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Question 1.
Who is responsible for the development of the project task, time, and resource lists?
A. The project manager
B. The program manager
C. The management team
D. The development team
Answer: A
Question 2.
What best handles large, complex, cross-functional projects?
A. Prokect expediter
B. Matrix organization
C. Project coordinator
D. Functional organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
A form of organizational structure. Employee in a matrix organization report to one functional manager and at least one project manager.
Functional managers assign employees to projects and carry out administrative duties, while project managers assign tasks associated with the project to team members and execute the project.
Question 3.
Throughout a project, what are three primary information needs of end-user management? (Choose three)
A. IT staffing requirements
B. Detailed testing schedules
C. Module test specifications
D. Main systems functionality
E. Detailed systems functionality
F. User involvement requirements
G. Main deliverables planned delivery times
Answer: D, F, G
Question 4.
A senior user on your project has requested that a particular function be included in the proposed system.
During the requirements analysis phase, one of the systems analysts on your team did not agree with the user's requests. You have examined the user's requirement and are unsure which option provides the best solution for the company and the user. You discuss the requirements with the user and decide that what the analyst has provided is valid. You meet the user a second time, but are unable to persuade her to change her requirement.
Which two actions should you take? (Choose two)
A. Implement the functionality as defined by the senior user's request.
B. Implement the functionality as defined by the systems analyst's recommendation.
C. Put the issue to the project board for resolution and document the outcome of their
deliberations.
D. Ensure all relevant parties know about the issue, the action taken, and the route project will go.
E. Hold another meeting to attempt to persuade the senior user to change her view of the way in
which her requirement should be met.
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
You need to hire a senior developer to work with a team producing a system utilizing object oriented, SQL Server, and Visual Basic 6.0 as the development platform. Which three attributes should you look for in a candidate? (Choose three)
A. An independent nature.
B. A positive, team-player attitude.
C. A goal-oriented, can-do disposition.
D. A knowledge of job control languages.
E. A knowledge of systems and user documentation.
Answer: B, C, E
Question 6.
Progress made during the operation of a project may be ahead of or behind schedule. It may also be above or below the project cost. What should you do to depict these situations so that you and the other project stakeholders can readily identify any divergence from planned outcomes?
A. Earned value
B. Tracking Gantt
C. Monthly progress report
D. Weekly project progress meetings
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which statement about user acceptance testing is true?
A. User testing provides an opportunity for users to refine their needs.
B. User testing should prove that the system operates to the specified requirements.
C. User testing should be performed as part of the system implementation training phase.
D. User testing provides an excellent opportunity for errors to be identified in the developed code.
Answer: B
Question 8.
You are a project manager developing a work plan for a system development project. You want to include the entry and exit criteria used to manage the transition between the phase of the project. Which two deliverables are criteria to transition to the development phase of the project?
(Choose two)
A. Training curriculum
B. User interface design
C. Acceptance test scripts
D. Application interface design
E. Business policies and procedures
Answer: B, E
Question 9.
Which two phases of a project are least likely to require iteration of the tasks to complete? (Choose two)
A. Unit testing
B. Systems design
C. Systems testing
D. Project initiation
E. Systems analysis
F. Systems integration
G. Systems development
H. Requirements analysis
I. Systems implementation
J. User acceptance testing
Answer: D, J
Question 10.
Which two statements form a realistic basis for setting and measuring project targets?
(Choose two)
A. Milestones are set in the plan and should not move.
B. A milestone is measurable upon completion of deliverable.
C. Projects should be planned to include go/no go decision points that are based upon and
initiated by the completion of major deliverables.
D. The completion of the systems analysis phase that identifies many more requirements than
originally expected, should not cause any changes to the project budget.
Answer: B, D
Question 11.
Which two factors have the greatest impact on the estimated per unit labor cost for a project? (Choose two)
A. Historical information
B. Use of outside vendors
C. Change control processes
D. Human resource availability
E. Human resource skill level requirements
Answer: A, E
Question 12.
Team member listing, scheduled tasks, and training plan are part of the _______.
A. Project plan
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: A
Question 13.
Which component is used to estimate resource requirements, activity durations, and costs?
A. Project plan
B. Implementation plan
C. Business requirements
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
Question 14.
You completed your project plan and presented it to the project sponsor for signoff. Although you consulted the sponsor numerous times during the planning process, there is a significant discrepancy in the final schedule.
