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Hi, Please, can someone send me the latest 920-124 dumps..... mfaisalserver@gmail.com Thanks
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Question 1.
A BladeCenter chassis has 14 blade servers running Microsoft Windows.
What method can be used to perform an unattended and remote installation of the Director Agent on all 14 blade servers?
A. Insert Media into IBM BladeCenter Media Tray.
B. IBM Remote Deployment Manager's DeployAgent Feature.
C. IBM BladeCenter Management Module Remote Session Feature.
D. Gain access as Level-0 managed objects and use Software Distribution.
Answer: D
Question 2.
Most problematic situations occur due to communication issues between the IBM Director Server and Agent. The genevent tool can be used to test the connectivity between the management server and the managed system.
Which of the following is a valid genevent command to check this connectivity?
A. genevent TCPIP;Director.ibm.com /message;" Checking communication..." /type:"Test.Event"
B. genevent /sort:"Test.Event" /text:"Checking communication..." /dest TCPlP:: 192.168.10.10
C. genevent /type:"Test.Event" /text:"Checking communication.. ." /dest TCPlP:: 192.168.10.10
D. genevent //type:"Test.Event" //message: "Checking communication..."
//destTCPlP::Director.ibm.com
Answer: C
Question 3.
When upgrading or updating IBM Director, the IBM Director configuration data should be backed up.
Which of the following commands should be issued to back up this data?
A. twgsave
B. twgstore
C. twgbackup
D. twgrestore
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which of the following databases are only supported locally on the IBM Director Server running under Windows? (Select two answers.)
A. IBM DB2
B. PostgreSQL
C. Apache Derby
D. Windows SQL Server
E. Microsoft SQL Server Express Edition 2005
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
A customer would like to do an in-place upgrade of their IBM Director Server 4.21 to version 5.20 but has concerns about support for a Microsoft Jet Database in version 5.20.
Which option below is valid while upgrading from IBM Director 4.21 to version 5.20 without data loss?
A. Drop the existing database and install MSDE.
B. Export the Microsoft Jet database to Apache Derby.
C. IBM Director 5.20 supports Microsoft Jet (upgrade only).
D. IBM Director does not support an upgrade from version 4.21 to version 5.20.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which of the following is NOT a function of IBM Director 5.20?
A. Managing virtual servers
B. Sending SMTP e-mail messages
C. Viewing Management Module event logs
D. Running tasks or programs on managed systems
Answer: C
Question 7.
An Administrator needs to deploy IBM Director Server in an i5/OS environment.
Which Database is supported running on i5/OS?
A. Oracle
B. IBM DB2 (local install only)
C. Microsoft SQL Server (remote install only)
D. Apache Derby (included with IBM Director) (local install only)
Answer: B
Question 8.
An IBM Director management package ships with every System x and IBM Blade Server purchased.
How many IBM DirectorAgent licenses for use on non-IBM hardware are included with each IBM Director Management Server deployed on IBM hardware?
A. 0
B. 14
C. 10
D. 20
Answer: D
Question 9.
A customer would like to deploy applications packaged with the Microsoft Windows Installer through IBM Director.
Which component is needed to perform this task?
A. IBM Application Portal
B. Remote Deployment Manager
C. Server Configuration Manager
D. Software Distribution Premium Edition
Answer: D
Question 10.
A customer is running VMware ESX Server with multiple virtual machines, all running VMware Tools but without the benefit of VirtualCenter. In the event of a Predictive Failure Alert from the physical host. the customer would like to gracefully shutdown and power off all virtual machines running on that host.
With IBM Director and Virtualization Manager installed, what steps should be taken?
A. Create an Event Action Plan to determine PFAs in VMware VirtualCenter.
B. Create an Event Action Plan using "Software Predictive Failure Analysis" as the event filter,
and "Manage a Host" as the Action. customized to "Power Off All Virtual Machines." Associate
this Event Action Plan with the virtual machines.
C. Create an Event Action Plan, using "Hardware Predictive Failure Analysis" as the event filter.
Select "Manage a Virtual Machine" as the Action, customized to "Power Off and Shutdown."
Associate this Event Action Plan with the VMware ESX host.
D. Create an Event Action Plan using "Hardware Predictive Failure Analysis" as the event filter.
Select "Start a Task on the 'Event System" as the Action, customized to "Shutdown and Power
Off All Virtual Machines." Associate this Event Action Plan with the VMware ESX Host.
