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Question 1.
Which describes the role of the Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) printer agent?
A. It downloads the correct print driver to the workstation.
B. It responds to queries from clients about the status of a print job.
C. It provides a platform for printer objects that reside on the server.
D. It allows NDPS clients to sent print jobs to printers that are not NDPS-aware.
E. It redirects print jobs to directory on the server while waiting for the printer to become available.
F. It takes application-specific data from the application creating the print job and reformats it to
work with the printer It Is being sent to.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You're implementing a NetWare 6.5 network for a small business client Jessica's Bakery. There is only one server in the network. You've named the server BAKERY1 and installed it into an eDirectory tree named JESSICASBAKERY-TREE. You've used a random password generator to create a password for the tree's Admin user. To ease administration, you've located the server next to the Point of Sale system in the customer area of the bakery. You deployed Universal Password on the server. All workstations have Novell Client 4.9 installed on them. You created a NFAP share on the server for the SHARED and the FINANCE directories on the server's DATA volume.
Does this configuration meet Novell's security recommendations?
A. Yes, all Novell security guidelines have been met.
B. No, the server should be placed in a locked closet or room.
C. No, you shouldn't use Universal Password with Novell Client version 4.9.
D. No, you shouldn't use the business name in the server or eDirectory tree names.
E. No, you shouldn't create NFAP shares for directories containing financial information.
F. No, you shouldn't use a random password generator for the Admin password. It's easy to hack.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which web-based services does Virtual Office provide? (Choose 3.)
A. Chat
B. Calendar
C. Bookmarks
D. Spreadsheet
E. Word processor
F. Project management charts
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
During the installation of NetWare 6.5, the server files are installed on the _________volume.
Answer: SYS
Question 5.
You've just finished configuring an iPrint system on your NetWare 6.5 server. The server's DNS name is iprint.widget.com. The Manager object is named IPP-Printer in the SLC.WIDGET container. The Broker object is named IPP-Broker and is also in SLC.WIDGET. You've used the Maptool.htm file to configure a map named slcoffice.htm for location-based printing.
What URL should you enter in your browser's Address field to test the iPrint map?
A. http://iprint.widget.com/slcoffice.htm
B. http://iprint.widget.com/lpp/slcoffice.htm
C. http://iprint.widget.com/lppdocs/Maptool.htm
D. http://iprint.widget.com/iPrint/slcoffice.htm
E. http://iprint.widget.com/lppdocs/slcoffice.htm
F. http://iprint.widget.com/Ipp/slcoffice.htm -b=IPP-Broker.SLC.WIDGET
G. http://iprint.widget.com/lppdocs/slcoffice.htm -m=IPP-Printer.SLC.WIDGET
Answer: E
Question 6.
Exhibit:
Given the explicit right assignments shown, what rights does CGrayson have to the MHoffmann user object?
A. Supervisor
B. Browse
C. Browse, Create
D. Browse, Create, Delete
E. Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
F. Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename
G. Supervisor, Browse, Create, Delete, Rename, Inheritable
H. CGrayson has no rights to the MHoffmann user object.
Answer: B
Question 7.
Your company specializes in the production of digital video products. Your company has been recently awarded a very large contract that has a very short deadline. Your NetWare 6.5 server currently uses a single 80 GB IDE hard disk drive. The new contract will require considerably more hard disk storage. You've purchased and installed a 400 GB RAID5 disk array designed specifically for non-linear video editing. The array came with a diskette containing NetWare drivers.
Which file on your server should you edit to load these drivers?
A. RAID.NCF
B. SERVER.EXE
C. CONFIG.SYS
D. STARTUP.NCF
E. STARTUP.CFG
F. STORAGE.NCF
G. AUTOEXEC.BAT
H. RAID5 array drivers can only be loaded manually from the server console.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which utilities can you use to manage directory and file attributes on a NetWare 6.5 server? (Choose 2.)
A. ICE
B. FLAG
C. iManager
D. iMonitor
E. NDS Manager
F. Remote Manager
Answer: B, F
Question 9.
Your company's business procedures require the use of triplicate forms. To accommodate this, you have secured an older dot-matrix printer to deploy in your network. It doesn't have a network interface. It will be connected directly to one of your server's LPT ports using an IEEE 1284 parallel cable. You use Novell Distributed Print Services (NDPS) to provide print services to your users. This printer doesn't have an embedded printer agent.
Can you use it with NDPS?
