Question 1.
You work as a network administrator for ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com. There are currently 120 Web servers running Windows 2000 Server and are contained in an Organizational Unit (OU) named ABC_WebServers ABC.com management took a decision to uABCrade all Web servers to Windows Server 2003. You disable all services on the Web servers that are not required. After running the IIS Lockdown Wizard on a recently deployed web server, you discover that services such as NNTP that are not required are still enabled on the Web server. 

How can you ensure that the services that are not required are forever disabled on the Web servers without affecting the other servers on the network? Choose two.

A. Set up a GPO that will change the startup type for the services to Automatic.
B. By linking the GPO to the ABC_WebServers OU.
C. Set up a GPO with the Hisecws.inf security template imported into the GPO.
D. By linking the GPO to the domain.
E. Set up a GPO in order to set the startup type of the redundant services to Disabled.
F. By linking the GPO to the Domain Controllers OU.
G. Set up a GPO in order to apply a startup script to stop the redundant services.

Answer: B, E

Explanation: 
Windows Server 2003 installs a great many services with the operating system, and configures a number of with the Automatic startup type, so that these services load automatically when the system starts. Many of these services are not needed in a typical member server configuration, and it is a good idea to disable the ones that the computer does not need. Services are programs that run continuously in the background, waiting for another application to call on them. Instead of controlling the services manually, using the Services console, you can configure service parameters as part of a GPO. Applying the GPO to a container object causes the services on all the computers in that container to be reconfigured. To configure service parameters in the Group Policy Object Editor console, you browse to the Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\System Services container and select the policies corresponding to the services you want to control.

Reference:
Jill Spealman, Kurt Hudson & Melissa Craft, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-294); Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Active Directory Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, 2004, p. 13:1-6

Question 2.
You are working as the administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Berlin, Minsk, and Athens. The Berlin, Minsk and Athens branch offices each have a Windows Server 2003 domain controller named ABC-DC01, ABC-DC02 and ABC-DC03 respectively. All client computers on the ABC.com network run Windows XP Professional. One morning users at the Minsk branch office complain that they are experiencing intermittent problems authenticating to the domain. You believe that a specific client computer is the cause of this issue and so need to discover the IP address client computer.

How would you capture authentication event details on ABC-DC02 in the Minsk branch office?

A. By monitoring the logon events using the SysMon utility.
B. By recording the connections to the NETLOGON share using the SysMon utility.
C. By recording the authentication events with the NetMon utility.
D. By monitoring the authentication events using the Performance and Reliability Monitor.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
The question states that you need to find out the IP address of the client computer that is the source of the problem. Using Network Monitor to capture traffic is the only way to do this.

Reference:
http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;en-us;175062
Martin Grasdal, Laura E. Hunter, Michael Cross, Laura Hunter, Debra Littlejohn Shinder, and Dr.
Thomas W. Shinder, Planning and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure:
Exam 70-293 Study Guide & DVD Training System, Syngress Publishing, Inc., Rockland, MA,
Chapter 11, p. 826

Question 3.
You are working as the administrator at ABC.com. Part of you job description includes the deployment of applications on the ABC.com network. To this end you operate by testing new application deployment in a test environment prior to deployment on the production network. The new application that should be tested requires 2 processors and 3 GB of RAM to run successfully. Further requirements of this application also include shared folders and installation of software on client computers. You install the application on a Windows Server 2003 Web Edition computer and install the application on 30 test client computers. During routine monitoring you discover that only a small amount of client computers are able to connect and run the application. You decide to turn off the computers that are able to make a connection and discover that the computers that failed to open the application can now run the application.

How would you ensure that all client computers can connect to the server and run the application?

A. By running a second instance of the application on the server.
B. By increasing the Request Queue Limit on the Default Application Pool.
C. By modifying the test server operating system to Window Server 2003 Standard Edition.
D. By increasing the amount of RAM in the server to 4GB.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
Although Windows Server 2003 Web Edition supports up to 2GB of RAM, it reserves 1GB of it for the operating system; only 1GB of RAM is available for the application. Therefore, we need to install Window Server 2003 Standard Edition or Enterprise Edition to support enough RAM.

