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passed with first attempt, thanks for itcertkeys.
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Question 1.
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "sic"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Compatibility check is done:
Module bootable impact install-type reason
--------- --------- ---------- ------- ----- ---------
2 yes non-disruptive rolling
3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported
5 yes non-disruptive reset
6 yes non-disruptive reset
Images will be upgraded according to following table:
Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required
--------- ------- ---------- ----------- ------ ----------
2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]
What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?
A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity
which could provide a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN.
What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
Answer: C
Flow based load balancing : all frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
Question 5.
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.
A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee
Answer: B, D
=> T11 for fiber channel, T10 for SCSI
Question 6.
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092
Answer: B
=> user-specific VSAN 2-4093
Question 7.
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio
Answer: C
=> FCIP profile for TCP port, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
Question 8.
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS.
What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
Answer: D
=> interop mode 3 for Brocade 12000
Question 9.
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size
Answer: C
Question 10.
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array
Answer: B
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Question 1.
What IE is not mandatory in a Q.931 Service msg?
A. Bearer capability
B. Channel ID
C. Message Type
D. Change Status
E. Call Reference
Answer: A
Question 2.
The purpose of Administrative Distance, as used by Cisco routers, is:
A. To choose between routes from different routing protocols when receiving updates for the
same network
B. To identify which routing protocol forwarded the update
C. To define the distance to the destination used in deciding the best path
D. To be used only for administrative purposes
Answer: A
Question 3.
What is the maximum PMD value of a 100km fiber segment if the cable is specified with 0.5ps/km ? (worst case)?
A. 0.005ps
B. .05ps
C. 5ps
D. 50ps
E. 500ps
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is the equivalent of 50 GHz spacing in DWDM in terms of nm?
A. 1.6 nm
B. 0.8 nm
C. 0.4 nm
D. 0.2 nm
Answer: C
Question 5.
Exhibit:
Router ITK1 has a 512K-access port into the frame relay cloud. Router ITK2 has 128K-access port into the frame relay cloud. The two routers are connected with symmetrical PVCs that are configured for 64K committed information rate (CIR).
What Frame Relay Traffic Shaping map-class sub-command should be entered on Router A to prevent workstation A from overrunning the access port on Router B?
A. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 512000
B. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 512000
C. frame-relay traffic-rate 512000 64000
D. frame-relay traffic-rate 128000 64000
E. frame-relay traffic-rate 64000 128000
Answer: E
Question 6.
If a host sends a TCP segment with the RST flag set, it means:
A. The receiver should send all data in the reassembly buffer to the application receiving it
immediately.
B. The receiver should reset the session.
C. Any routers between the source and destination hosts should reset the state of the connection
in their buffers.
D. The receiver should make certain its send buffer is pushed onto the wire.
Answer: B
Question 7.
How many E1 channels can STM-1 frame transport?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 63
D. 84
Answer: C
Question 8.
BGP can implement a policy of 'Route Dampening' to control route instability.
What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable 'suppress limit'.
Answer: C
Question 9.
MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:
A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs
B. BGP MEDs
C. RTP or RTCP packets
D. MBGP
Answer: A
Question 10.
Exhibit:
In the diagram, if a resilient packet ring (RPR) is built between ML-series cards, ____ restoration exists on the ring, while the redundant connections to the 7609 rely on _____protection.
A. 50 ms, STP
B. STP, STP
C. STP, 1+1 APS
D. 50ms, 50ms
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has an Active Directory domain named na.contoso.com. A server named Server1 runs the DNS server role. You notice stale resource records in the na.contoso.com zone. You have enabled DNS scavenging on Server1. Three weeks later, you notice that the stale resource records remain in na.contoso.com. You need to ensure that the stale resource records are removed from na.contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Stop and restart the DNS service on Server1.
B. Enable DNS scavenging on the na.contoso.com zone.
C. Run the dnscmd Server1 /AgeAllRecords command on Server1.
D. Run the dnscmd Server1 /StartScavenging command on Server1.
Answer: D
Question 2.
