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I'm studying for the HP0-795 dumps, and looking for the most current master dump. Please email mfaiselserver@gmail.com Any help will be appreciated
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Question 1.
Which three statements are correct regarding the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) templates? (Choose three.)
A. Templates are XML files.
B. Seed templates are stored with the .dbt extension.
C. Templates cannot be copied from one machine to another.
D. Creation of the database is faster when you use a nonseed template instead of a seed
template.
E. Templates are stored in the $ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates directory on a Linux
platform.
F. If you use a nonseed template to create the database, then all the datafiles and redo logs are
created as per your specification.
Answer: A, E, F
Question 2.
Exhibit:
View the Exhibit and examine the Net Services Administration page of Enterprise Manager.
Which menu option would you choose to manage the contents of the tnsnames.ora file?
A. Listeners
B. Directory Naming
C. Local Naming
D. File Location
Answer: C
Question 3.
To protect the sample schema accounts from an unauthorized user access, these accounts are _____.
A. not granted any role initially
B. operating system (OS) authenticated
C. initially locked with their passwords expired
D. created with their passwords stored in a password file
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which three usernames, by default, provide access to Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Control? (Choose three.)
A. SYS
B. MDSYS
C. WKSYS
D. DMSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: A, E, F
Question 5.
Which method can you use to receive a notification when the free disk space in the recovery area falls below 10%?
A. Submit a job that queries the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).
B. Create an alert that sends a notification when the threshold value is reached.
C. Invoke the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to configure notifications and set
threshold values.
D. Specify the users who should receive notifications in the Preferred Credentials of the
Enterprise Manager.
E. Run the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to analyze disk space and display a
warning message.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which default administrative user account does the Management Agent component of Oracle Enterprise Manager use to monitor and manage the database?
A. OE
B. SYS
C. OUTLN
D. DBSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which two statements are correct regarding naming methods? (Choose two.)
A. Easy connect naming method requires no configuration.
B. Directory naming method stores net service names in a local configuration file.
C. Local naming method stores net service names in a supported non-Oracle service.
D. Directory naming method stores connect identifiers in a centralized, LDAP-compliant directory
server.
E. External naming method stores connect descriptors, identified by their net service names in
the sqlnet.ora file.
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
Exhibit:
View the Exhibit.
You are creating an additional database by using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA). You realize that the Block Size field is not enabled.
What could be the reason?
A. You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
B. You are not using the Custom Database template to create the database.
C. You have not chosen the Use Grid Control for Database Management option.
D. The data block size is set to the maximum block size supported by the operating system.
E. The data block size can be increased only when DBCA is invoked from Oracle Universal
Installer (OUI).
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose three.)
A. Tablespaces comprise one or more datafiles.
B. Segments can span datafiles within a tablespace.
C. Datafiles can belong to more than one tablespace.
D. Segments can span datafiles across tablespaces.
E. Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 10.
Which three default actions are performed by Enterprise Manager when a tablespace is deleted? (Choose three.)
A. All the objects in the tablespace are truncated.
B. All the objects stored in the tablespace are dropped.
C. The definitions of the objects are removed from the data dictionary.
D. The definitions of the objects are retained in the data dictionary but made invalid.
E. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are deleted from the operating system.
F. All the datafiles associated with the tablespace are not physically removed from the operating
system.
Answer: B, C, E
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Question 1.
How do NBX phones prioritize audio traffic?
A. NBX phones place audio traffic into a priority queue within the NCP, forwarding all voice traffic
before forwarding data packets
B. NBX phones tag voice packets usingDiffServ for all LAN communication
C. NBX phones forward all voice packets to IEEE 802.1p aware hubs
D. NBX phones use VLAN-tagged frames with the priority level automatically set to 6
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which three are features/requirements for using Unified Messaging for an NBX system? (Choose three.)