A. Yes, all prerequisite requirements have been met.
B. No, the NDPS manager doesn't support older dot-matrix printers.
C. No, the NDPS broker is incompatible with the IEEE 1284 standard.
D. No, NDPS doesn't support printers that don't have an embedded printer agent.
E. No, a printer agent can't be created for printers that connect to the server with a parallel cable.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which utility can be used to create NSS volumes in NetWare 6.5? (Choose 2.)
A. NSSMU
B. iMonitor
C. NWCONFIG
D. ConsoleOne
E. NDS Manager
F. NetWare Administrator
Answer: A, D
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Question 1.
Identify two descriptive flexfield components whose values are used to determine contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. global segments
C. the Reference field
D. context-sensitive segments
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
ABC Corp. is running on 11 i Oracle Applications and wants to ensure that supply records of one supplier are not visible to another supplier.
Which action will meet the requirement?
A. by securing attributes for each supplier
B. by excluding attributes for individual suppliers
C. by assigning the same attribute value for VENDOR_CONTACT_ID
D. by assigning a separate attribute value for INTERNAL_CONTACT_ID
Answer: A
Question 3.
Identify two correct statements regarding Function Security. (Choose two.)
A. defines access controls through roles
B. is built on the Role Based Access Control layer
C. is the base layer of Access Control in Oracle Applications
D. restricts user access to individual menus and menu options
E. restricts user access to data within menus and menu options
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
Identify three features of Data Groups. (Choose three.)
A. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Menu.
B. Multiple data groups can be assigned to a Responsibility.
C. A data group identifies the Oracle username that a form connects to when a Responsibility is
selected.
D. Data groups can be used to support multiple installations of an Oracle Applications product
That supports multiple sets of books.
E. Concurrent managers use a data group to identify the application that owns a report or
concurrent program.
Answer: C, D, E
Question 5.
Which two statements are true regarding ownership of shared entities? (Choose two.)
A. Customers is owned by Oracle Human Resources whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Receivables.
B. Items is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Locations is owned by Oracle Receivables.
C. Sales Force is owned by Oracle Order Management whereas Employees is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
D. Set of books is owned by Oracle General Ledger whereas Locations is owned by Oracle
Human Resources.
E. Suppliers is owned by Oracle Purchasing whereas Units of Measure is owned by Oracle
Inventory.
Answer: D, E
Question 6.
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
Question 7.
A value set has the validation type set to "Independent." When a user enters a partial segment value, the list of values then retrieves all available values. Identify the List Type attribute.
A. poplist
B. list ofvalues
C. long listofvalues
D. poplist and list ofvalues
Answer: C
Question 8.
As a system administrator for ABC Corp. you are required to notify the sales manager as soon as a customer's shipment gets processed.
How might you do this?
A. through an Event Alert
B. through a Periodic Alert
C. by configuring the Workflow Engine
D. by configuring the Application server
Answer: A
Question 9.
Identify three features of Oracle Workflow builder. (Choose three.)
A. monitors workflows
B. runs on Linux platform
C. saves workflow definition as a flat file
D. defines and customizes workflow definitions
E. has Navigator tree and Process diagram as its components
Answer: C, D, E
Question 10.
XYZ Corp. is in the business of manufacturing cosmetics. It obtains and pays for raw materials.
Which business flow in Oracle E-Business Suite would map to the above activities of obtaining and paying for raw materials?
A. Order to Cash
B. Procure to Pay
C. Forecast to Plan
D. Demand to Build
E. Contract to Renewal
Answer: B
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Question 1.
An administrator currently has Secure Gateway and web interface on the same server in the DMZ. After learning about Access Gateway, the administrator decided to purchase two units for redundancy that will be located in the DMZ and implement the increased functionality that Access Gateway offers. Two new Interface servers will be introduced.
Where should the administrator place the web interface servers?
A. Both Web Interface servers should be placed in the DMZ
B. One Web interface server should be placed on the internal network and one web interface
server should be placed on the external network
C. Both Web Interface servers should be placed on the internal network
D. One web interface server should be placed in the DMZ and one web interface server should
Be placed on the internal network
Answer: C
Explanation:
When you remove Secure Gateway from the DMZ and replace it with the Access Gateway, you can move the Web Interface to your internal secure network. The Access Gateway authenticates and authorizes users and then connects to the Web Interface. This provides greater security because there are two fewer Windows servers in the DMZ. (Installation Guide p.102)
Question 2.
An administrator decided to make a number of video-based training packages available to the Finance department through Citrix XenApp. The Citrix XenApp farm silo's its applications and all Finance Applications are in the Finance Application silo. Other application silos include Technical, Sales and workflow.