The sponsor refuses to approve the plan. Which three strategies should you use to resolve the situation? (Choose three)
A. Interview the sponsor to identify the root of the scheduling concerns.
B. Add resources to the plan until the plan is acceptable to the sponsor.
C. Attempt to persuade the sponsor that the existing schedule should remain in the plan.
D. Modify the schedule in order to obtain sign-off, knowing that the "true" schedule may vary form
the project plan.
E. Prepare a written recommendation suggesting the project be cancelled based on lack of
support form the sponsor.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 15.
What is a result of implementing change control for a project?
A. Appropriate coding guidelines are followed.
B. Everyone is protected from the effects of scope creep.
C. Deployment associated with technical issues is smooth.
D. The necessity for ongoing management review of the project is minimized.
Answer: A
Question 16.
You are developing a scope of work for a project that will utilize extensive technical resources. A request has been made to make modifications to a user input screen. Who must approve?
A. Project manager
B. Development team leader
C. Project sponsor
D. End users representative
Answer: C
Question 17.
You can minimize the amount of project scope creep by ______.
A. Limiting prototyping
B. Minimizing user input.
C. Keeping the project duration short.
D. Limiting access to system resources.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best way to avoid scope creep as much as possible (you're never going to totally avoid it) is to make sure the project's requirements have been thoroughly fleshed out before the project starts.
Question 18.
You company has already spent 100 million dollars on the project you are currently managing. This project is designed to take advantage of a business opportunity with a short life. You realize that the product will reach the market late and the amount the company will recover will be far less than the amount needed to finish the project.
What should you recommend to the sponsor?
A. Terminate the project
B. Continue with the project.
C. Change the project budget.
D. Change the scope of the project.
Answer: A
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Question 1. A Power 570 is planned to run with a dual VIOS environment. The VIOS should be equipped for maximum resilience to provide LUN access to both VIO servers. What are the minimum requirements? A. Two dual port adapters B. Four dual port adapters C. Four single port adapters D. Two single port adapters Answer: C Question 2. A customer is trying to configure a Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) on a Logical Port Host Ethernet (lp-hea) using mkdev -sea ento -vadapter ent2 -default ent2 -defaulted 1 and receive this response: 0514-040 Error initializing a device into the kernel. What can be the cause of this problem? A. A SEA can only be created on a physical network adapter B. Promiscuous mode on the virtual Ethernet adapter ent2 must be set to "On" from the HMC C. Promiscuous mode on lp-hea entO must be set to "On" from the HMC D. SEA must be a default VLAN other than 1 Answer: C Question 3. A customer has ordered a Power 570 with only 4 dual port fiber cards. Which configuration would allow 4 LPARs on this server to have multiple paths, with no single point of failure, for each SAN connection? A. One VIO server mapping disks using dual virtual SCSI adapters from the 4 adapters B. Dual VIO servers with 2 cards per server and mapping via virtual SCSI adapters C. Assign each LPAR 2 fibre ports, each from a different fibre adapter D. Assign each LPAR a fibre card and ensure each port is mapped to a separate fiber switch Answer: B Question 4. A customer is migrating from dedicated LPARs to a virtualized environment utilizing PowerVM I/O features. They have created their profiles for their two virtual 10 (VIO) servers. The First VIO server is installed and running. When trying to DLPAR the DVD/ROM the task fails on the HMC. What is the probable cause? A. /etc/hosts table on HMC is not configured B. PowerVM key is not registered C. Virtual I/O server does not support DLPAR D. Networking is not configured Answer: D Question 5. An AIX System administrator noticed that a TUNE_RESTRICTED error appeared in the error log. What is the reason for this error? A. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value and the system was rebooted B. A system attribute, pre610tune, was set to "true" C. Someone tried to break the rule not to change /etc/tunables/nextboot D. A restricted tunable has been changed from the default value Answer: A Question 6. A customer has a Power 570 and has sent the following vmstat output to analyze: Exhibit: What should be recommend to the customer? A. The system doesn't need additional hardware B. The system needs additional network cards C. The system needs additional memory D. The system needs additional CPU Answer: A Question 7. What command is used to create an application Workload partition? A. crwpar B. wparexec C. mkwpar D. mkappwpar Answer: B Question 8. Which command should be used to permanently configure an additional network interface? A. ifconfig B. C smitty chinet C. mkdev D. Smitty mktcpip Answer: B Question 9. Which command provides output for mixed page sizes? A. mpstat B. svmon -P C. vmstat -o D. lvmstat -m Answer: B Question 10. Which tool is the most cost and time effective for specifying adapter placement on new orders? A. Tivoli Provisioning Manager B. System Planning tool + Workload estimator C. System planning tool D. HMC Answer: C