Your company has an Active Directory domain named ad.contoso.com. The company also has a public namespace named contoso.com. You need to ensure that public DNS zone records cannot be copied. You must achieve this goal without impacting the functionality of public DNS name resolutions.
What should you do?
A. Disable the Notify feature for the contoso.com zone.
B. Disable the Allow - Read permission for the Everyone group on the contoso.com DNS domain.
C. Configure the All domain controllers in the domain zone replication option on ad.contoso.com.
D. Configure the Allow zone transfers only to servers listed on the Name Servers option on
contoso.com.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office has a domain controller named DC1 that hosts a DNS primary zone. The branch office has a DNS server named SRV1 that hosts a DNS secondary zone. All client computers are configured to use their local server for DNS resolution. You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need to ensure that SRV1 reflects the change immediately.
What should you do?
A. Restart the DNS Server service on DC1.
B. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on DC1.
C. Run the dnscmd command by using the /zonerefresh option on SRV1.
D. Set the refresh interval to 10 minutes on the Start Of Authority (SOA) record.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Your company has a single Active Directory domain. The company has a main office and a branch office. Both the offices have domain controllers that run Active Directory-integrated DNS zones. All client computers are configured to use the local domain controllers for DNS resolution. The domain controllers at the branch office location are configured as Read-Only Domain Controllers (RODC). You change the IP address of an existing server named SRV2 in the main office. You need the branch office DNS servers to reflect the change immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on the branch office servers.
B. Run the dnscmd /ZoneUpdateFromDs command on a domain controller in the main office.
C. Change the domain controllers at the branch offices from RODCs to standard domain
controllers.
D. Decrease the Minimum (default) TTL option to 15 minutes on the Start of Authority (SOA)
record for the zone.
Answer: A
Question 5.
Your company has a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. Server1 runs the DHCP Server role and the DNS Server role. You also have a server named ServerCore that runs a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008. All computers are configured to use only Server1 for DNS resolution. The IP address of Server1 is 192.168.0.1. The network interface on all the computers is named LAN. Server1 is temporarily offline. A new DNS server named Server2 has been configured to use the IP address 192.168.0.254. You need to configure ServerCore to use Server2 as the preferred DNS server and Server1 as the alternate DNS server.
What should you do?
A. Run the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 index=1 command.
B. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 192.168.0.1 both
command.
C. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and
the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 both command.
D. Run the netsh interface ipv4 set dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.254 primary command and
the netsh interface ipv4 add dnsserver "LAN" static 192.168.0.1 index=1 command.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Your company has a domain controller named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 and the DNS server role. A server named Server2 runs a custom application. You need to configure DNS to include the following parameters for the custom application:
Service
Priority
Weight
Protocol
Port number
Host offering this service
Which record should you create?
A. Host Info (HINFO)
B. Service Locator (SRV)
C. Canonical Name (CNAME)
D. Well-Known Service (WKS)
Answer: B
Question 7.
Your company has a main office and two branch offices. Domain controllers in the main office host an Active Directory-integrated zone. The DNS servers in the branch offices host a secondary zone for the domain and use the main office DNS servers as the DNS Master servers for the zone. Each branch office has an application server. Users access the application server by using its fully qualified domain name. You need to ensure that users in the branch offices can access their local application server even if the WAN links are down for three days.
What should you do?
A. Increase the Expires After setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the zone.
B. Increase the Refresh Interval setting to 4 days on the Start of Authority (SOA) record for the
zone.
C. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale
resource records, and set the Refresh setting to 4 days.
D. Configure the Zone Aging / Scavenging Properties dialog box to enable Scavenge Stale
resource records, and set the No-refresh interval setting to 4 days.
Answer: B
Question 8.
Your company has a single Active Directory forest that has a domain in North America named na.contoso.com and a domain in South America named sa.contoso.com. The client computers run Windows Vista. You need to configure the client computers in the North America office to improve the name resolution response time for resources in the South America office.
What should you do?