A. Users can use a TAPI4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
B. Can use the computer default media player to listen to a message
C. Requires NBXpcXset client software
D. APX messaging service functionality is provided by IMAP client on the NBX NCP
E. Users can use an IMAP4 compliant application to access and manage voice messages on a
computer
F. Requires a Windows-based PC with a minimum of 64MB RAM and full-duplex sound card
Answer: B, E, F
Question 3.
Which three are hardware attributes of the 3Com NBX 100 Communication System? (Choose three.)
A. Is a combination of two required chassis ?the Network Call Processor and the interface
chassis
B. Offers optional hot-swap power supply
C. Requires only one Network Call Processor card, even if multiple NBX 100 Chassis are
Installed on a LAN
D. Provides one 10/100 Mbps Ethernet switched port on the NCP for network connectivity
E. Has 7 card slots, 6 of which are useable with the top useable slot designated for the Network
Call Processor Card
F. Requires a Network Call Processor (NCP) for call setup and teardown
Answer: C, E, F
Question 4.
What is Telephone Applications Program Interface (TAPI) Route Point?
A. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which inbound calls can be mapped
for a 3rd party application that monitors the route point and makes intelligent call route
decisions
B. Virtual device within the Network Call Processor (NCP) to which outbound calls can be
mapped, allowing 3rd party applications to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
C. Virtual Network Call Processor (NCP) device or third party application that monitors and maps
incoming calls, allowing the NCP to make intelligent routing decisions for the call
D. NBX feature enabled in the System / TAPI Setup menu that provides intelligent Layer 3 IP
routing for TAPI messages on a multi-system, company-wide bases
Answer: A
Question 5.
How does the NBX administrator get both internal and external calls to use Timed Routes?
A. Create the necessary entries in the Dial Plan using the keywords "inbound" and " outbound" to
specify call direction
B. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and External Dial Plan tables
C. Create the necessary entries in both the Internal and Incoming Dial Plan tables
D. The Dial Plan has an inbound and outbound section where the specific Timed Routes are
coded
E. The Dial Plan does not support alternate routes for inbound calls
Answer: C
Question 6.
Which three best describe how members Login/Logout of a Hunt Group? (Choose three.)
A. Group members can login and logout as their schedule requires
B. To login/logout a user only needs to pickup their phone and enter their voice mail password
C. Administrator can set optional automatic logout to force a logout if an incoming call is not
answered at a phone
D. A dynamic login member must login at the start of a day and will only need to login again if
They are logged out after 15 minutes pass between phone calls
E. A forced login member is always logged in whether they are at their phone or not
F. All members must login only once during the day. They are automatically logged out at the end
of the day based on the NBX System Business Time definition
Answer: A, C, E
Question 7.
The NBX Dial Plan can be configured to route calls to an alternate carrier or to replace an internal extension number with an external number, for example, a cell phone.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following NBX Communication Systems support software version R5.0? (Choose three.)
A. NBX 25
B. VCX 7000
C. VCX 6000
D. NBX 100
E. NBX V5000
F. NBX V3000
Answer: D, E, F
Question 9.
Which three office-to-office and/or office-to-remote user call options are supported by the NBX systems? (Choose three.)
A. With a single NBX system at HQ, users can call to/from a remote office across the data
network WAN link using Layer 3 IP communications
B. With a NBX system and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each location, users can call to/from
the sites via a WAN link that supports IP protocol, for example, VPN, T1, E1 and Frame Relay
C. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) and NBXConneXtions Gateways at each site,
Users can call to/from the sites via a Virtual Tie Line (VTL)
D. With a NBX Network Call Processor (NCP) at each location, users can call to/from the sites via
a Virtual Tie Line (VTL) using IP On-the-Fly or a Standard IP license
E. With a single NBX system at HQ andpcXset on the remote office PC, the remote user can call
to/from HQ via any WAN link using TCP/IP Layer 4 communications
Answer: A, B, D
Question 10.
Which three changes require a NBX system reboot? (Choose three.)
A. Change to NCP information, for example, IP address, default gateway
B. Adding any new interface card to the NBX chassis, for example, Digital Line Card, Hub card,
etc.
