the RIS and the RIPrep wizard to install Windows XP Professional on all the new client computers. You install Windows XP Professional and the client applications on a reference computer named ITCertKeys-WS288. After creating the RIPRep image, you discover that Microsoft has just released a new service pack for Windows XP Professional. You want to apply the service pack to the RIPrep image before deploying Windows XP Professional to the new client computers.
What should you do?
A. At a command prompt on ITCertKeys-WS288, run riprep.exe
B. Use xcopy to copy the files from the service pack to ITCertKeys-SR10.
C. Slipstream the service pack files to the RIPrep image on ITCertKeys-SR10.
D. At a command prompt on ITCertKeys-WS288, run sysprep.exe
Answer: C
Explanation:
Slipstreaming is the act of integrating service pack files with operating system installation files, so that the operating system can be installed together with the service pack in a single operation. To maintain the correct version, you must integrate the slipstream the service pack into the RIPrep image of ITCertKeys-SR10.
Incorrect answers:
A: A (RIPrep) image is a type of image configured on a Remote Installation Services (RIS) server. A RIPrep image can contain the Windows XP Professional operating system and applications. This type of image is based on a preconfigured computer. In this case it cannot run until the RIPrep image version matches the version of Windows XP Professional on the server. It can only be done after the slipstreaming.
B: With xcopy you can override the default results for permissions. The /o switch of the Xcopy command copies the file access control list (ACL), which includes all the permissions along with the file. You can use the /x switch to copy the information in addition to the ACL. This means that you cannot create an RIS image of a workstation
D: Sysprep works together with a third-party imaging application such as Norton Ghost or Symantec Drive Image to create cloned copies of the system drive with unique security identifiers (SIDs) that satisfy the requirement that all computers on the network must have a unique SID.
Reference:
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 51
Question 5.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 98 client computers. Due to company growth, ITCertKeys.com intends to hire an additional 200 employees over the next 6 months. The company has purchased 200 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional as well as a number of proprietary applications on the new client computers. You want to deploy Windows XP Professional and the propriety applications using the least amount of administrative effort?
What should you do?
A. Use an answer file when installing Windows XP Professional and install the proprietary after
the installation is complete.
B. Run the Winnt32.exe /unattend from a command prompt.
C. On a reference computer, install the Windows XP Professional and the applications and
configure the settings as needed. Then run RIPrep.exe from the command prompt. Then use
Remote Installation Services (RIS) to install the RIPrep image.
D. On a reference computer, install the Windows XP Professional and the applications and
configure the settings as needed. Then run Sysprep.exe from the command prompt. Then use
Remote Installation Services (RIS) to install the Sysprep image.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Because these are new computers you should use Remote Installation Services. RIS can be used only for clean installations and can't be used to upgrade a previous version of Windows. Because the installation comes from a reference computer, these computer's Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) must be the same as the other client computers that need the installation. You should then create an image by using RIPrep.exe, on the reference computer. A (RIPrep) image is a type of image configured on a Remote Installation Services (RIS) server. A RIPrep image can contain the Windows XP Professional operating system and applications. You should connect the client computers to the network and the client computers that are Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) enabled will start automatically. PXE is a technology that is used to boot to the network when no operating system or network configuration has been installed and configured on a client computer.
Incorrect answers:
A: You do not want the new employees to intervene with the installation because thy do not have much experience. With Winnt.sif a floppy disk is needed, which means the new employees must insert the floppy disk containing the files after the first reboot, when the text-based portion of Setup is beginning.
B: This here is new client computer. You can only use Winnt32.exe if the client computers are already running a 32-bit Windows operating system.
D: You can use Sysprep.exe to create an installation image, but Sysprep images cannot be deployed using a RIS server. You should create a RIPrep image instead.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 51
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Question 6.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a file server named ITCertKeys-SR14 and 1,500 client computers. You have been instructed to perform a clean installation Windows XP Professional on 100 of the client computers. The custom settings and personal data of the users of these client computers must be preserved. You want to use Remote Installation Services (RIS) to deploy Windows XP Professional to these client computers. You also want to use the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. You should copy the user state data to ITCertKeys-SR14 by using the Scanstate.exe and run
the Loadstate.exe to apply the settings to the 100 client computers.