Answer: D
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Question 1. What Class D IP address range is reserved for Multicast packets? A. 224.0.0.0 through 239.0.0.0 B. 224.255.255.255 through 239.255.255.255 C. 222.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255 D. 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 Answer: D Question 2. What is the correct order of attribute comparison for local BGP route selection? A. Local preference, then AS path, then origin type, then MED value B. Origin type, then MED value, then local preference, then AS path C. AS path, then local preference, then origin type, then MED value D. MED value, then origin type, then local preference, then AS path Answer: A Question 3. Which two is true of Line Rate? (Choose two.) A. It limits the rate of input of all classified traffic on an interface B. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Shaping C. Line Rate is a special case of Traffic Policing D. It limits the rate of input of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification E. It limits the rate of output of all classified traffic on an interface F. It limits the rate of output of all traffic on an interface, irrespective of any classification Answer: B, F Question 4. Which of the following is not an OSPF packet type? A. Link-state request B. Hello C. Database description D. Goodbye E. Link-state acknowledgment Answer: D Question 5. Which 3COM router supports both SIC and MIM modules? A. 4300 B. 5012 C. 6040 D. 5682 E. 6080 Answer: B Question 6. Which type of Virtual Circuits does the Router 6000 family support? A. PVCs only B. SVCs only C. PVCs and SVCs Answer: A Question 7. In V2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, which is NOT provided by Application Specific Packet Filtering (ASPF)? A. Defense against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks B. Site and content blocking C. Enhanced session logging D. Java Blocking E. Support for Port to Application Mapping (PAM) Answer: B Question 8. Which three are true of traditional, best-effort forwarding? (Choose three.) A. All applications are equally likely to be affected by congestion B. Queuing of packets is first in, first out (FIFO) C. All packets have equal rights to network resources D. Packets using TCP are less likely to dropped than packets using UDP E. Packets from a higher performance NIC are less likely to be dropped Answer: A, B, C Question 9. Which three protocols are used for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)? (Choose three.) A. Dynamic Security Link B. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) C. Network Address Translation (NAT) D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) E. IP Security (IPSec) F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) Answer: B, D, E Question 10. In software version 2.x code on a 3Com 5000 or 6000 series router, a Low Latency Queue has been added to one of the other queuing mechanisms, to better support delay-sensitive applications. Which is the queuing mechanism that has been enhanced in this way? A. FIFO Queuing B. Weighted Fair Queuing C. Class Based Queuing D. Fair Queuing E. Priority Queuing F. Custom Queuing Answer: C Question 11. Dialer Listen backup works with static and dynamic routing. A. False B. True Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A
Question 2.
VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C
Question 3.
fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer.
What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in
the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D
Question 5.
You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C
Question 6.
Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E
Question 7.
Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E
Question 9.
The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's troubleshooting guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A
Question 10.
NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared
secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it
access to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load
passing through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which of the following commands identifies whether or not a Security Policy is installed or the Security Gateway is operating with the Initial Policy?
A. fw monitor
B. cp policy
C. cp stat
D. fw policy
E. fw stat
Answer: E
Question 12.
A SecuRemote/SecureClient tunnel test uses which port?
A. UDP 18233
B. UDP 2746
C. UDP 18234
D. TCP 18231
E. UDP 18321
Answer: C
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Question 1.
What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages?
A. Description Field
B. Message ID
C. Sequence Number
D. Token Number
Answer: B
Question 2.
Workload Management can submit jobs to:
A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed
B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Manager
C. Any Unicenter Server
D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload
Agent
Answer: B
Question 3.
SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TCP
D. UDP
Answer: D
Question 4.
The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources.
They are in which component of the WorldView Layer?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Real World Interface
C. WorldView Application Programming Interface
D. WorldView Gateway
Answer: B
Question 5.
What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR?
A. Nodeview
B. Class Wizard
C. DSM Wizard
D. Object View
Answer: B
Question 6.
Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component?
A. Common Object Repository
B. Distributed Services Bus
C. Distributed State Machine
D. Finite State Machine
Answer: B
Question 7.
What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository?
A. Agent components
B. DSM components
C. Microsoft SQL Client
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: D
Question 8.