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Question 1. Authentication is used in Secure Application Provisioning to: A. Quarantine malicious traffic B. Persistently apply policy C. Allow configuration of a switch's host data port D. provide additional network access Answer: D Question 2. Saving a NetSight Atlas Policy Manager configuration to a .pmd file: A. Writes the configuration to NVRAM on the switches B. Allows for multiple configurations to be stored on the NMS C. Notifies the RADIUS server that new policies have been created D. Temporarily disables communication between all RADIUS clients until the save is complete Answer: B Question 3. Certificate services must be installed when using: A. EAP-TLS B. EAP-MD5 C. PWA D. MAC authentication Answer: A Question 4. Persistent policy assignment: A. Can be effective in an incremental deployment of acceptable use policy B. Is dependent upon a RADIUS back-end configuration C. Is deployed based on user authentication D. Cannot be used on uplink ports Answer: A Question 5. A distinguishing characteristic of PEAP is: A. It adds security by running over a VPN tunnel B. It uses salt encryption C. It requires that only the supplicant present a certificate D. It creates keying material using the Pseudo-Random Function Answer: D Question 6. In the Enterasys policy-enabled network model, on-demand policy assignment: A. Is the result of a manual configuration B. Makes use of the Filter-ID parameter C. Is overridden by a ports default role D. Requires the use of 802.1X authentication mechanisms Answer: B Question 7. All of the following are services which make up the pre-configured Acceptable Use Policy service group EXCEPT: A. Deny Spoofing B. Permit Legacy Protocols C. Limit Exposure to DoS attacks D. Protocol Priority Access Control Answer: B Question 8. After configuration changes have been made in NetSight Atlas Policy Manager, what must be done before the changes take effect on the devices? A. The NMS must be rebooted B. The changes must be enforced C. The changes must be verified D. Nothing the changes take effect immediately Answer: B Question 9. In the three-level policy model, Enterasys maps: A. The business/network level to classification rules B. The service-provisioning level to roles C. The device level to classification rules D. All of the above Answer: C Question 10. The Active Edge consists of: A. Policy-enabled switches B. Core routers C. SAP servers D. User resources Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F. A and C only
Answer: E
Question 2.
Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping
functions. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both
management workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of
SNMP capability, an entity can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions:
the manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on
workstations; agents on remote devices.
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. All of the above
Answer: E
Question 3.
A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. All of the above
F. B or C only
Answer: F
Question 4.
What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer: A
Question 5.
How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
Answer: A
Question 6.
The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Answer: D
Question 8.
What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C
Question 9.
The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 10.
What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B
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Question 1.
What are three primary common goals of a corporate/network security policy?
A. Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA)
B. Security, Productivity and Adaptability (SPA)
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability (CIA)
D. Authentication, Encryption and Compression (AEC)
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following must an IDS administrator consider when deploying Dragon in accordance with a corporate security policy?
A. Must understand the purpose and scope of each aspect of the overall security policy
B. Must understand the security goals of each product in the organization (i.e., operating
systems, routers, firewalls, NIDS, HIDS, VPN gateways)
C. Must understand the detailed configurations on each router within the security domain
D. Must understand how the security policy impacts the I.T. budget
Answer: A, B
Question 3.
What functions can Dragon accomplish as related to a corporate/network security policy?
A. Dragon agents can gather information about network security compromises and automatically
produce corporate/network security policy documents
B. Dragon agents can detect and log security policy deviations
C. Dragon agents can assist with security policy enforcement via Active Responses
D. Dragon can evaluate a corporate/network policy to determine if it is complete and effective
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
Which vulnerability scanner and report format is required for use with the Dragon VCT?
A. MySQL; .msq formatted output
B. Nessis; .nfr formatted output
C. Nessus; .nes formatted output
D. Nessus; .nsr formatted output
E. NMAP; .nmp formatted output
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended means of vulnerability response using Dragon?