B. On all the 100 client computers you should back up the user state data and perform a
operating system upgrade and restore user state data to the client computers from the back
ups.
C. You should copy each of the 100 user's profiles to a network share. When the upgrade is
complete the users then can retrieve their profiles.
D. Backup the Systems State data from the 100 client computer to a network share. Restore the
System State data once the installation of Windows XP Professional is complete.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The case states that you want to use (RIS).You can use the User State Migration Tool (USMT) to transfer personal data, application settings and personal operating systems data. Windows XP Professional ships with a utility called the User State Migration Tool (USMT) that is used by administrators to migrate users from one computer to another via command-line utilities. The USMT is almost the same as the FAST Wizard with the following differences:
* The USMT is more configurable and can use INF files to specify which files and settings are transferred.
* The USMT is scriptable and uses command-line utilities to save and restore user files and settings.
The options also states that you should use Scanstate.exe and run the Loadstate.exe. The USMT consists of two executable files, ScanState.exe and LoadState.exe.
* ScanState.exe collects user data and settings information based on the configuration of the Migapp.inf, Migsys.inf, Miguser.inf, and Sysfiles.inf files.
* LoadState.exe then deposits the information that is collected from the source computer to a computer running a fresh copy of Windows XP Professional.
Incorrect answer
B: To back up the 100 client computers and to restore the user's personal on all the 100 client computers is more time consuming.
C: The user profile only contains the desktop and logon settings. For the users to retrieve their profiles would not give them their custom settings that are associated with the applications from their client computers.
D: The Systems State data from Windows 2000 and Windows XP Professional is different. Window 2000's Systems State data includes system boot files, the registry, all files that are protected by the Windows File Protection and the COM+ Class Registration database. The option states that you copy the Systems State data from the client computer, which means from Windows 2000. The Windows XP's User State Migration Tool (USMT) to transfer personal data, application settings and personal operating systems data.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 103
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 3
Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers, 600 Windows 98 client computers and 1,000 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 75 employees over the next 6 months. The company has purchased 75 new PXE-enabled client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on the new client computers. You attach the new client computers to the network as shown in the network exhibit.
Network exhibit:
You want to perform an unattended installation of Windows XP Professional on the new computers. You create an installation image of Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys-SR16.
You start one of the PXE-enabled client computers. However, after completing the power-on self test (POST) the PXE-enabled client computer reports that no operating system is available. You need to ensure that Windows XP Professional can be deployed successfully on the new client computers.
What should you do?
A. On the PXE-enabled client computer you should perform the Rbfg.exe command from the
command prompt.
B. In the system BIOS of the PXE-enabled client computer, specify the NIC as the first boot
device.
C. You should add a WINS server to ITCertKeys.com's network and restart the PXE-enabled
client computer.
D. You should recreate the installation image and restart the PXE-enabled client computer.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The scenario states that you started the PXE-enabled client computer with the Windows XP Professional CD. The PXE-enabled client computer is not configured to boot from the boot-Rom on its NIC. Client computers must meet the proper design specification to be installed with RIS. This includes the capability for remote booting, which is usually accomplished by adding a network interface card (NIC) that is equipped with a PXE ROM-enabled chip, along with support in the BIOS for booting the computer from this NIC.
Incorrect answer
A: The client computer is PXE-enabled, so to perform the Rbfg.exe is not necessary. Rbfg.exe is used to create a specialized floppy boot disk that can communicate with an RIS server to start a remote installation.
C: RIS allows an administrator to remotely install operating systems on client computers. To use RIS, you need to install this component on the server. The following server components must be available on the RIS server or on another server available to the RIS server:
* Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) that provides TCP/IP configuration parameters that enables the client computer to create its own network connection.