What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.)
A. Agent Technology Layer
B. Application Management Layer
C. Manager Layer
D. Internet Control Layer
E. Network Management Layer
F. WorldView Layer
Answer: A, C, F
Question 9.
When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment?
A. Banyan VINES
B. Named Pipe only
C. NWLink IPX/SPX
D. TCP/IP Sockets
Answer: D
Question 10.
CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components?
A. Agent Technologies Components
B. Enterprise Management Components
C. Unicenter Agents
D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which of the following are valid Station types? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. CPUTNG
C. POSTCPU
D. PRECPU
Answer: A, C, D
Question 12.
What is the default Calendar provided by Unicenter NSM?
A. Standard
B. Default
C. MAIN
D. BASE
Answer: D
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Question 1. When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records? A. Title 18, Section 1030 B. Title 18, Section 2703(d) C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90 D. Title 18, Section 2703(f) Answer: D Question 2. Item 2If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer? A. Asheepdip coordinates several honeypots B. Asheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot C. Asheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking. D. Asheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack Answer: C Question 3. In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court? A. rules of evidence B. law of probability C. chain of custody D. policy of separation Answer: C Question 4. How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file? A. 128 B. 64 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: C Question 5. CORRECT TEXT To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS** Answer: number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: Pending Question 6. You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is 1709 on the primary hard drive. Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors? A. 0:1000, 150 B. 0:1709, 150 C. 1:1709, 150 D. 0:1709-1858 Answer: B Question 7. A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772 =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........ =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773 UDP TTL: 43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773 D. The attacker has installed a backdoor Answer: A Question 8. The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on: A. OS/2 B. BSD Unix C. Linux D. Microsoft Windows Answer: B Question 9. Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first? A. engage in damage control B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury D. qualify you as an expert witness Answer: D Question 10. You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network? A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image file D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file Answer: C Question 11. You are working for a large clothing manufacturer as a computer forensics investigator and are called in to investigate an unusual case of an employee possibly stealing clothing designs from the company and selling them under a different brand name for a different company. What you discover during the course of the investigation is that the clothing designs are actually original products of the employee and the company has no policy against an employee selling his own designs on his own time. The only thing that you can find that the employee is doing wrong is that his clothing design incorporates the same graphic symbol as that of the company with only the wording in the graphic being different. What area of the law is the employee violating? A. trademark law B. copyright law C. printright law D. brandmark law Answer: A
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Question 1.
On a standalone switch, all ports in VSAN 9 are administratively shut down.
What is the operational state of VSAN 9?
A. Up
B. Initializing
C. Active
D. Suspended
E. Down
Answer: E
Question 2.
There are three different roles on the MDS: Role1 allows show commands only. Role2 allows debug and configure commands, and denies show command. Role 3 permits VSAN 10-30 only.
User1 belongs to Role1, Role2 and Role3. What can User1 do?
A. Show,debug, and configure on VSAN 10-30
B. Debug and configuration commands on VSAN 10-30
C. Show, debug, configure on all VSAN
D. Debug and configure commands only on all VSAN
E. Show,debug, configure and save configuration on VSAN 10-30
Answer: C
Question 3.
What statement is true?
A. Class of Service 1 frames are acknowledged only when requested by the sender.
B. R_RDY is the correct way to acknowledge a Class of Service 1 frame.
C. Class of Service 1 and 2 reserve 100% of the available bandwidth.
D. Class of Service 3 framesrequire an ACK1 response.
E. Class of Service 2 frames are acknowledged by an ACK response.
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is the purpose of the Open Fibre Control system?
A. It defines a safety mechanism for SW laser data links.
B. It specifies the maximum bit error rate for Fibre channel links.
C. It defines the distance limitation for different types of lasers.
D. It defines the mechanism in which Fibre Channel switches communicate with Gbics.
E. It defines the flow control mechanism for Fibre Channel.
Answer: A
Question 5.
What SW_ILS frame is used to perform Principal Switch Selection?
A. ELP
B. RDI
C. DIA
D. ESC
E. EFP
Answer: E
Question 6.
The purpose of the SW_ILS ELP frame is to:
A. None of the above
B. Begin principal switch selection
C. Notify other switches they can now request domain IDs
D. Exchange FSPF routing information
E. Notify other switches that a principal switch has been elected
Answer: A
Question 7.