C. Change to network protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
D. Change to Digital Line Card protocol, for example, Standard IP or IP On-the-Fly
E. Removing an interface card from an NBX chassis
F. New software version
Answer: A, C, F
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Question 1.
What is the network layer responsible for?
A. Providing the physical address to the packet.
B. Determining the path to the remote host.
C. Providing reliable communications from host to host.
D. Formatting the PDU.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which of the following are basic router functions? Choose two.
A. Perform a Layer 2 header lookup
B. Broadcast a Layer 2 packet to all the interfaces.
C. IP header examination.
D. Determine the best path to the destination.
Answer: C, D
Question 3.
Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for transporting IP datagrams?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL 3
D. AAL 5
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following are data rates defined for Ethernet operation over copper and fiber optic cabling? (Choose three.)
A. 1 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 1000 Mbps
D. 10,000 Mbps
Answer: B, C, D
Question 5.
An Ethernet switch receives a frame addressed to an unknown destination.
Assuming the frame is error-free, what will the switch do with the frame?
A. Hold it in a buffer until it learns the port on which the destination is located
B. Flood the frame out all ports except the source port
C. Filter the frame and restrict it only to the source port
D. Age out the source address forwarding table entry
Answer: B
Question 6.
How does collision detection operate in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. It allows multiple hosts to exchange data simultaneously on the same medium
B. It allows multiple hosts to share the same medium by ensuring that only one host can transmit
at a time
C. Detects collisions on a full-duplex link
D. A host will only transmit upon receipt of the token
Answer: B
Question 7.
The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer is responsible for which two functions? (Choose two.)
A. Directly interface with the transport layer
B. Link integrity testing
C. Physical addressing
D. Data transmission synchronization
Answer: C, D
Question 8.
What is the purpose of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?
A. To ensure the host is able to detect an operational physical link before transmitting.
B. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host
is connected
C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting
D. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement best describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) root bridge/switch?
A. It is the switch on the network with the lowest bridge priority value
B. It is the switch with the highest numeric Media Access Control (MAC) address
C. It is the only switch on the network through which traffic flows
D. It is responsible for removing duplicate frames from the network
Answer: A
Question 10.
An Ethernet switch with redundant links has the following entries in its Forwarding Data Base (FDB):
MAC Address Port
00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 1
00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 2
It receives on port 2 a frame with the source Media Access Control (MAC) address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11, and destination address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87.
What will the switch change in its FDB?
A. It will remove the previous entry for MAC 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 and replace it with a new one
mapping this address to port 1
B. It will set a timer on the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 and create a new entry
mapping this address to port 2
C. Replace the previous entry for MAC 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 with a new one mapping this address
to port 2
D. It will create a new entry for MAC address 00:60:AC:1F:E0:11 mapping this address to port 2
and a new entry for MAC address 00:F0:DE:12:3C:87 mapping this address to port 1
Answer: C
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Question 1. How many databases does a Link State routing protocol use? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Answer: C Question 2. In an IP datagram, which field identifies the receiving application A. The protocol field of the transport layer header B. The port field of the transport layer header C. The protocol field of the network layer header D. The port field of the network layer address Answer: B Question 3. A static route is created using the command "static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 3.3.3.1". What command could be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? A. Ping static 3.3.3.1 B. Ping static 0.0.0.0/0 C. Ping 3.3.3.1 D. Ping 0.0.0.0 Answer: C Question 4. A static route is created using the command "static-route 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 1.2.3.4". What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? A. traceroute 2.3.4.1 B. traceroute 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 1.2.3.4 C. traceroute next-hop 1.2.3.4 