* Domain Name System (DNS) that provides name resolution services so that the client computer can locate the RIS server by name.
* Active Directory because the RIS operates only in an Active Directory-enabled domain environment. You cannot use RIS in a workgroup environment.
D: You are not required to recreate the installation image.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 41
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Question 8.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com also contains a server named ITCertKeys-SR20 that is used for Remote Installation Services (RIS). ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 200 employees over the next 12 months. The company has purchased 200 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional as well as some propriety applications on the new client computers. You want to deploy Windows XP Professional and the proprietary applications using the least amount of administrative effort?
What should you do?
A. You should copy an installation of Windows XP Professional with the customized settings and
the proprietary applications on a reference computer and copy the hard drive content of the
reference computer to a shared folder on ITCertKeys-SR20.
B. You should copy an installation of Windows XP Professional with the customized settings and
the proprietary applications on a reference computer, then remove its hard drive and install it in
a removable cartridge on ITCertKeys-SR20.
C. You should copy an installation of Windows XP Professional with the customized settings and
the proprietary applications on a reference computer and then run the RIPrep.exe to create the
installation image.
D. You should copy an installation of Windows XP Professional with the customized settings and
the proprietary applications on a reference computer and then run the Sysprep.exe to create
the installation image.
Answer: C
Explanation:
ITCertKeys.com has a RIS server. To deploy Windows XP Professional and the proprietary applications, you should install these items on the reference computer which has the same HAL as the target computers. RIS can be used only for clean installations and can't be used to upgrade a previous version of Windows. A (RIPrep) image is a type of image configured on a Remote Installation Services (RIS) server. A RIPrep image can contain the Windows XP Professional operating system and applications. You should connect the client computers to the network and the client computers that are Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) enabled will start automatically. PXE is a technology that is used to boot to the network when no operating system or network configuration has been installed and configured on a client computer.
Incorrect answer
A: To copy the copy the hard drive content of the reference computer to a share folder on the RIS server ( ITCertKeys-SR20) will not enable you to install the required Windows XP Professional installation.
B: To remove its hard drive and install it in a removable cartridge on RIS server ( ITCertKeys-SR20) will not enable you to install the required Windows XP Professional installation.
D: Sysprep works together with a third-party imaging application such as Norton Ghost or Symantec Drive Image to create cloned copies of the system drive with unique security identifiers (SIDs) that satisfy the requirement that all computers on the network must have a unique SID. Sysprep is not compatible with RIS.
Reference:
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 41
Question 9.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com is in the process of upgrading the client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to use cloning to deploy Windows XP Professional to the client computers in the Finance Department.
You install a client computer named ITCertKeys-WS270 in your test lab and install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys-WS270. You then install the required applications on ITCertKeys-WS270 and configure the computer. After ensuring that ITCertKeys-WS270 performs as expected, you log onto the computer as the local Administrator. However, when you attempt to run sysprep.exe at the command prompt, sysprep.exe does not execute.
What is the most probable cause of this problem?
A. The disk drive on ITCertKeys-WS270 has multiple partitions. Sysprep can only clone a single
partition.
B. The sysprep files are not in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
C. To run the sysprep utility, you must be a member of the Domain Admins group.
D. The partitions on ITCertKeys-WS270 are formatted with FAT32.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For Sysprep.exe to run you need the following files Sysprep.exe, Setupcl.exe and Sysprep.inf on a floppy disk or in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
Incorrect answer:
A: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
C: Not only the Domain Admins group has that privilege, but the administration account has also sufficient privileges to run Sysprep.exe.
D: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 62
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Question 10.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. Due to company growth, ITCertKeys.com intends to hire an additional 200 employees over the next 6 months. The company has purchased 200 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on the new client computers. You want to use the Sysprep tool to install Window XP Professional on the client computers.