A. Use the Dragon NMAP PERL scripts to tune the dragon.net file
B. Deploy Dragon Deceptive Services (Honeypot)
C. Deploy Dragon Vulnerability Correlation Tool
D. Enable SSL and AES on the Network Sensor to DPM communication channel
E. Correlate Dragon forensics reports with vulnerability scanner output, and create new
signatures as necessary
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which of the following best describes the function of CVE?
A. A database of known attacks that can be loaded into an IDS or similar system
B. A database of numerically cross-referenced IDS events that can help any IDS to correlate
detected attacks
C. A dictionary of standardized names for vulnerabilities and other information security exposures
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following is NOT a function of a network vulnerability scanner?
A. Monitors health of software applications
B. Output is critical in helping an IDS administrator know the state of the network
C. Catalogs vulnerabilities
D. Shuts down vulnerable TCP/UPD ports to prevent intrusion
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which of the following CONSUME event data from the Dragon Ring Buffer?
A. Alarmtool agent
B. Replication agent
C. Connection Manager
D. Consumer Agent
Answer: A, B
Question 9.
Which of the following best describes the Host Sensor Event Detection Engine (EDE)?
A. Scrutinizes events, either altering the contents of the event or discarding it
B. Generates alerts or guarantees delivery of events to destinations
C. Analyzes events and produces categorized event forensics reports
D. Detects an event and forwards it to the Host Sensor framework for processing
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which of the following best describe some scalability features of the Dragon Event Flow Processor (EFP)?
A. Consolidates events from multiple Dragon Policy Managers into one stream
B. Aggregated events from an EFP can be forwarded to other EFPs in a hierarchy
C. An EFP cannot simultaneously support Dragon Realtime Console, Forensics Console and
Alarmtool
D. EFPs can be secured by a firewall and configured to initiate Sensor connections from inside
the firewall
Answer: B, D
Question 11.
In which Host Sensor module can a "wrapped module" be used?
A. Event Detection Engine (EDE)
B. Event Filter Engine (EFE)
C. Event Alerting Engine (EAE)
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Answer: D
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Question 1.
The Radius Filter-ID Parameter is used to
A. Authenticate Users
B. Authenticate a Radius Client
C. Pass Policy information to a switch to authorize an authenticate user with a level of network
access.
D. Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server.
Answer: C
Question 2.
If ingress filtering is enabled on a port, then the switch
A. Discard all tagged frames received on the port.
B. Allow tagged frames received on a port if the port is on the egress list of the VLAN specified in
the packets VLAN tag.
B. Discards tagged frames received on a port if the port is on the egress list of the VLAN
specified in the packets VLAN tag.
D. Uses tagged frames received on a port to add the port to the egress list of the VLAN specified
in the packets VLAN tag.
Answer: B
Question 3.
What is the default VLAN on all Enterasys switches?
A. 10
B. 4095
C. 0
D. 1
Answer: D
Question 4.
To prevent a port on a Matrix N-Series from being automatically added to a VLAN via GVRP, what would you configure the ports VLAN egress setting as?
A. Forbidden
B. Untagged
C. GVRP stop
D. Tagged
Answer: A
Question 5.
What feature is available that implements CLI-Based switch management and provides an alternative to TELNET for increased switch administration security?
A. MD5 authentication
B. Secure Shell
C. Secure Socket Layer
D. Access Control List
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which is not an authentication method used by Enterasys switches?
A. IPSEC
B. 802.1X
C. PWA
D. MAC based
Answer: A
Question 7.
What must you configure on a device before it can be managed with NetSight or Telnet?
A. MAC Address
B. Passwords
C. 802.1X authentication parameters
D. IP address
Answer: D
Question 8.
The SecureStack family of products?
A. Do not support closed loop stacking
B. Use the shortest path algorithm to forward traffic in between devices within a stack
C. Support internal redundant power supplies
D. Use the same type of redundant power supplies for PoE and non-PoE devices
Answer: B
Question 9.
How does MAC locking prevent the connection of unauthorized devices to the network?
A. It restricts one or more MAC addresses to a port.
B. It provides a mechanism whereby network administrators can securely authenticate source
MAC addresses.
C. It uses a web browser to verify a users MAC address.
D. It does not allow the port to learb an MAC address.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following is/are true about Exterasys support for spanning tree protocol?