D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR Answer: A Question 5. Which one of the commands below will create a static route to network 2.3.4.0/24 on the AlcatelLucent 7750 SR router? A. Static route 2.3.4.0 255.255.255.0 next hop 3.4.5.6 B. Static-route next-hop 3.4.5.6 2.3.4.0/24 C. Static route 2.3.4.0/24 next hop 3.4.5.6 D. Static-route 2.3.4.0/24 next-hop 3.4.5.6 Answer: D Question 6. A default route for a client is also known as the: A. Default path B. Default gateway C. Gateway path D. Proxy ARP Answer: B Question 7. What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router? A. 0 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 Answer: B Question 8. What command could be used to verify proper configuration of a static route in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router? A. Show route-table B. Show router routing-table C. Show router route-table D. Show static Answer: C Question 9. What address is used when RIPv2 uses multicast to send its updates? A. 224.0.0.5 B. 224.0.0.6 C. 224.0.0.9 D. 224.0.0.10 E. RIPv2 does not have support for multicast Answer: C Question 10. What is the metric and maximum routable value for RIP? A. Hop count and 16 B. Hop count and 15 C. Link cost and 15 D. Link cost and 16 Answer: B Question 11. What modes of authentication are supported for RIPv2 on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? A. RIPv2 supports basic and MD5 authentication only. B. RIPv2 supports password and MD5 authentication only. C. RIPv2 does not support authentication, password and MD5 authentication. D. RIPv2 does not support authentication. Answer: C
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Question 1.
Which of the following are Link State protocols?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS
Answer: C, D
Question 2.
ECMP supports which of the following. Choose the best answer.
A. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
B. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from any protocol
C. 8 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
D. 16 equal-cost paths per destination learned from the same protocol and preference
E. 4 equal-cost paths per destination
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the RTM?
A. From the router's route table, select the best routes to be installed in the FIB for forwarding
data.
B. Based on the metrics of the routingprotocol, chose the lowest cost route to be installed in the
route table.
C. Apply the BGP route selection criteria to select the best route to be installed in the route table.
D. Select the preferred route from the various routing protocols to be installed as the active route
in the route table.
E. Apply the assigned import and export policies to determine the routes to be advertised to the
router's neighbors.
Answer: D
Question 4.
What items are carried in a typical classless routing update? Select the best answer.
A. Network address, mask and metric
B. Network address and metric
C. Prefix and mask
D. prefix, next-hop and metric
E. prefix and next-hop
Answer: A
Question 5.
Choose the most accurate statement about the connections between eBGP peers.
A. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.
B. eBGP peers are always directly connected to each other.
C. eBGP peers are never directly connected to each other.
D. eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other, unless they are in the same
autonomous system.
E. eBGP peers are usually not directly connected to each other, additional configuration is
required if they are.
Answer: A
Question 6.
What message is issued by a neighbor as a response to a valid Open?
A. Keepalive
B. Open
C. Exchange
D. Notification
E. Ping
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which of the following is not exchanged in a BGP Open message?
A. BGP version number
B. The local AS number
C. The hold time
D. Thekeepalive timer
E. The Router ID
Answer: D
Question 8.
The state of one BGP neighbor shows Established, which of the following is false?
A. The router has established a complete session with that neighbor.
B. BGP can exchange update, notification andkeepalive messages with that neighbor
C. If thekeepalive timer expires, the local system sends a keepalive message and restarts its
keepalive timer
D. If the local system receives a notification message, it changes its state toOpenConfirm
E. Established is the operational state
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which of the following is a Well Known Mandatory attribute?
A. Origin Code
B. Local Preference
C. MED
D. AS Path
E. (a) and (d)
F. (b) and (d)
Answer: E
Question 10.
Which of the following is true, based on the AS Path list shown here? 65206 65111 65100
A. AS 65206 originated the route
B. AS 65111 is a transit AS
C. AS 65100 is a transit AS
D. AS 65100 originated the route
E. (b) and (d)
F. (a) and (c)
Answer: E
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Question 1.
Which factor is a primary cause of IP hyper-aggregation?
A. IP routing protocols do not always select the best route to a destination
B. IP routing protocols always select multiple routes to a destination
C. IP routing protocols do not make use all availablenetwork attributes to select a path
D. Improper network design results in limited network path redundancy
Answer: C
Question 2.