Where can an administrator enable multimedia optimization for the finance training applications?
A. A policy applied to all finance users
B. Server properties
C. Server farm properties
D. A policy applied to all servers in the finance application silo
Answer: B
Explanation:
All SpeedScreen Options are configured on a Per server or Per Farm Basis using the Properties Page of the Fram or each individual Server. Exceptions here are the SpeedScreen Latency Reduction (Done on a Per Server Basis using the "SpeedScreen Latency Reduction Manager") And SpeedScreen Image Acceleration (Done using Policies). In this case it would be the server Properties because the settings need to beapplied only for the finance app and they have their 2 own Application silo.
Question 3.
What should an administrator use to confirm the name of a Citrix License Server?
A. The hostname command in a command prompt
B. The basic information screen in the Windows 2008 system applet
C. The query command in a command prompt
D. The server information screen in the Access Management Console
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command hostname is correct. This is the easiest way to identify what hostname a server is currently using.
Question 4.
A single web interface server named xenappweb1.mycompany.com is currently being leveraged to host applications for Citrix users through HTTP. For additional redundancy and security as equired by management, a second web interface server named xenappweb2.mycompany.com will be made available and load-balanced with a hardware load balancer and SSL will be used to secure all traffic to the web interface servers.
In order to configure the environment to meet the requirements defined above, which three statements are valid configuration steps? (Choose three.)
A. Create a new load balancing group on the load balancer that contains the web interface sites
from each web interface server that are to be load balanced
B. Create a new DNS entry for xenapp.mycompany.com and assign it the IP Address of the VIP
on the hardware load balancer
C. Install a root certificate on each web interface server that matches the certificate on the load
balancer
D. Create a new CNAME alias a DNS for xenapp.mycompany.com and add both web interface
server names to the record for load balancing
E. Install a separate SSL certificate on each server that matches the FQDN of each server
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Creating a CNAME Allias would be a valid way of doing things if you did not have Hardware load balancer. This would round Robin connections to each WebServer using DNS Round Robining. Installing a seperate SSL Certificate matching the FQDN for each server would result in Certificate errors in the Browser because the initial connection would be to the load balancer and that has a different FQDN.
Question 5.
An administrator configured a session bandwidth policy. The administrator set a maximum bandwidth rule of 200 Kbps and placed a 50 Kbps and a 30% restriction on the audio channel. The effective bandwidth for the audio channel will be _______________ kbps? (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 50
B. 60
C. 15
D. 200
Answer: A
Explanation:
50 is lower than 30% (which would be 60) so the 50 is what will be the effective limit as both have been defined but 50 would be reached first. Default full load is 90% and default no load is 10%
Question 6.
To which Citrix service does Web Interface forward a user's logon credentials?
A. MFCOM
B. Independent Management Architecture
C. WMI
D. XML
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Citrix Web Interface communicates only with the XML Service on the Xenapp Server. This is by default port 80 or 443 if SSL ecryption is configured. It may be changed however if the need arises.
Question 7.
How can an administrator turn off a policy rule without having to edit every policy that contains that rule?
A. Lower the priority of the policy
B. Change the Policy to deny
C. Delete the Policy
D. Change the rule in the highest priority policy to disabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Rules in a higher ranked policy override the same rules in a lower ranked policy. (Course Ware p.349)
Question 8.
The Citrix License Management Console runs on which two supported web servers? (Choose two.)
A. Sun Java System Web Server
B. Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS)
C. Apache HTTP Server
D. IBM HTTP server
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
The License Management Console runs as a Web service. Configure a Web service-either Apache or IIS-before you install the License Management Console. (Citrix eDocs on Licensing: Licensing Your Product->Getting Started with Citrix Licensing->Prerequisites->Configuring a Web Service)
Question 9.
An administrator wants to provide access to a group of help desk users to manage sessions remotely on a server.
Which two options are the most secure ways of solving this issue using the least privilege security model? (Choose two.)
A. Assign only the administrative rights required within the Access Management Console
B. Assign only the administrative rights required within the XenApp Advanced Configuration Tool
C. Instruct the help desk users to install the XenApp Advanced Configuration tool and manage
sessions from their workstation
D. Instruct the help desk users to install the Access Management Console and manage sessions
from their workstation
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Almost all Managemnt Tasks have been moved to the Acces Managment Console in Xenapp 5.0. Th Advanced Configuarion Tool (Perviously the CMC) only handels Policies, zone and Printer Features now.