A. All Enterasys swithces support the basic IEEE 802.1D Spanning
B. Only the Matrix E1 support IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree by default.
C. RSTP is the defdault spanning tree on the Matrix N-Series and SecureStack B2
D. Both A & C
Answer: D
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Question 1. The attack category is for events that A. Attempt to discover weaknesses B. Map the structure of the network C. Have the potential to compromise the integrity of an end system. D. Deny access to resources Answer: C Question 2. Virtual Sensors can segregate traffic by? A. IP Address, VLAN, Port B. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Protocol C. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Protocol, Application D. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Application Answer: B Question 3. In an Event Flow Processor (EFP) a consumer can be? A. A Sensor or an Event Channel B. An Event channel only C. An Event channel or an Agent D. An Agent only Answer: C Question 4. Before the host Sensor can be deployed A. It must be associated with a virtual sensor B. It must be associated with a host policy C. Its key must be added to the /usr/dragon/bin directory D. Its address must be added to /etc/hosts Answer: B Question 5. Which of the following Dragon Agents is used for detecting changes to host files? A. Real Time Console B. MD5 Sum C. Alarm Tool D. Database Answer: B Question 6. In a standalone deployment the system will have? A. A net-config-client.xml file B. A net-config-server.xml file C. A net-config-server.xml and a net-con fig-client.xml file D. A net-config-server.xml, a net-con fig-client.xml and a net-config-reports.xml file Answer: C Question 7. MD5 checksums are A. Stored in a protected directory on the host B. Appended to the protected file C. Passed up the event channel to the MD5 Agent D. Stored in the /usr/dragon/bin directory on the Enterprise Management Server (EMS) Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following best describes the commit operation? A. It uses the configuration channel to push a configuration to a device B. It uses the event channel to push a configuration to a device C. It writes a configuration change to the Enterprise Management Server (EMS) database D. It writes a configuration change to the management clients database Answer: C Question 9. Which of the following Dragon Agents sends notifications when the sensors detect an event that match a rule? A. Real Time Console B. MD5 Sum C. Alarm Tool D. Database Answer: C Question 10. Signature OS A. Applies signature to network traffic originating from the specified OS B. Is used for writing Host signatures C. Is optional on Network signatures D. Is required on all signatures Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which of the following Dragon Agents sends notifications when the sensors detect an event that match a rule?
A. Real Time Console
B. MD5 Sum
C. Alarm Tool
D. Database
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which of the following techniques is not a viable way for a Device Support Module (DSM) to receive event data?
A. OPSEC
B. SSH
C. SYSLOG
D. SNMP V3 Inform
Answer: B
Question 3.
Dynamic Collection controls
A. The number of packets to analyze
B. The number of times to execute the signature in a flow
C. The number of follow on packets to capture for forensics
D. The number of bytes to search for a match
Answer: C
Question 4.
Network policies and signatures are associated with the?
A. Managed node
B. Network sensor
C. Virtual sensor
D. Agent
Answer: C
Question 5.
Traffic direction refers to traffic flows in relation to the
A. Server
B. Protected network
C. Client
D. DMZ
Answer: B
Question 6.
The virtual sensor name?
A. Must match the license name
B. Is included in all events reported by the virtual sensor
C. Must include the node name
D. Applies only to the device view
Answer: B
Question 7.
In a signature the service direction refers to
A. Ports
B. Networks
C. VLANS
D. Protocols
Answer: A
Question 8.
When using the Report Wizard within the Dragon Security Command Console all but one of the following formats can be chosen for output?
A. HTML
B. DOC
C. RTF
D. PDF
Answer: B
Question 9.
The net-config-client.xml file is associated with?
A. The Enterprise Management Server (EMS)
B. Managed node client
C. Enterprise Management Server (EMS) Management Client
D. Reporting server
Answer: B
Question 10.
The license key file for Dragon Security Command Console must be?
A. pulled automatically from the Dragon EMS Server in the /usr/dragon/policymgr/keys directory
B. manually copied to each of the remote Behavioral Flow Sensors before flows are collected
C. must be carefully entered into the license field of the Dragon Administration Console because
it is tied to the hostname of the server and may have an extra carriage return at the end of the
file
D. None of the above
Answer: D
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Question 1.