A. Configure a new GPO that disables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply
the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
B. Configure a new GPO that enables the Local-Link Multicast Name Resolution feature. Apply
the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
C. Configure a new GPO that configures the DNS Suffix Search List option to sa.contoso.com,
na.contoso.com. Apply the policy to all the client computers in the North America office.
D. Configure the priority value for the SRV records on each of the North America domain
controllers to 5.
Answer: C
Question 9.
Your company has multiple DNS servers in the main office. You plan to install DNS on a member server in a branch office. You need to ensure that the DNS server in the branch office is able to query any DNS server in the main office, and you need to limit the number of DNS records that are transferred to the DNS server in the branch office.
What should you do?
A. Configure a secondary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
B. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
C. Configure a stub zone on the DNS server in the main office.
D. Configure a primary zone on the DNS server in the branch office.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Your company has a DNS server named Server1. Your partner company has a DNS server named Server2. You create a stub zone on Server1. The master for the stub zone is Server2. Server2 fails. You discover that users are not able to resolve names for the partner company. You need to ensure that users are able to resolve names for the partner company in the event that Server2 fails.
What should you do?
A. Change the stub zone to a secondary zone on Server1.
B. Open the SOA record for the zone on Server2. Change the Minimum (default) TTL setting to
12 hours.
C. Open the DNS zone for the partner company on Server2. Create a new Route Through (RT)
record and a new host (A) record for Server1.
D. Open the primary DNS zone on Server2. Create a new Service Locator (SRV) record and a
new host (A) record for Server1.
Answer: B
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Question 1. All of the following provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol EXCEPT: A. SSL. B. SSH. C. L2TP. D. IPSeC. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following allows an attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data? A. Steganography B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Virus Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page? A. Teardrop B. TCP/IP hijacking C. Phishing D. Replay Answer: B Question 4. How should a company test the integrity of its backup data? A. By conducting another backup B. By using software to recover deleted files C. By restoring part of the backup D. By reviewing the written procedures Answer: C Question 5. Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices? A. Vulnerability scanner B. NIPS C. Protocol analyzer D. Network mapper Answer: D Question 6. When should a technician perform penetration testing? A. When the technician suspects that weak passwords exist on the network B. When the technician is trying to guess passwords on a network C. When the technician has permission from the owner of the network D. When the technician is war driving and trying to gain access Answer: C Question 7. An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam real-time block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server? A. SMTP open relaying is enableD. B. It does not have a spam filter. C. The amount of sessions needs to be limiteD. D. The public IP address is incorrect. Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data? A. Hashing algorithms B. Symmetric key algorithms C. Asymmetric key algorithms D. ECC algorithms Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points? A. Rogue access points B. War driving C. Weak encryption D. Session hijacking Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following BEST describes ARP? A. Discovering the IP address of a device from the MAC address B. Discovering the IP address of a device from the DNS name C. Discovering the MAC address of a device from the IP address D. Discovering the DNS name of a device from the IP address Answer: C
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Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B
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Question 1. In what way do the procedures for dealing with evidence in a criminal case differ from the procedures for dealing with evidence in a civil case? A. evidence procedures are not important unless you work for a law enforcement agency B. evidence must be handled in the same way regardless of the type of case C. evidence in a civil case must be secured more tightly than in a criminal case D. evidence in a criminal case must be secured more tightly than in a civil case Answer: B Question 2. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION C. HKEY_USER D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER Answer: C Question 3. If a suspect's computer is located in an area that may have toxic chemicals, you must A. coordinate with the HAZMAT team B. do not enter alone C. assume the suspect machine is contaminated D. determine a way to obtain the suspect computer Answer: A Question 4. Profiling is a forensics technique for analyzing evidence with the goal of identifying the perpetrator from their pervious activity. After a computer has been compromised by a hacker, which of the following would be most important in forming a profile of the incident? A. The vulnerability exploited in the incident B. The manufacture of the system compromised C. The nature of the attack D. The logic, formatting and elegance of the code used in the attack Answer: D Question 5. What information do you need to recover when searching a victims computer for a crime committed with specific e-mail message? A. Username and password B. Firewall log C. E-mail header D. Internet service provider information Answer: C Question 6. The use of warning banners helps a company avoid litigation by overcoming an employees assumed ___________________ when connecting to the companys intranet, network, or virtual private network (VPN) and will allow the companys investigators to monitor, search, and retrieve information stored within the network. A. right of privacy B. right to Internet access C. right to work D. right of free speech Answer: A Question 7. When examining a hard disk without a write-blocker, you should not start Windows because Windows will write data to the: A. Case files B. Recycle Bin C. BIOS D. MSDOS.SYS Answer: B Question 8. How many sectors will a 125 KB file use in a FAT32 file system? A. 16 B. 25 C. 256 D. 32 Answer: C Question 9. Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file? A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION B. HKEY_USER C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE Answer: B Question 10. You are working as an independent computer forensics investigator and receive a call from a systems administrator for a local school system requesting your assistance. One of the students at the local high school is suspected of downloading inappropriate images from the Internet to a PC in the Computer Lab. When you arrive at the school, the systems administrator hands you a hard drive and tells you that he made a simple backup copy of the hard drive in the PC and put it on this drive and requests that you examine the drive for evidence of the suspected images. You inform him that a simple backup copy will not provide deleted files or recover file fragments. What type of copy do you need to make to ensure that the evidence found is complete and admissible in future proceedings? A. incremental backup copy B. full backup copy C. robust copy D. bit-stream copy Answer: D
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Question 1.
What are three [3] functions of the Clone Private LUN?
A. Keep track of modified extents of Source LUNs and Clones
B. Stores fracture log for synchronization or reverse synchronization
C. Enable incremental synchronization upon starting an Out-of-Sync Clone LUN
D. Allow continuance of synchronization operation of a Clone upon a failed SP.
E. Store host write data from Source when Clone is fractured from Source LUN
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
What are three [3] features that the PowerPath GUI provides to users?
A. Change theCLARiiON SP from active to standby.
B. Change the failover policy of a LUN.
C. Change aCLARiiON path from active to standby.
D. Change a host adapter from standby to active.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 3.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Monitors health of SAN
B. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
C. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
D. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
How are a production LUN and its clone(s) related?
A. Clone Private LUN.
B. Persistent fracture log.
C. Clone Group relationship.
D. Storage Group relationship.
Answer: C
Question 5.
What are three [3] features of VisualSAN?
A. Track storage utilization of servers on the SAN
B. Performance statistics of LUNS, and RAID groups
C. Integration withNavisphere CLI Correct if you mean that Visual SAN runs NaviCLI
D. Monitors health of SAN
E. Visual representation of SAN zones and members
Answer: C, D, E
Question 6.
What is the maximum number of Clone Private LUNs allowed on a CLARiiON CX Series array?
A. 50
B. 1
C. 25
D. 2
E. 100
Answer: D
Question 7.
What is a feature of the Write Intent Log (WIL)?
A. Used to minimize recovery in the event of a failure of the Primary array.
B. Tracks changes on the Primary LUN and synchronizes changes with the Secondary LUN when
reachable.
C. Is a volatile log which tracks changes to the Primary LUN during aFracture
D. Captureswrites to the Secondary LUN and release those changes when the Secondary is
promoted as Primary.
Answer: A
Question 8.
What is the default stripe element size for a five disk RAID 5 CLARiiON LUN?
A. 8 blocks
B. 32 blocks
C. 128 blocks
D. 64 blocks
E. 16 blocks
Answer: C
Question 9.
For which three [3] databases can VisualSRM provide table level detail?
A. SQLserver
B. Sybase
C. mySQL
D. Oracle
E. Informix
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
What are the steps, in order, for configuring a Brocade switch for Web management?