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Question 1.
Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10?
A. access-list 101 permittcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030
B. access-list 101permit tcp any eq 3030
C. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www
D. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www
Answer: D
Question 2.
DRAG DROP
Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below.
Answer:
Question 3.
In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data?
A. Roughly 50 percent
B. Roughly 66 percent
C. Roughly 75 percent
D. Roughly 10 percent
Answer: A
Question 4.
The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below:
Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class default"?
A. inspect
B. drop
C. police
D. pass
Answer: B
Question 5.
DRAG DROP
On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations.
Answer:
Question 6.
Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration?
A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicitdeny all.
B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted.
C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0.
D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the
source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet.
Answer: C
Question 7.
For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1?
A. pre-shared key
B. integrity check value
C. XAUTH
D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct?
A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data.
B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data.
Answer: C
Question 9.
For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic?
A. OTP
B. OOB
C. SAFE
D. MARS
Answer: B
Question 10.
You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel?
A. L2F tunnel
B. L2TP tunnel
C. GRE tunnel
D. ISAKMP tunnel
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which two of these statements describe why Cisco offers the security solution with the lowest operational cost? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ensures third-party integration.
B. Cisco is able to meet PCI requirements.
C. Cisco solves the broadest suite of threats.
D. Cisco maximizes training costs for the IT group.
E. Cisco has established partnerships with all key players.
Answer: C, E
Question 2.
How does preliminary technical discovery benefit the customer?
A. A technology strategy is presented to the customer.
B. Information regarding an existing customer network is analyzed, which allows an appropriate
solution to be developed.
C. The account team analyzes and validates the business requirements.
D. Detailed technical requirements are defined and documented.
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which security management offering helps customers to readily and accurately identify, manage, and mitigate network attacks and to maintain network security compliance?
A. Cisco Security Agent
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco NAC
D. Cisco Network Assistant
E. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: E
Question 4.
What is one way that Cisco Security can decrease customer implementation costs?
A. by using the existing infrastructure
B. through dedicated security appliances
C. through better security management products
D. by reducing the number of people to train
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the Cisco ASA with the CSC module protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. It blocks incoming e-mail and web threats.
B. It guarantees regulatory compliance.
C. It prevents network intrusion with an IPS.
D. It provides VoIP enhancements.
E. It prevents loss of sensitive information with integrated antivirus protection.
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
How does security technology assessment drive continuous improvements?
A. by recommending remediation measures, such as optimizing device configurations, planning
capacity, and resolving quality issues
B. by assessing the current state of the customer operations
C. by assessing the realization of ROI and other benefits of the security system
D. by defining project milestones
Answer: A
Question 7.
Why do end users need to be aware of the security policy?
A. Some security decisions are usually in their hands.
B. They need to be aware of every threat.
C. They should avoid responsibility for their actions.
D. They should understand the probability of every risk.
Answer: A
Question 8.
Which two of these choices describe how the secure network access solution provides value to the customer? (Choose two.)
A. permits a man-in-the-middle attack
B. makes mobility more cost-effective
C. provides an unencrypted solution
D. reduces the amount of equipment
E. allows for secure Internet browsing
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
How does the Cisco SDN relate to compliance?
A. It is point product-based.
B. It uses anomaly detection to secure a device.
C. It addresses a large majority of PCI requirements.
D. It uses IP protocol 50 (ESP) to securely communicate to network devices.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which Cisco solution provides host protection against security violations by focusing on the behavior of the device?
A. Cisco PIX Firewall
B. NAC Appliance
C. host Analyzer
D. Cisco Security Agent
E. Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance
Answer: D
Question 11.
Why is a risk management strategy needed?