Select the true statements concerning the IP address subnetting requirements of gigabit Ethernet interfaces on the IPS-8 module:
A. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.10 must be configured with IP
addresses in the same subnet
B. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet2/1 can be configured with IP addresses in
The same subnet
C. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and gigabigethernet1/2 can not be configured with IP addresses
in the same subnet
D. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1 and mgmt0 can not be configured with IP addresses in the same
subnet
E. Interfaces gigabitethernet1/1.10 and gigabigethernet2/1.12 can be configured with IP
Addresses in the same subnet
Answer: B, D
Question 8.
Node is logged into port fc1/1 in VSAN 4000. If VSAN 4000 is deleted then what will happen?
A. Invalid - VSAN 4000 is not available.
B. Node will move to VSAN 1.
C. Node will move to VSAN 4095.
D. Node will move to VSAN 4094.
E. Invalid - VSAN can not be deleted until all members are removed.
Answer: D
Question 9.
To capture all of the RSCN traffic originating from a standalone switch with no free ports, what should be utilized?
A. SPAN
B. REMOTE SPAN
C. MDS fcanalyzer
D. Ethereal with PAA
E. debug rscn events initiators vsan 1000
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which organizations produce standards related to SCSI, Fibre Channel or Fibre Channel Protocol?
A. T12 Committee
B. T10 Committee
C. T11 Committee
D. SNIA
E. Cisco Systems
Answer: B, C
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Question 1. When a phone needs a conference resource, which of the following Cisco CallManager objects is queried first? A. media resource device list B. media resource group list C. media resource group D. media resource pool Answer: B Question 2. Which two of these tools can be used to reestablish a Cisco CallManager cluster SQL subscription? (Choose two.) A. DNA B. SQL Server Service Manager C. RTMT D. DBLHelper E. SQL Server Enterprise Manager Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these options will prevent a device from being able to initiate conferences? A. Place all conference media resources in MRGs and exclude these MRGs from the MRGL. B. Exclude the conference media resources from all MRGs. C. Exclude the conference media resource partitions from the CSS. D. Remove the default MRGL from the device pool. Answer: A Question 4. A user reports poor quality on voice calls and is instructed to select the QRT softkey. How can you access the information generated by this call? A. use the QRT plug-in on the PC of an administrator B. use Tools\QRT Viewer under the CiscoCallManager Serviceability page C. use the System\Real-time Monitor Tool under CiscoCallManager Administration D. use theperfmon counter application under Administrative Tools Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP Drag drop Answer: Question 6. How is a backup target changed to a backup server? A. Modify the BARS service parameter from Target to Server. B. Use BARSadministration to change from Target to Server. C. Use BARSadministration to delete the destination target. D. Uninstall BARS and reinstall as a backup server. Answer: D Question 7. What are Cisco CallManager Locations used for? A. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls. B. Define the time zones for devices connected to the CiscoCallManager. C. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment. D. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable. E. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network. Answer: C Question 8. Based on the following dial-plan rules, what is the minimum number of partitions that must be defined? All employees can call local and service numbers. Managers can call long distance and international numbers. Executives can call all numbers. Only administrative assistants can call executives. Incoming calls can only be routed to IP phones. A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 Answer: B Question 9. What will happen if Option 150 is not configured on the DHCP server? A. CiscoCallManager will be unable to replicate its database to the subscribers. B. IP Phones will not be able to load their configuration files. C. CiscoCallManager will be unable to access the TFTP server. D. IP Phones will not be able to receive VLAN information. E. CiscoCallManager will be unable to register IP Phones. F. The DHCP server will not be able to answer requests from IP Phones. Answer: B Question 10. Which four characteristics would typically be used to define a device pool? (Choose four.) A. geographic proximity B. common calling search spaces for auto-registration C. common device type D. common use ofcodecs E. common MOH source F. common class of service Answer: A, B, D, E Question 11. An auto parts retailer would like their service counter representatives to be able to assist both walk-up customers and telephone customers. Each store has six service counter representatives. Which call distribution algorithm will allow each service counter representative to provide the best customer service? A. Circular B. Top Down C. Longest Idle Time D. Broadcast Answer: D