Question 4.
You are an Enterprise administrator for ABC.com. All servers on the corporate network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP. The network contains a server named ABC-SR01 that has Routing and Remote Access service and a modem installed which connects to an external phone line. A partner company uses a dial-up connection to connect to ABC-SR01 to upload product and inventory information. This connection happens between the hours of 1:00am and 2:00am every morning and uses a domain user account to log on to ABC-SR01. You have been asked by the security officer to secure the connection.

How can you ensure that the dial-up connection is initiated only from the partner company and that access is restricted to just ABC-SR01? Choose three.

A. Set up the log on hours restriction for the domain user account to restrict the log on to between 
    the hours of 1:00am and 2:00am.
B. Set up a local user account on ABC-SR01. Have the dial-up connection configured to log on  
    with this account.
C. Set up the remote access policy on ABC-SR01 to allow the connection for the specified user 
    account between the hours of 1:00am and 2:00am.
D. Set up the remote access policy with the Verify Caller ID option to only allow calling from the 
    phone number of the partner company modem.
E. Set up the remote access policy to allow access to the domain user account only.

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation: 
To allow only the minimum amount of access to the network, ensure that only the partner's application can connect to your network over the dial-up connection, you need to first create a local account named on ABC-SR01. You need to then add this account to the local Users group and direct the partner company to use this account for remote access. You can use a local account to provide remote access to users. The user account for a standalone server or server running Active Directory contains a set of dial-in properties that are used when allowing or denying a connection attempt made by a user. You can use the Remote Access Permission (Dial-in or VPN) property to set remote access permission to be explicitly allowed, denied, or determined through remote access policies. Next, you need to configure a remote access policy on ABC-SR01 to allow the connection for only the specified user account between 1 AM and 2 AM. In all cases, remote access policies are used to authorize the connection attempt. If access is explicitly allowed, remote access policy conditions, user account properties, or profile properties can still deny the connection attempt. You need to then configure the policy to allow only the specific calling station identifier of the partner company's computer. When the Verify Caller ID property is enabled, the server verifies the caller's phone number. If the caller's phone number does not match the configured phone number, the connection attempt is denied.

Reference: 
Dial-in properties of a user account http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738142.aspx

Question 5.
You are an Enterprise administrator for ABC.com. The company consists of an Active Directory domain called ad.ABC.com. All servers on the corporate network run Windows Server 2003. At present there is no provision was made for Internet connectivity. A server named ABC2 has the DNS server service role installed. The DNS zones on ABC2 are shown below:
 

The corporate network also contains a UNIX-based DNS A server named ABC-SR25 hosts a separate DNS zone on a separate network called ABC.com. ABC-SR25 provides DNS services to the UNIX-based computers and is configured to run the latest version of BIND and the ABC.com contains publicly accessible Web and mail servers.
 
The company has a security policy set, according to which, the resources located on the internal network and the internal network's DNS namespace should never be exposed to the Internet. Besides this, according to the current network design, ABC-SR25 must attempt to resolve any name resolution requests before sending them to name servers on the Internet. The company plans to allow users of the internal network to access Internet-based resources. To implement the security policy of the company, you decided to send all name resolution requests for Internet-based resources from internal network computers through ABC2. You thus need to devise a name resolution strategy for Internet access as well as configuring ABC2 so that it will comply with the set criteria and restrictions.

Which two of the following options should you perform?

A. Have the Cache.dns file copied from ABC2 to ABC-SR25.
B. Have the root zone removed from ABC2.
C. ABC2 should be set up to forward requests to ABC-SR25.
D. Install Services for Unix on ABC2.
E. The root zone should be configured on ABC-SR25.
F. Disable recursion on ABC-SR25.

Answer: B, C

Explanation: 
To plan a name resolution strategy for Internet access and configure ABC2 so that it sends all name resolution requests for Internet-based resources from internal network computers through ABC2, you need to delete the root zone from ABC2. Configure ABC2 to forward requests to ABC-SR25 A DNS server running Windows Server 2003 follows specific steps in its name-resolution process. A DNS server first queries its cache, it checks its zone records, it sends requests to forwarders, and then it tries resolution by using root servers. The root zone indicates to your DNS server that it is a root Internet server. Therefore, your DNS server does not use forwarders or root hints in the name-resolution process. Deleting the root zone from ABC2 will allow you to first send requests to ABC2 and then forward requests to ABCSR25 by configuring forward lookup zone. If the root zone is configured, you will not be able to use the DNS server to resolve queries for hosts in zones for which the server is not authoritative and will not be able to use this DNS Server to resolve queries on the Internet. 