An Acceptable Use Policy for the network should define:
A. Which types of traffic trusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
B. Which types of traffic untrusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
C. Which types of traffic trusted and untrusted users are allowed to generate on the network
D. Which types of traffic guest users only are allowed to generate on the network
Answer: C
Question 2.
A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent infected devices from being further exploited within the enterprise network, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for infected devices to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, reduces network congestion by removing legacy protocols from the network such as IPX?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Threat Management service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: A
Question 4.
In a multi-vendor environment where 3 rd party devices are located at the edge of the network and are not policy-capable, installing a policy-capable device in the distribution layer:
A. Protects the network core from internally sourced attacks
B. Protects the server farm from internally sourced attacks
C. Secures other access layer segments connected through the policy-capable distribution layer
device
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question 5.
In a multi-vendor environment, where is the placement of a policy capable device most effective in discarding malicious traffic and protecting the entire network:
A. At the access layer edge
B. At the distribution layer
C. In the DMZ
D. In the core
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from Denial of Service attacks on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny DoS Attacks service
C. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
D. Application Provisioning - AUP service
Answer: C
Question 7.
As defined in NetSight Policy Managers demo.pmd file, the Secure Guest Access Service Group:
A. Allows PPTP and HTTP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
B. Allows HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
C. Allows PPTP, HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic, and denies access to all other TCP/UDP ports
and unsupported protocols on the network
D. Discards all traffic
Answer: C
Question 8.
The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A. Authenticate users
B. Authenticate a RADIUS client
C. Pass policy information to a switch to authorize an authenticated user with a level of network
access
D. Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from a user masquerading as a valid service on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Application Provisioning AUP service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: B
Question 10.
A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent an internal user from connecting to an infected device, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for malicious users to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which rule governs how you should load I/O cards in the IOX cabinet?
A. Fill the I/O chassis completely before installing I/O cards in the IOX cabinet.
B. After you have filled a spare I/O chassis, install redundant I/O devices in the IOX cabinet.
C. For high-availability installations, redundant I/O cards should be installed in the IOX cabinet.
D. Distribute I/O cards evenly between the I/O chassis and the IOX cabinet to maximize
bandwidth.
Answer: A
Question 2.
Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. Processors of different speeds can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Superdome servers support mixing chipsets if they are in different cells.
C. An HP Superdome server can support only one type of chipset at a time.
D. Intel Itanium 2 and mx2 processors can be mixed in the same Superdome server.
E. Processors on the same cell board can be running different firmware versions if they are in
separate hard partitions (nPars).
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Which layered applications are included in the Enterprise Operating Environment? (Select two.)
A. Online JFS
B. Mirrordisk/UX
C. Data Protector
D. Workload Manager (WLM)
E. Enterprise Cluster Toolkit
Answer: A, B
Question 4.
Which resources are required for an nPar I/O chassis in an sx2000 Superdome server? (Select two.)
A. Tape drive
B. Core I/O card
C. Instant Capacity (iCAP) cell
D. Card connected to boot media
E. Card connected to removable media
Answer: D, E
Question 5.
What information does a Guardian Service Processor (GSP) or Management Processor (MP) provide about an HP Superdome server? (Select two.)
A. event logs
B. console logs
C. server power usage
D. processor utilization percentages
E. service level objectives (SLOs) for each partition
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
How should memory be loaded on an sx2000-based Superdome server to obtain best performance?
A. Use double data rate (DDR) DIMMs.
B. Populate one full quadrant at a time.
C. Populate the same echelons on each of the four quadrants.
D. Populate the A echelons on each of the cells, then populate the B echelons.
Answer: C
Question 7.
The best performance is achieved when partitions have how many cells? (Select two.)
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
E. six
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
How many HP Superdome servers can you manage with one Support Management Station (SMS)?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Question 9.
How can you set how much memory in an HP Superdome is cell local memory, and how much is interleaved memory? (Select two.)
A. nPar commands
B. HP OpenView Operations
C. HP Partition Manager (parmgr)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
E. These values are configured at the factory and cannot be changed without changing cell
boards.
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
Which business values does HP Workload Manager (WLM) provide by allowing customers to set service level objectives (SLOs)? (Select two.)
A. increase performance
B. efficient resource utilization
C. activate spare processor capacity
D. run multiple workloads on one system
E. maximum system uptime and availability
Answer: B, D
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