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Question 1. All of the following provide confidentiality protection as part of the underlying protocol EXCEPT: A. SSL. B. SSH. C. L2TP. D. IPSeC. Answer: C Question 2. Which of the following allows an attacker to manipulate files by using the least significant bit(s) to secretly embed data? A. Steganography B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Virus Answer: A Question 3. Which of the following type of attacks would allow an attacker to capture HTTP requests and send back a spoofed page? A. Teardrop B. TCP/IP hijacking C. Phishing D. Replay Answer: B Question 4. How should a company test the integrity of its backup data? A. By conducting another backup B. By using software to recover deleted files C. By restoring part of the backup D. By reviewing the written procedures Answer: C Question 5. Which of following can BEST be used to determine the topology of a network and discover unknown devices? A. Vulnerability scanner B. NIPS C. Protocol analyzer D. Network mapper Answer: D Question 6. When should a technician perform penetration testing? A. When the technician suspects that weak passwords exist on the network B. When the technician is trying to guess passwords on a network C. When the technician has permission from the owner of the network D. When the technician is war driving and trying to gain access Answer: C Question 7. An administrator has implemented a new SMTP service on a server. A public IP address translates to the internal SMTP server. The administrator notices many sessions to the server, and gets notification that the servers public IP address is now reported in a spam real-time block list. Which of the following is wrong with the server? A. SMTP open relaying is enableD. B. It does not have a spam filter. C. The amount of sessions needs to be limiteD. D. The public IP address is incorrect. Answer: A Question 8. Which of the following is MOST efficient for encrypting large amounts of data? A. Hashing algorithms B. Symmetric key algorithms C. Asymmetric key algorithms D. ECC algorithms Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following is a reason why a company should disable the SSID broadcast of the wireless access points? A. Rogue access points B. War driving C. Weak encryption D. Session hijacking Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following BEST describes ARP? A. Discovering the IP address of a device from the MAC address B. Discovering the IP address of a device from the DNS name C. Discovering the MAC address of a device from the IP address D. Discovering the DNS name of a device from the IP address Answer: C
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Question 1. Terminate, Acknowledge, Promote, Demote are examples of directives of the class _______. A. Operation Context B. Record C. Alarm Object D. OSI Event Answer: C Question 2. An event can be lost in TeMIP if _______. Select TWO. A. no GetEvent has been issued for the managed object of this event B. a Low Level Filter discarded this event C. the connection with the Oracle database has been lost D. there is no Real Time View monitoring the managed object of this event E. a security profile has blocked the collection of this event Answer: A, B Question 3. In the TeMIP MSL every dictionary ID is represented by _______. A. a string in English and a string in the operator's native language B. a presentation name string only C. a numerical ID only D. a presentation name string and a numerical ID Answer: D Question 4. What is the directive that enables the reception of events corresponding to a specific entity? A. getevent B. notify C. summarize D. subscribe Answer: A Question 5. The Scheduler FM is responsible for _______. A. triggering polling operations on IP entities only B. scheduling any kind of directive for global and child classes C. scheduling show directives for global classes only D. listening to scheduled reception of events Answer: B Question 6. Where is the run-time data of a Management Module typically stored? A. the TNS B. a private Management Information Repository (MIR) C. the TeMIP Dictionary D. a public Management Information Repository (MIR) Answer: B Question 7. Which attribute partition will NEVER be stored in a MIR? A. counters B. references C. statistics D. characteristics Answer: B Question 8. A TeMIP MSL specification file can be compiled into the TeMIP Dictionary with _______. A. msl2ilr B. mcc_ptb C. mcc_msl D. msl_cpl Answer: C Question 9. The Low Level Filters are child classes of the _______ global class and handled by the _______ Management Module. A. Domain, Alarms FM B. Operation Context, Alarm Handling FM C. TeMIP, Framework FM D. MCC, Event Filtering FM Answer: D Question 10. The directory hierarchy for TeMIP files stores executable and template files under the _______ directory, and data and configuration files under the _______ directory. A. /usr/temip, /var/temip B. /usr/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip C. /etc/opt/temip, /var/opt/temip D. /usr/opt/temip, /etc/opt/temip Answer: B Question 11. Which attribute(s) of the Operation Context class will give you the information about the current collection process status? A. Administrative state and Operational State B. Operational State only C. Administrative State only D. General status only Answer: A
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