Reference: 
How to configure DNS for Internet access in Windows Server 2003 
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/323380
Reference: DNS Root Hints in Windows 2003
http://www.computerperformance.co.uk/w2k3/services/DNS_root_hints.htm

Question 6.
You are working as the administrator at ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com with the domain functional level set at Windows Server 2003. All network servers run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. The ABC.com domain is divided into organizational units (OU). All the resource servers are contained in an OU named ABC_SERVERS and the workstations are contained in an OU named ABC_CLIENTS. All resource servers operate at near capacity during business hours. All workstations have low resource usage during business hours. You received instructions to configure baseline security templates for the resource servers and the workstations. To this end you configured two baseline security templates named ABC_SERVERS.inf and ABC_CLIENTS.inf respectively. The ABC_SERVERS.inf template contains many configuration settings. Applying the ABC_SERVERS.inf template would have a performance impact on the servers. The ABC_CLIENTS.inf contains just a few settings so applying this template would not adversely affect the performance of the workstations. 

How would you apply the security templates so that the settings will be periodically enforced whilst ensuring that the solution reduces the impact on the resource servers? Choose three.

A. By setting up a GPO named SERVER-GPO and link it to the ABC_SERVERS OU.
B. By having the ABC_SERVERS.inf template imported into SERVER-GPO.
C. By having the ABC_SERVERS.inf and the ABC_CLIENTS.inf templates imported into the  
    Default Domain Policy GPO.
D. By scheduling SECEDIT on each resource server to regularly apply the ABC_SERVERS.inf  
    settings during off-peak hours.
E. By having a GPO named CLIENT-GPO created and linked to the ABC_CLIENTS OU.
F. By having the ABC_CLIENTS.inf template imported into CLIENT-GPO.
G. By having SERVER-GPO and CLIENT-GPO linked to the domain.

Answer: D, E, F

Explanation: 
The question states that you need to apply the baseline security templates so that the settings will be periodically enforced. To accomplish this you must create a scheduled task so that the performance impact on resource servers is minimized. Furthermore, the question also states that ABC_CLIENTS.inf is a baseline security template for client computers. Therefore, the GPO has to be linked to the OU that contains the client computers, and the ABC_CLIENTS.inf template must be imported to the said GPO so that it can be applied. Secedit.exe is a command line tool that performs the same functions as the Security Configuration And Analysis snap-in, and can also apply specific parts of templates to the computer. You can use Secedit.exe in scripts and batch files to automate security template deployments. You can create a baseline security configuration in a GPO directly, or import a security template into a GPO. Link the baseline security GPO to OUs in which member servers’ computer objects exist.

Reference:
Craig Zacker, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, Chapter 10 Dan Holme, and Orin Thomas, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit: UABCrading Your Certification to Microsoft Windows Server 2003: Managing, Maintaining, Planning, and Implementing a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 environment: Exams 70-292 and 70-296, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, Chapter 9

Question 7.
You are working as the administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com. The ABC.com network contains a DMZ that contains a two-node Network Load Balancing cluster, which is located in a data centre that is physically impenetrable to unauthorized persons. The cluster servers run Windows Server 2003 Web Edition and host an e-commerce website. The NLB cluster uses a virtual IP address that can be accessed from the Internet. 

What can you do to mitigate the cluster’s most obvious security vulnerability?

A. Configure the cluster to require IPSec.
B. Configure the network cards to use packet filtering on all inbound traffic to the cluster.
C. Use EFS on the server hard disks.
D. Configure intrusion detection the servers on the DMZ.
E. Configure Mac addressing on the servers in the DMZ.

Answer: B

Explanation: 
The most sensitive element in this case is the network card that uses an Internetaddressable virtual IP address. The question doesn’t mention a firewall implementation or an intrusion detection system (Usually Hardware). Therefore, we should set up packet filtering. You can configure packet filtering to accept or deny specific types of packets. Packet headers are examined for source and destination addresses, TCP and UDP port numbers, and other information.