The written ITCertKeys.com usage policy states that no user may use Add or Remove Programs in the Control Panel. You need to deploy Windows XP Professional to the new client computers. You also need to ensure that the written usage policy is not violated. You install Windows XP Professional on a reference computer named ITCertKeys-WS232.
What should you do next?
A. On ITCertKeys-WS232, delete Control.exe before creating the Sysprep image.
B. On ITCertKeys-WS232, create a local computer policy that removes Add or Remove Programs
from Control Panel.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU) named NewComputers. Move the new client computers
to the NewComputers OU and apply a GPO that removes Add or Remove Programs from
Control Panel to the NewComputers OU.
D. Configure the default Domain Controller policy for the ITCertKeys.com domain to remove Add
or Remove Programs from Control Panel.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The System Preparation Tool (Sysprep.exe) is used to prepare a computer for disk imaging, which can be done with a third-party image software or with disk-duplicator hardware. Disk imaging (also sometimes called disk cloning or disk duplication) is the process of creating a reference computer for the automated deployment. To deploy this policy, you can set the Remove Add/Remove Programs to Enable in the local computer policy on the reference computer.
Incorrect answer:
A: The Control.exe can be run from the command prompt. This command is used to start Control Panel.
C, D: Sysprep does not support Active directory-related settings. Policies enforced through GPO's in the active directory do not affect stand alone computers or workgroup.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, P. 45
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
|
Question 1.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris, Minsk, and Athens. The CIO of ITCertKeys.com has sent a manager named Andy Reid to work in the office of Paris. Andy Reid has taken with him the Windows XP Professional Full PaITKaged Product (FPP). Accompanying the FPP is a Microsoft Select License for the installation of Windows XP Professional.
At Paris Andy Reid wants install Windows XP Professional on a laptop. Andy Reid uses the installation media in the Product Fulfillment kit with the Microsoft Select License for the installation. Andy Reid then contacts you to state his problem "a screen requires the input of a product license key". Andy Reid wants to know which product key he should use.
What should you tell him?
A. The FPP product key
B. The VLK product key
C. A product key that is acquired by the security Web site.
D. Use the product key printed on a stiITKer at the bottom of the laptop.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you want to license Windows XP Professional, you should use the Volume Product License Key (VLK).
Incorrect answer:
A: The FPP is used to install media which is provided in an FPP.
C: If you make use of the security website, you or Andy Reid will violate the Microsoft License agreement.
D: The Windows XP Professional product key which is on the laptop is intended only for the installation of Windows XP Professional on the system to which the stiITKer is attached.
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Rory Allen complains that he is unable to join the ITCertKeys.com domain with his Windows XP computer. You tell Rory Allen to ping a domain controller in ITCertKeys.com, which was successful.
What should you tell him to do next?
A. Rory Allen should verify the domain mode.
B. Rory Allen should verify the operating system version.
C. Rory Allen should verify the hardware compatibility.
D. Rory Allen should verify the network connectivity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional can join a Windows Server 2003 domain, not the Windows XP Home Edition. This is the difference if the two operating systems.
Incorrect answer:
A: It is not needed to make sure of the domain mode because Windows XP Professional cam interoperate with Windows Server 2003.
C, D: The hardware compatibility or the network connectivity his not the problem. It states in the scenario that Rory Allen did ping the domain which was successful.
Question 3.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Mia Hamm works in the Sales department. Due to volume of work, Mia Hamm needs her computer every minute. One morning Mia Hamm came to you and said that she needs the latest versions of the security patches from Microsoft. Mia Hamm wants the update to be installed without intervention from her.
What should you tell Mia Hamm to do?
A. Use Software Update Services (SUS).
B. Use the Windows Update.
C. Use Automatic Updates.
D. Use Windows Unattended Installation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mia Hamm should use the Automatic Updates. She can schedule the update to run after hours.
Incorrect answer:
A: SUS uses a local Windows Update Server. The question doesn't say ITCertKeys.com has a SUS server.
B: If Mia Hamm is going to use Windows Updates, she has to manually download and install the updates.