Inspecting the MPLS header in the received packet and exchanging it for a new MPLS header is the function of which device?
A. iLER
B. LER
C. LSR
D. PE
E. eLER
Answer: C
Question 3.
Choose the answer that best completes the following statement. The device at the beginning of an LSP is referred to as the ____ while the device at the end of an LSP is referred to as the ____.
A. PE, P
B. LER, LSR
C. LSR, LER
D. iLER, eLER
E. eLER, iLER
F. P, PE
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following statements are true regarding the roles of devices in an MPLS domain?
Choose 2 answers.
A. An LER is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
B. An LSR is located internal to the provider domain and switches labeled packets
C. An LSR is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
D. An LER is located at the boundary of the provider domain and may forward labeled or
unlabeled packets
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
Receiving labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removing the MPLS header and forwarding unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain is the function of which device?
A. LER
B. LSR
C. PE
D. iLER
E. eLER
Answer: E
Question 6.
What are the functions of the control plane in a MPLS router? Choose 2 answers.
A. Route exchange
B. Label swapping
C. MPLS neighbor establishment
D. Label signaling
E. Routing lookups
Answer: A, D
Question 7.
Which of the following factors are driving the evolution of the MPLS protocol and services? Choose 2 answers.
A. Customers demand for differentiated IP services
B. MPLS usage has been mandated by the IETF
C. Providers want to improve service availability and reliability
D. It is an easier technology to configure and manage than IP alone
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
Which of the following statements are true? Choose all that apply.
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
What is the function of the MPLS label assigned to a packet?
A. It identifies the FEC
B. It specifies the packets header length
C. It identifies the origin of the packet
D. It specifies the type of data contained in the packet
Answer: A
Question 10.
What is the common usage of the MPLS EXP bits?
A. Each implementation may use them as they see fit
B. They are used to carry theEthertype value
C. They are used to carry the TTL value
D. They are used to mapQoS classification
E. They are used to carry fragmentation flags
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Identify the correct labels for the Martini encapsulation diagram above.
A. XX Transport Label, YY VC Label, ZZ Control Word
B. XX VC Label, YY Transport Label, ZZ Control Word
C. XX VC Label, YY Control Word, ZZ Transport Label
D. XX Control Word, YY VC Label, ZZ Transport Label
E. XX Control Word, YY Transport Label, ZZ VC Label
Answer: A
Question 2.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
What encapsulation method is represented by ZZZZZ above?
A. Kompella
B. Alcatel
C. Martini
D. HDLC
Answer: C
Question 3.
Point to multipoint MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity and encapsulation is described most accurately by which of the following?
A. RFC 4448: Encapsulation methods for transport of Ethernet over MPLS.
B. RFC3201: Definitions of Managed Objects for Circuit to Interface Translation.
C. RFC 4762: VPLS over LDP Signaling
D. RFC 4364 BGP/MPLS Layer-3 VPN
Answer: C
Question 4.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
In the diagram what does "YYYYY" represent?
A. Service VC label
B. Control word
C. Inner label
D. TCP/IP header
Answer: B
Question 5.
Martini encapsulation typically makes use of the control word in which of the following situations? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet
B. ATM AAL5
C. TDM
D. HDLC
E. Frame Relay
Answer: B, E
Question 6.
The diagram above shows the MPLS packet format for transporting L2 services over an MPLS transport tunnel.
What does "XXXXX" represent in the diagram?
A. Control word
B. Outer label
C. Inner Transport label
D. Service VC label
Answer: D
Question 7.
True or False? Nodes that are not directly connected by a physical link cannot participate in a VPN
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which of the following SAP encapsulations supports only a single service on a port?
A. Dot1Q
B. Null
C. Q-in-Q
D. ATM
E. BCP
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following are considered to be services on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 Service Router? (Choose all that apply)
A. IES
B. VPRN
C. VPLS
D. Apipe
E. Mirroring
F. MPLS
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Question 10.