Reference:
Craig Zacker, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, 2004, p. 7:

Question 8.
You are working for a administrator for ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com. All the servers on the network run Windows Server 2003 servers. You have configured four servers in a network load balancing cluster. You need to enable the cluster in unicast mode although each server only has one network card. After your configuration, the NLB cluster has successfully converged. You discover that you can optimize the use of the cluster by moving a specific application to each node of the cluster. However for this application to execute, all the nodes of the cluster must be configured by a Network Load Balancing Port Rule. When you open Network Load Balancing Manager on one of the NLB nodes, you receive a message saying that Network Load Balancing Manager is unable to see the other nodes in the cluster.

How can you add a port rule to the cluster nodes?

A. By opening Network Load Balancing Manager on a different host.
B. By creating an additional virtual IP address on the cluster.
C. By modifying the Network Connection Properties on every host.
D. By removing each host from the cluster before creating the port rule.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
You can configure many Network Load Balancing options through either Network Load Balancing Manager or the Network Load Balancing Properties dialog box accessed through Network Connections. However, Network Load Balancing Manager is the preferred method. Using both Network Load Balancing Manager and Network Connections together to change Network Load Balancing properties can lead to unpredictable results. 

Reference: 
Network Load Balancing Best practices / Use Network Load Balancing Manager.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc740265.aspx

Question 9.
You are working as an administrator for ABC.com. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com. All server run Windows Server 2003 and all client computer run Windows XP Professional. The ABC.com departments are organized into organizational units (OUs). The Administration OU is named ABC_ADMIN, and the Sales OU is named ABC_SALES. All file servers for all departments are located in their respective OUs. The ABC_SALES OU is a child OU of the ABC_ADMIN OU. A new ABC.com written security policy states that servers in the ABC_ADMIN OU should be highly secure. All communications with ABC-ADMIN servers should be encrypted. The security policy also states that auditing should be enabled for file and folder deletion on Sales servers. Communications with the Sales servers should not be encrypted. 

How should you configure Group Policy for the ABC_Admin and ABC_Sales OU? Choose three.

A. Configure a GPO to apply the Hisecws.inf security template. Link this GPO to the ABC_ADMIN  
    OU.
B. Configure a GPO to enable the Audit object access audit policy on computer objects. Link this 
    GPO to the ABC_SALES OU.
C. Configure a GPO to apply the Hisecws.inf security template. Link this GPO to the ABC_Sales  
    OU.
D. Configure a GPO to enable the Audit object access audit policy on computer objects. Link this  
    GPO to the ABC_ADMIN OU.
E. Block group policy inheritance on the ABC_ADMIN OU.
F. Block group policy inheritance on the ABC_SALES OU.

Answer: A, B, F

Explanation: 
The Hisecws.inf security template increases security on a server. One of the security settings is to require secure encrypted communications. A GPO with this template needs to be applied to the ABC_ADMIN OU. We don’t want those settings applying to the ABC_SALES OU though so we need to block inheritance on the ABC_SALES OU. We need to apply a GPO to the ABC_SALES OU to apply the auditing settings.
Audit Object Access
A user accesses an operating system element such as a file, folder, or registry key. To audit elements like these, you must enable this policy and you must enable auditing on the resource that you want to monitor. For example, to audit user accesses of a particular file or folder, you display its Properties dialog box with the Security tab active, navigate to the Auditing tab in the Advanced Security Settings dialog box for that file or folder, and then add the users or groups whose access to that file or folder you want to audit.

Reference:
Craig Zacker, MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (Exam 70-293): Planning and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, Chapters 9 and 10

Question 10.
You are working as an administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ABC.com which contains Windows Server 2003 servers Windows XP Professional client computers. You want to improve network security and need to pinpoint all computers that have the known vulnerabilities. 

What should you do to automate the process of collecting information on existing vulnerabilities for each computer, on a nightly basis?