D: The Unattended Installation will allow her to install Windows XP Professional without doing anything. It is not used to download and install updates every day.
Question 4.
You work as the administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,300 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Accounting. Due to the growth of the Sales department, ITCertKeys.com will hire another 100 employees over the next month.
The CIO acquires 100 new Windows XP Professional computers which will be added to the ITCertKeys.com network. Amy Walsh is a new employee in the Sales department. You install Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS271 for Amy Walsh. You need to ensure that Amy Walsh can use her ITCertKeys -WS271 for at least three years. You also want to send Microsoft information about ITCertKeys.com.
What should you do?
A. Register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271.
B. Activate and register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271 during the installation
process.
C. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press F8 during the boot process.
D. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press DEL or F2 during the boot process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you register the computer, Microsoft will have information about the company and if you activate the operating system, it will continue after 30 days.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Registering will not allow the computer to stop with Windows XP Professional. You need to activate the operating system.
C: If you press F8 when the operating system is rebooting, it will display the Boot Menu with options such as Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Network support etc.
D: If you press the DEL of F2 key, it will display the CMOS setup program.
Question 5.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department and a Marketing department. The Marketing department is in Chicago and the Sales department is in Dallas. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Amy Wilson works in the Sales department. She wants to install Windows XP Professional on a system in the Dallas office without the risk of infection of a worm or virus before the completion of the installation. Amy Wilson also wants File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks to be disabled.
What should Amy Wilson do?
A. In the Setup Wizard, use the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
B. In the Setup Wizard, use the Typical settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
C. In the Setup program, use the Advance Options on the Install Options page.
D. Disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box, Amy Wilson can disable the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks. This setting is usually enabled by default.
Incorrect answer:
B: If she uses the Typical setting, the option will be enabled.
C: You only use the Advance Options on the Install Options page to identify the location of the setup files; select disk partitions; etc.
D: There is no need to disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable, the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks will be installed by default.
Question 6.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth tries to install is Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS277. ITCertKeys -WS277 is currently running Microsoft Windows 98. When Andy Booth inserts the Windows XP Professional CD into the CD-ROM drive and reboots ITCertKeys -WS277, Windows 98 loads instead of the Windows XP Professional setup program. Andy Booth wants to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS277 will load the Windows XP Professional setup program.
What should Andy Booth do?
A. Create a MS-DOS with the Add or Remove Programs, boot the computer with the disk and
change to the CD-ROM drive and run winnt32.exe.
B. Remove the drive with the Windows 98 files in the System utility.
C. Create the installation disks with WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe, and boot from the disk.
D. Enter the BIOS setup program and change the boot order for the CD-ROM drive to be cheITKed
first.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Andy Booth should change the starting order so that the computer cheITKs the CD-ROM first. When a computer starts, it will cheITK for the startup files on the hard drive. By changing it to cheITK the CD-ROM first, it will then find the Windows XP's startup files.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If he creates a MS-DOS disk, he should use the winnt.exe and not the winnt32.exe.
B: You cannot configure the boot order with the System utility.
C: WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe is used to install the correct drivers for a Windows XP installation. It is not used to create an installation disk.
Question 7.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 50 employees over the next 3 months. The new employees will be assigned to the Sales department. The company has purchased 50 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees.
You are required to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers. All the hardware on the new client computers appears on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). You install Windows XP Professional on one of the new client computers named ITCertKeys -WS102. However, once the installation is complete ITCertKeys -WS102 fails to start and you receive a "STOP INACCESSIBLE BOOT DEVICE" error message. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS102 can start properly.
What should you do?
A. In the system BIOS, disable UDMA for the primary hard disk.
B. Use the Recovery Console and run the Fixboot and Fixmbr commands.
C. In the system BIOS, disable all PIO modes for the primary hard disk.
D. In the system BIOS, disable the virus scanning software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FIXBOOT is used to write a new boot sector onto the computer's system partition and FIXMBR is used to repair the MBR of the computer's boot partition.