A. It would take into consideration theft of data as a major risk.
B. The network can never be 100 percent secure.
C. This will determine the risk/cost value.
D. Each risk is equally detrimental to security.
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Question 1. A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which tool will address this concern? A. HPStorageWorks sizing tool B. HP Data Protector databasesizer C. Database Configuration Worksheet D. Capacity Planning Spreadsheet Answer: D Question 2. What is the term for a configuration where failure of a single component does not cause failure of the entire system? A. hot-swappable B. NSPOF C. high availability D. SFP Answer: B Question 3. You are proposing an HP Storage Essentials SRM Enterprise Edition solution for a customer environment using only Oracle databases. You have decided to design a single server deployment. What is another term for this configuration? A. shared B. dedicated C. mixed D. isolated Answer: A Question 4. Which HP Storage Essentials SRM pluG. ins are available for the Enterprise Edition, but not for Standard Edition? (Select three.) A. Report Designer B. Backup Manager C. Provisioning Manager D. NAS Manager E. Database Viewer F. Chargeback Manager Answer: A, C, F Question 5. Which statement is correct about Remote Web Console? A. It can manage all XP firmware based software. B. It can provide centralized management of multiple XP arrays. C. Licensing is tier based on a per TB basis. D. It provides SAN level management. Answer: A Question 6. When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? A. for CLI based array management B. for centralized management of multiple XP arrays C. for Business Copy XP management D. for simple LUN management Answer: B Question 7. You are designing a backup solution for an Enterprise customer. Which ratio between host feed speed and tape write speed is required for optimal performance in compressed mode? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 Answer: C Question 8. Which HP document provides current configuration rules for HP storage connectivity in a SAN environment? A. San Visibility Tool B. SAN Design Reference Guide C. EBS Compatibility Matrix D. Quick Specs Answer: B Question 9. Which VLS6000 feature allows data movement to a physical library or another virtual library system? A. Automigration B. Virtual Tape Device Mirroring C. Virtual Cartridge Copy D. Deduplication Answer: A Question 10. DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Answer: Explanation:
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Question 2.
A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM). While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches from Microsoft.
What happens to that script?
A. System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B. Any snapshots andsnapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C. Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D. The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Answer: C
Question 3.
What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low performance impact?
A. A latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
B. A latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
C. A4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
D. An8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Answer: C
Question 4.
What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A. Replica snapshot
B. Dynamic snapshot
C. Instantaneous snapshot
D. Virtual snapshot
Answer: D
Question 5.
When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A. Replication Solution Manager host agent
B. HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C. HPStorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D. HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Answer: C
Question 6.
What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A. Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
B. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
C. Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual
Array.
D. Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual
Arrays is supported.
E. OneEnterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise
Virtual Arrays.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A. 1:4
B. 2:4
C. 3:1
D. 4:2
Answer: C
Question 8.
When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are required?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: C
Question 9.
Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages.
Which statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A. NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure
with 16 server blades.
B. You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches
inCClass blade enclosures.
C. In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade
enclosures.
D. NPIV makes a singleFibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own
N_Port ID and virtual WWN.
E. NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric
OS so that it can e consistently managed with the F.
Answer: C, D
Question 10.
Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state, is
A. Automatically updated whenever the sourceVdisk is updated?
B. Synchronizedmirrorclones
C. Synchronous Continuous Access
D. Synchronized containers
E. Enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Which SiteScope tools may be used to troubleshoot URL Monitor problems? (Select four.)
A. Ping
B. Network
C. Trace Route
D. DNS Lookup
E. Check URL Sequence
F. Get URL and URL Content
Answer: A, C, D, F
Question 2.
What is business process grouping or hierarchy?
A. a method of grouping individual monitors by their business owners
B. a method of grouping individual monitors by Business Process Monitoring (BPM)
C. a method of grouping individual monitors by prioritizing their level of importance to the
business
D. a method of grouping individual monitors which target components of specific Business
Services
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following may be used as a heartbeat monitor in SiteScope? (Select three.)
A. DNS lookup
B. Ping monitor
C. Log file monitor
D. Process monitor
E. Websphere monitor
Answer: A, B, D
Question 4.
What SiteScope features are needed to turn off monitoring for a specific server during planned downtime? (Select two.)
A. Security
B. Log files
C. Schedules
D. Heartbeats
E. Dependencies
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
What causes a SiteScope instance to contain an excessive number of individual Alerts? (Select two.)
A. too many top-level groups
B. monitor-focused alerting approach
C. number of systems being monitored
D. type of alerts being configured withinSiteScope
E. type of monitoring being performed on the system
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Which statement best describes the differences in the Auto discovery mode between Windows and UNIX remote servers?
A. Auto-discovery only works for UNIX remote servers.
B. Auto-discovery is the same when adding Windows remote server or UNIX remote server.
C. Auto-discovery will only work when adding a Windows remote server to a UNIX remote server.
D. Unlike Windows remote servers, there is no auto-discovery when adding a UNIX remote
server.
Answer: D
Question 7.
What causes a Monitor Skip to occur?
A. lower then normal system traffic
B. higher than normal system traffic
C. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance is still running
D. a new monitor instance attempts to run while its previous instance completes running
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the total monitor capacity for each SiteScope server?
A. 500
B. 8000
C. 1000
D. 20000
Answer: B
Question 9.