Answer:
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Question 1. When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first? A. media resource device list B. media resource group list C. media resource group D. media resource pool Answer: B Question 2. Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.) A. DNA B. SQL Server Service Manager C. RTMT D. DBLHelper E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences? A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL. B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs. C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS. D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool. Answer: A Question 4. A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. How can you access the information generated by this call? A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP Drag drop Answer: Question 6. How is a backup target changed to a backup server? A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server. B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server. C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target. D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server. Answer: D Question 7. What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for? A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. Answer: C Question 8. Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined? All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long distance and international numbers. Executives can call all numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones. A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 Answer: B Question 9. What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server? A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers. B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files. C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server. D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information. E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones. F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones. Answer: B Question 10. Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.) A. geographic proximity B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration C. common device type D. common use ofcodecs E. common MOH source F. common class of service Answer: A, B, D, E
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Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
A user on port ge-0/0/12 fails an 802.1x authentication attempt.
What is the next action of Switch A?
A. It puts the Authenticator in the HELD status where all EAPOL packets are discarded until the
default hold timer expires.
B. It communicates with the RADIUS server to confirm the user's password.
C. It transmits an EAP-Identity-Request packet immediately after it sends out EAP-Failure.
D. It tries to authenticate the user using MAC radius authentication.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, why are you seeing drops in the best-effort queue on the SRX Series platform?
A. The drop-profile fill level is set too low.
B. Packets are dropped by a firewall policy.
C. The best-effort queue is being shaped.
D. The scheduler is not being applied correctly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, why is VSTP not working for VLAN 100?
A. No interfaces are assigned to VLAN 100.
B. Your MSTI is misconfigured.
C. RSTP is configured in addition to VSTP.
D. No native VLAN is configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
If your WAN-edge router is multihomed to different ISPs, which two BGP attributes would you modify to affect outbound traffic? (Choose two.)
A. MED
B. origin
C. local preference
D. community
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 5.
When 802.1X, MAC-RADIUS, and Captive Portal are enabled on an interface, which authentication sequence occurs?
A. The authentication sequence is based on the order of the configuration.
B. If MAC-RADIUS is rejected, Captive Portal will start. If Captive portal is timed out, 802.1X will
start.
C. If 802.1X times out, then MAC-RADIUS will start. If MAC-RADIUS is timed out by the RADIUS
server, then Captive Portal will start.
D. If 802.1X times out, then MAC-RADIUS will start. If MAC-RADIUS is rejected by the RADIUS
server, then Captive Portal will start.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
A medium-sized enterprise has some devices that are 802.1X capable and some that are not.
Any device that fails authentication must be provided limited access through a VLAN called NONAUTH. How do you provide this access?
A. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the guest VLAN.
B. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the server-reject VLAN.
C. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the guest VLAN and the server-reject VLAN
D. Configure a separate VLAN for each type of user: 802.1X and non-802.1X.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
Click the Exhibit button.
Host 1, Host 2, and Host 3 are connected to Switch A on interface ge-0/0/2. Host 1 and Host 2 have been authenticated through 802.1X, however Host 3 does not have an 802.1X supplicant.
Referring to the configuration in the exhibit, how can Host 3 be authenticated?
A. secure-authentication option of HTTP or HTTPS must be configured for Captive Portal.
B. MAC RADIUS authentication must be configured for Host 3 instead of Captive Portal.
C. A new authentication-profile must be configured because 802.1X and Captive Portal cannot
have the same authentication-profile.
D. The 802.1X server failback feature must be configured for Host 3 to allow non-802.1X clients
to authenticate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
A user complains about connectivity problems from their IP address (10.1.1.87) to a server (10.65.1.100).
Which Junos command can help verify connectivity in the network? (Choose two.)
A. mroute
B. traceoptions
C. ping
D. clear bgp neighbor
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 9.
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the output of an OSPF router LSA.
Which interface ID represents the router's loopback address?
A. ID 10.1.1.0
B. ID 10.0.3.4
C. ID 10.0.3.3
D. ID 10.0.2.4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the output in the exhibit, why does the router prefer the path toward interface ge- 0/0/0.0 for the 20.0.0.0/8 route?
A. The origin is IGP.
B. The origin is unknown.
C. The AS path is longer.
D. Multihop is enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 11.
Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, which protocol is configured?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. STP
D. VSTP
Answer: D
Explanation:
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