A. By scheduling secedit to compare the security settings with a baseline and run on a nightly 
    basis.
B. By installing Anti-Virus software on the computers and configuring the software to update on a  
    nightly basis.
C. By configuring a scheduled task to run the mbsacli utility on a nightly basis.
D. By having Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) installed on a server on the network.
E. By configuring Automatic Updates to use a local SUS server and run on a nightly basis.
F. You configuring Automatic Updates to run on a nightly basis and use the Microsoft Updates  
    servers.

Answer: C

Explanation: 
We can schedule the mbsacli.exe command to periodically scan for security vulnerabilities.
Reference:
Martin Grasdal, Laura E. Hunter, Michael Cross, Laura Hunter, Debra Littlejohn Shinder, and Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Planning and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure: Exam 70-293 Study Guide & DVD Training System, Syngress Publishing, Inc., Rockland, MA, Chapter 11, p. 830

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Braindumps for "642-481" Exam

Cisco Rich Media Communications

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: B

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: 
Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence
Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3:three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for 
    three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide 
    the number of required services.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. 

Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: B

Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. 

Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. 

Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: A

Question 6.
Exhibit:
 

CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. 

In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?

A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 
    kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 
    kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 
    kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.

Answer: C

Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. 

What should this company purchase?

A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)

A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768

Answer: C

Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?

A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing

Answer: A

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Braindumps for "642-825" Exam

Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks

 Question 1.
A few small ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN.

Which HFC cable network statement is true about the downstream data channel to the customer and the upstream data channel to the service provider?

A. The upstream data path is assigned a channel in a higher frequency range than the 
    downstream path has.
B. The downstream data path is assigned a 30 MHz channel and the upstream data path is 
    assigned a 1 MHz channel.
C. The downstream data path is assigned a fixed bandwidth channel and the upstream data path 
    uses a variable bandwidth channel.
D. Both upstream and downstream data paths are assigned in 6 MHz channels.
E. None of the above.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring. 

Downstream: An RF signal transmission (TV channels, data) from source (headend) to the destination (subscribers). Downstream is also called a forward path.
Upstream: An RF signal transmission opposite to downstream-from subscribers to the headend. Upstream is also called a return or reverse path.
Delivering services over a cable network requires different RF frequencies-the outgoing frequencies are in the 50-to-860 MHz range, the incoming are in the 5-to-42 MHz range. To deliver data services over a cable network TV channels which usually operate at 6 MHz range for the downstream, and 6 MHz or less (for asymmetric cable connections) for upstream traffic from the corresponding frequency range are usually used.

Question 2.
Many small ITCertKeys branch offices use broadband cable for data connection access. 

Which three modulation signaling standards are used in broadband cable technology? (Select three)

A. S-Video
B. NTSC
C. SECAM
D. PAL
E. FEC
F. FDM
G. MLP

Answer: B, C, D

Explanation:
Broadband: Data transmission where multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously to increase the effective rate of transmission. In cable systems, the term broadband refers to the frequency-division multiplexing (FDM) of many signals in a wide radio frequency (RF) bandwidth over an HFC network, and the capability to handle vast amounts of information. NTSC is a North American TV technical standard for analog TV systems. The standard was created in 1941 and is named after the National Television System Committee formed in 1940. The standard uses a 6-MHz modulated signal. PAL is a color encoding system used in broadcast television systems in most of Europe, Asia, Africa, Australia, Brazil, and Argentina, and uses a 6-MHz, 7-MHz, or 8-MHz modulated signal. The color difference signals an alternate phase at the horizontal line rate. SECAM is an analog color TV system used in France and certain Eastern European countries that uses an 8-MHz modulated signal.

Question 3.
Some of the smaller ITCertKeys locations use HFC cable to connect to the ITCertKeys WAN. 

Which two statements are true about broadband cable (HFC) systems? (Select two)

A. Cable modems operate at Layers 1, 2, and 3 of the OSI model.
B. Cable modems operate at Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model.
C. A function of the cable modem termination system is to convert the digital data stream from the 
    end user host into a modulated RF signal for transmission onto the cable system.
D. Cable modems only operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
E. A function of the cable modem termination system (CMTS) is to convert the modulated signal 
    from the cable modem into a digital signal.