What is an adequate bandwidth for optimum SiteScope performance?
A. 5mbps
B. 10mbps
C. 256kbps
D. 100kbps
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the name of the executable used for running process pooling?
A. Perfex.exe
B. Scope.exe
C. Pooling.exe
D. SiteScope.exe
Answer: A
|
Question 1.
In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: A, D, G
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button.
Which actions can be done without interruption to pkg1? (Select two.)
A. cmhaltcl -f
B. cmrunpkg -v ws1
C. cfsumount /cfspkg1
D. cmhaltnode haatc01
E. cmhaltnode haatc02
Answer: B, E
Question 3.
You have an application package pkg1 configured that has a dependency on the CFS mount point package SG-CFS-MP-webdata that represents the mountpoint
A. Currently the package is running onnodeA and the /cfs/web_data CFS is only mounted on
node
A. Which command sequences can be executed on nodeA to B. (Select two.)
B. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg pkg1
C. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
D. cfsmount /dev/web_data nodeB; cmmovepkg -n nodeB pkg1
E. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cmrunpkg -n nodeB SG-CFS-MP-webdata pkg1
F. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cfsmount /cfs/web_data; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
G. cmhaltpkg pkg1; cfsmount /cfs/web_data nodeB; cmrunpkg -n nodeB pkg1
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
After implementing a highly available Oracle database instance utilizing a template from the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit, a DBA wants to perform offline maintenance while keeping all filesystems mounted and the relocatable IP address available.
What is the best method to accomplish this?
A. Enable the maintenance flag and perform database maintenance.
B. Shutdown the database instance and set the maintenance flag variable.
C. Pause database instance monitoring and move the package over to the adoptive node.
D. Halt the package, activate the volume group in exclusive mode and mount the file systems.
Answer: A
Question 5.
For the package "nfs_pkg", which commands create modular and legacy style package configuration file templates for a basic failover package? (Select two.)
A. cmquerycl -v -p nfs_pkg.cntl
B. cmquerycl -v -s nfs_pkg.conf
C. cmmakepkg -v -s nfs_pkg.cntl
D. cmmakepkg -v -p nfs_pkg.conf
E. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/basic $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.cntl
F. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/basic $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.conf
G. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/failover $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.cntl
H. cmmakepkg -v -m sg/failover $SGCONF/nfs_pkg/nfs_pkg.conf
Answer: D, H
Question 6.
Which changes can be made to a running cluster or package without causing an interruption in service? (Choose two.)
A. adding a subnet
B. adding a service
C. modifying the hostname
D. modifying the cluster name
E. modiyfing the node time out
F. modifying the package failover policy
Answer: E, F
Question 7.
In a Serviceguard environment, which feature provides the opportunity to perform rolling upgrades on the application software by temporarily moving a package to another system?
A. local application binaries
B. shared application binaries
C. temporary dual Quorum disk
D. temporary mirrored root volumes
E. dynamic root disk (DRD) on all cluster nodes
Answer: A
Question 8.
In the event of a failure, which parameter in the cluster configuration allows the cluster software to reset (TOC or INIT) the node on which packages are running?
A. NODE_UP_VALUE ON
B. NODE_TIMEOUT YES
C. PKG_FAIL_FAST_ENABLED YES
D. NODE_FAIL_FAST_ENABLED YES
E. AUTO_START_TIMEOUT ENABLED
F. RESOURCE_STOP AUTOMATIC
Answer: D
Question 9.
For Serviceguard troubleshooting, which log files should be configured across cluster nodes to utilize the Distributed Systems Administration Utilities (DSAU) log consolidation feature? (Select two.)
A. syslog file
B. LVM log file
C. EMS log file
D. cluster log file
E. package log files
Answer: A, E
Question 10.
The final step to create a 2-node cluster is to issue the command cmapplyconf.
In which state should the cluster lock volume group be in before issuing the cmapplyconf command?
A. deactivated on both nodes
B. activated in standard mode on both nodes
C. activated in standard mode on the node where the command is issued
D. activated in exclusive mode on the node where the command is issued
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which statements are correct regarding a Serviceguard cluster with SGeRAC and Oracle RAC? (Select two.)
A. If CFS is used then RAW devices are not allowed.
B. Each Oracle instance must have its own unique database.
C. SGeRAC cannot be configured together with Cluster File System (CFS).
D. The shared disk devices can be a SLVM raw device, CFS, or Oracle ASM raw device.
E. You can have more than one Oracle instance accessing the same database at the same time.
Answer: D, E
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