Incorrect answer:
A, C: UDMA and PIO are automatically set at boot time. This will have no effect on the booting of the system.
D: To disable the virus scanning option will not interfere during the installation. It will have no effect on the booting of the system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 657
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9
Question 8.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Research, Marketing, and Accounting. Amy Walsh is the manager of the Research department. She currently uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS129. ITCertKeys.com purchases a new computer named ITCertKeys -WS200 for Amy Walsh. ITCertKeys -WS200 has two hard drives that are connected to an ISA SCSI adapter and an IDE CD-ROM drive.
You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS200. You decide to install Windows XP Professional from the Windows XP Professional installation CD. You configure ITCertKeys -WS200 to boot from the CD-ROM and attempt to install Windows XP Professional. However, the installation fails and you receive an error message stating that Setup cannot locate any hard disks on ITCertKeys -WS200. You need to ensure that you can install Windows XP Professional successfully on ITCertKeys -WS200.
What should you do?
A. During the installation, provide the SCSI adapter driver when prompted.
B. In the system BIOS, assign an IRQ for a PCI video adapter.
C. Replace the multi syntax with scsi syntax in the Boot.ini file.
D. Ensure that the SCSI bus is properly terminated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional installation does not recognize the SCSI adapter. You should restart Setup and press F6 when prompted. You then should press S and provide the SCSI adapter driver on a floppy disk.
Incorrect answer:
B: Windows Plug and Play would assign the video card an available IRQ.
C: According to the scenario the set up has failed immediately. TheBoot.ini is created when it is close to the first reboot.
D: This could potentially be a cause of the problem; however, it is far more likely to be a driver issue. If the bus wasn't properly terminated, you would get an error during the POST process before the installation starts.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 106
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 4
Question 9.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com includes a Finance department. ITCertKeys.com has just acquired a new computer for an employee named Andy Reid. You set the BIOS for the following boot sequence: CD-ROM, Floppy disk drive and Hard disk. You then boot the computer from the Windows XP Professional installation CD-ROM. When you reboot he computer after the Windows XP installation, you insert a CD-ROM and install TechNet with the Minimum setup option. There after you insert a floppy disk and install the latest video driver.
When the computer again reboots it displays the following error message:
Non-system disk or disk error. Replace and press any key to continue. You need to start the computer with the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Remove the floppy disk and press SPACEBAR.
B. Start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver.
C. Remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR.
D. Set the CD-ROM as the last device in the boot order.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should remove a floppy disk and then press the SPACEBAR. If it is not a bootable disk then the computer will show an error message.
Incorrect answer:
B: It is not needed to start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver. With a floppy disk in a floppy disk drive, you will not be able to restart in Safe Mode.
C: It is not needed to remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR. Th4e drive will determine that the CD-ROM is not bootable.
D: There is no need to change the boot sequence because the CD-ROM is not bootable.
Question 10.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com is in the process of upgrading the client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to use cloning to deploy Windows XP Professional to the client computers in the Marketing Department. You install a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS240 in your test lab and install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS240. You then install the required applications on ITCertKeys -WS240 and configure the computer. After ensuring that ITCertKeys -WS240 performs as expected, you log onto the computer as the local Administrator. However, when you attempt to run sysprep.exe at the command prompt, sysprep.exe does not execute.
What is the most probable cause of this problem?
A. The disk drive on ITCertKeys -WS240 has multiple partitions. Sysprep can only clone a single
partition.
B. The sysprep files are not in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
C. To run the sysprep utility, you must be a member of the Domain Admins group.
D. The partitions on ITCertKeys -WS240 are formatted with FAT32.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For Sysprep.exe to run you need the following files Sysprep.exe, Setupcl.exe and Sysprep.inf on a floppy disk or in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
Incorrect answer:
A: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
C: Not only the Domain Admins group has that privilege, but the administrator account has also sufficient privileges to run Sysprep.exe.
D: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 62
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.