Answer: B, E

Explanation:
Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC): A mixed optical-coaxial network in which optical fiber replaces some or all of the traditional trunk portion of the cable network. The HFC architecture is the evolution of an initial cable system and signifies a network that incorporates both optical fiber along with coaxial cable to create a broadband network. By upgrading a cable plant to an HFC architecture, you can deploy a data network over an HFC system to offer high-speed Internet services and you can serve more subscribers. The cable network is segmented into smaller service areas in which fewer amplifiers are cascaded after each optical node-typically five or fewer. The tree-and-branch network architecture for HFC can be a fiber backbone, cable area network, superdistribution, fiber to the feeder, or a ring.

Question 4.
A ITCertKeys remote user is getting Internet access from the local cable provider. 

When an individual is connected to the Internet by way of a CATV cable service, what kind of traffic is considered upstream traffic?

A. Traffic going from the user's home traveling to the headend.
B. Broadcast traffic, including the cable TV signals.
C. Traffic between the headend and the TV signal.
D. Traffic between the headend and the supplier antenna.
E. Traffic from outside the local cable segment serving the user's home.
F. All of the above can be considered upstream

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the CATV space, the downstream channels in a cable plant (cable head-end to subscribers) is a point-to-multipoint channel. This does have very similar characteristics to transmitting over an Ethernet segment where one transmitter is being listened to by many receivers. The major difference is that base-band modulation has been replaced by a more densely modulated RF carrier with very sophisticated adaptive signal processing and forward error correction (FEC). In the upstream direction (subscriber cable modems transmitting towards the head-end) the environment is many transmitters and one receiver. This introduces the need for precise scheduling of packet transmissions to achieve high utilization and precise power control so as to not overdrive the receiver or other amplifier electronics in the cable system. Since the upstream direction is like a single receiver with many antennas, the channels are much more susceptible to interfering noise products. In the cable industry, we generally call this ingress noise. As ingress noise is an inherent part of CATV plants, the observable impact is an unfortunate rise in the average noise floor in the upstream channel. To overcome this noise jungle, upstream modulation is not as dense as in the downstream and we have to use more effective FEC as used in the downstream. 

Reference: 
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/759/ipj_1-3/ipj_1-3_catv.html

Question 5.
A new cable modem was shipped to the home of a ITCertKeys user, where it is being installed for the first time. 

When a DOCSIS 1.1 compliant cable modem first initializes, (boots up) what does it do?

A. Establishes IP connectivity (DHCP).
B. Determines the time of day.
C. Requests a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. Scan for a downstream channel and the establishment of timing synchronization with the 
    CMTS.
E. None of the above.

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed.

References: 
Page 225 of the CCNP Self-Study BCRAN (642-821) ISBN: 1-58720-084-8
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/cable/ps2217/products_feature_guide_chapter09186a008019b57f.htm

Question 6.
You are building a small network at your home and you intend on connecting your cable modem to a Cisco router.

Which router interface would you connect the modem to?

A. Synchronous serial
B. Asynchronous serial
C. Ethernet
D. auxiliary
E. BRI

Answer: C

Explanation:
In certain environments where a non Cisco Cable Modem (CM) is used, and the CM is only capable of bridging, a Cisco router such as the Cisco 806 can be connected to the Cable Modem via the Ethernet interface. The routing can then be performed by the Cisco router behind the Cable Modem and the Client PC or Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) will be connected to the Cisco router. Network Address Translation (NAT) can  then be configured on the Cisco router.

When the Cisco router is connected behind the Cable Modem the first problem that might be encountered is not obtaining an IP address dynamically on the Cisco router's Ethernet interface. Most Internet Service Providers (ISPs) allow only one host or PC behind the Cable Modem. Some ISPs assign an IP address to the PC based on the host name. Therefore, if you have a Cisco router behind the Cable Modem, then the host name for the router configured using the hostname command should be the same host name given by the ISP.
Example:
 

Question 7.
When a cable modem is being provisioned to operate with a host system for Internet services, which two options must occur before Layer 1 and 2 connectivity can occur? (Choose two)

A. The cable modem must request an IP address and core configuration information from a 
    Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server.
B. The cable modem powering up must scan and lock on the RF data channel in the downstream 
    path.
C. The modem must request a DOCSIS configuration file from a TFTP server.
D. The cable modem must register with the CMTS.
E. The modem must read specific maintenance messages in the downstream path.