Which CLI command on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is needed to obtain the following output?
A. Show service description
B. Show service id
C. Show service customer
D. Show service information
Answer: C
Question 11.
Which of the following statements is true?
A. An SDP is used to transport customer traffic between two nodes over a transport tunnel
B. A distributedEpipe service needs one SAP and one SDP on each node
C. For a service to be bi-directional, a SDP must be provisioned on each node participating in the
service
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question 12.
True or False? There can only be one SAP per access port?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which of the following best describes the difference between VPWS and VPLS?
A. VPWS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
whereas
B. VPLS is a bridged LAN service provided to a set of CEs that are members of a L2 VPN
C. Unlike VPLS, VPWS allows CEs that are member of the same service instance to
Communicate with each other as if they are connected via a bridged LAN
D. Unlike VPWS, VPLS provides customers to view the network as an unshared overlay link or
circuit
Answer: A
Question 2.
The behavior of VPLS can be best described by which of the following statements?
A. A frame should be sent only to the PE that connects to the target site of the frame whenever
possible
B. A frame should be flooded as little as possible
C. Customer frames should be switched based on the destination MAC address
D. Only (a) and (b) are true
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which of the following statements relating to VPLS are false?
A. A VPLS is amultipoint Layer 2 service
B. A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain
C. A VPLS on a single node requires a Service Distribution Path
D. With VPLS Service provider can reuse their IP/MPLS infrastructure to offer multiple services
E. The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP
Answer: C
Question 4.
True or False? Multiple VPLS services can be offered over the same set of LSP tunnels?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which of the following contributes to VPLS implementation over MPLS?
A. Connecting bridging-capable provider edge routers with a full mesh of MPLS LSP (label
switched path) tunnels
B. Negotiating per-service VC labels using draft-Martini encapsulation
C. Replicating unknown and broadcast traffic in a service domain
D. Enabling MAC learning over tunnel and access ports
E. Using a separate forwarding information base (FIB) per VPLS service
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question 6.
Which of the following statements is false?
A. VPLS is a bridged LAN service
B. VPLS provides L2 VPN services to CEs
C. VPLS is a point-to-point service where CEs are presented with point- to-point virtual circuits
D. CEs that are members of the same VPLS service instance communicate with each other as if
they are connected via a bridged LAN
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which of the following functions must a PE router support when participating in a VPLS network? Choose all that apply.
A. MAC learning
B. Packet replication
C. Proxy ARP
D. Packet forwarding
E. Flood all frames with an unknown destination MAC address to all PE routers associated with
that VPLS
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question 8.
Which SDP on R3 will MAC addresses be associated with for devices behind R2?
A. It depends if traffic is received via R4 or R1 from devices behind R2
B. The devices cannot communicate based on the configuration in the diagram so there will be
nomac address association
C. Devices behind R2 will be associated with thesdp between R3 and R1
D. Devices behind R2 will be associated with thesdp between R3 and R4
Answer: C
Question 9.
Select the command from the list below that produced the following output.
A. oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
B. oam sdp-ping 10 resp-sdp 10
C. oam svc-ping 20.20.20.20 service 10 local-sdp
D. oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp remote-sdp
E. oam svc-ping 10.10.10.10 service 10 local-sdp
Answer: A
Question 10.
Based on the following output what will the vc-id be of any mesh-sdp bound to this service?
A. 9000
B. 1514
C. 1000
D. 0
Answer: C
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Question 1.
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices
Answer: A, B, C
Question 2.
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with ___________________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with
the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing
protocol for exchanging routes with the PE
Answer: E
Question 3.
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Answer: A, B, D
Question 5.
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs
Answer: A, E
Question 6.
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information betweensitesDistributing the customer? Routing
information between sites
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites
Answer: B, C, E
Question 8.
In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Answer: D
Question 9.
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A
Question 10.
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ____________________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Answer: A
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