Answer: B, E

Explanation:
According to the DOCSIS (Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications) when you first power up a cable modem it starts scanning (starting at a low frequency) for a cable signal. When it 'hears' a cable modem stream it listens for a broadcast (from the service provider) which contains information (ie. frequency) needed to talk back with the head end. It then 'talks back' and if it communicates the right authentication information, it is allowed to proceed. Once these steps are completed, layers 1 and 2 will be operational.

Question 8.
How is cable broadband technology able to transmit downstream and upstream data while at the same time delivering television content?

A. The cable operator uses the VHF hyperband to transmit and receive data signals.
B. The cable operator assigns any available spectrum to data, depending on how its own 
    television spectrum is being used.
C. The cable operator uses specific bandwidths for data signals specified by DOCSIS.
D. The cable operator places its data signals into clean areas where there is no interference from 
    noise or other signals.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Developed by CableLabs and approved by the ITU in March 1998, Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) defines interface standards for cable modems and supporting equipment. In a cable TV system, signals from the various channels are each given a 6-MHz slice of the cable's available bandwidth and then sent down the cable to your house. In some systems, coaxial cable is the only medium used for distributing signals.
 

When a cable company offers Internet access over the cable, Internet information can use the same cables because the cable modem system puts downstream data -- data sent from the Internet to an individual computer -- into a 6-MHz channel. On the cable, the data looks just like a TV channel. So Internet downstream data takes up the same amount of cable space as any single channel of programming. Upstream data -- information sent from an individual back to the Internet -- requires even less of the cable's bandwidth, just 2 MHz, since the assumption is that most people download far more information than they upload.

Question 9.
ITCertKeys operates a DSL network. What does the "dsl operating-mode auto" command configure on a Cisco router?

A. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper modulation method to use when 
    connecting an ATM interface.
B. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper DSL type (ADSL, IDSL, HDSL, 
    VDSL) to use when connecting an ATM interface.
C. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper encapsulation method to use 
    when connecting an ATM interface.
D. It configures a Cisco router to automatically detect the proper authentication method to use 
    when connecting an ATM interface.
E. None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
dsloperating-mode auto interface configuration command to specify that the router automatically detect the DSL modulation that the service provider is using and set the DSL modulation to match. An incompatible DSL modulation configuration can result in failure to establish a DSL connection to the DSLAM of the service provider
Example:
 

Question 10.
ITCertKeys is a DSL service provider using providing xDSL to its customers. 

Which statement about xDSL implementations is true?

A. All xDSL standards operate in lower frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore 
    coexist on the same media.
B. Other than providing higher data rates, HDSL is identical to ADSL.
C. The ADSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore 
    coexist on the same media.
D. The HDSL standard operates in higher frequencies than the POTS system and can therefore 
    coexist on the same media.
E. All xDSL standards operate in higher frequencies than the POTS system and therefore can 
    coexist on the same media.
F. None of the above.

Answer: C

Explanation:
DSL is not a complete end-to-end solution, but rather a physical layer transmission technology similar to dial, cable, or wireless. DSL connections are deployed in the "last mile" of a local telephone network-the local loop. The connection is set up between a pair of modems on either end of a copper wire extending between the customer premises equipment (CPE) and the DSL access multiplexer (DSLAM). A DSLAM is the device located at the central office (CO) of the provider and concentrates connections from multiple DSL subscribers. The term xDSL covers a number of DSL variations, such as ADSL, high-data-rate DSL (HDSL), Rate Adaptive DSL (RADSL), symmetric DSL (SDSL), ISDN DSL (IDSL), and very-high-data-rate DSL (VDSL). DSL types not using the voice frequencies band allow DSL lines to carry both data and voice signals simultaneously (for example, ADSL and VDSL), while other DSL types occupying the complete frequency range can carry data only (for example, SDSL and IDSL). Data service provided by a DSL connection is always-on. The data rate that DSL service can provide depends upon the distance between the subscriber and the CO. The smaller the distance, the higher data rate can be achieved. If close enough to a CO offering DSL service, the subscriber might be able to receive data at rates of up to 6.1 Mbps out of a theoretical 8.448 Mbps maximum.

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Braindumps for "642-961" Exam

Cisco Data Center Networking Infrastructure Solutions design

 Question 1.
ITCertKeys.com wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. 

What must be configured?

A. individual security level for each department
B. separate ACL group for each department
C. distinct VLAN for each department
D. unique firewall context for each department

Answer: D

Question 2.
Exhibit:
 
You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. ITCertKeysA, ITCertKeysB, C, and ITCertKeys4 each represents a model for placement of a default gateway. 

Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?

A. model ITCertKeysB
B. model C
C. model ITCertKeysA
D. model ITCertKeysD

Answer: B

Question 3.
Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer?

A. IP spoofing
B. MAC address spoofing
C. port scans
D. DDoS attacks

Answer: D

Question 4.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. 

Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs?

A. looped triangle
B. loop-free inverted U
C. loop-free U
D. looped square

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which type of HPC application requires low latency?

A. financial analytics
B. seismic and geophysical modeling
C. digital image rendering
D. finite element analysis

Answer: D

Question 6.
Which statement best describes the data center core layer?

A. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric
B. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers
C. is typically merged with the campus core layer
D. connects to the campus aggregation layer

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies?

A. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller
B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger
C. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller
D. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger

Answer: B

Question 8.
What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments?

A. simpler cabling
B. longer distance support
C. more sophisticated traffic management
D. lower latency

Answer: D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

You work as a network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. You study the exhibit carefully. 

Where is Layer 2 adjacency required?

A. server-to-server only
B. aggregation-to-access only
C. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server
D. access-to-server only

Answer: D

Question 10.
According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the data center core layer?

A. prefix filtering
B. Dynamic ARP Inspection
C. traffic rate limiting
D. control plane protection

Answer: D

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Braindumps for "1Z0-032" Exam

Oracle9i: Database Fundamentals II

 Question 1.
What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?

A. The filename format.
B. Information stored inside a data dictionary table.
C. Information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance.
D. Information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Oracle will use naming conventions when it creates the OMF files. In this naming convention, %t represents the tablespace name, %u is a unique 8-character string, and %g stands for the redo log group number.

Incorrect Answers
B: Oracle will create a locally managed tablespaces, so information about a datafile will not be stored inside a data dictionary table.
C: Oracle does not use ALERT.LOG file to store information about datafiles. It just keep log of database events and database structure changes.
D: Initialization parameter file will not be used to store this information. Oracle reads this file to set initialization parameters to start the instance. The structure of the database is stored inside control files. Oracle uses them to mount and open the database. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 153-160 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 2-12
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 2.
Oracle9i extends the cursor sharing functionality with the new value of SIMILAR for the CURSOR_SHARING parameter. With CURSOR_SHARING = SIMILAR, cursors are shared for safe literals only. 

What is meant by 'safe literals only'?

A. No literal value is substituted for a shared cursor.
B. Different execution plans are generated for substituted literal values.
C. The substitution of a literal value will produce different execution plans.
D. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Oracle9i has enhanced cursor sharing mode. It can use additional value, SIMILAR, in addition to the EXACT and FORCE cursor sharing modes. When you specify SIMILAR, Oracle only uses the execution plan if is certain that the execution plan does not have any association with the specific literal value. You can enable similar statements to share the same SQL execution plan by setting CURSOR_SHARING to either FORCE or SIMILAR.

Incorrect Answers
A: Literal value is substituted for a shared cursor. The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan.
B: Exactly the same execution plans will be generated for substituted literal values.
C: The substitution of any literal value will produce exactly the same execution plan. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 215-217
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 57-59
Chapter 2: Oracle9i Architecture Changes

Question 3.
The Dynamic SGA feature allows the SGA to grow and shrink dynamically according to an ALTER SYSTEM command. This avoids the previous need of shutting down the instance in order to modify the components of the SGA, namely the buffer cache and shared pool components.

Which three statements are true for the Dynamic SGA feature? (Choose three)

A. The maximum granule size is 4 MB.
B. The minimum SGA configuration is three granules.
C. SGA memory is based on granules by SGA components.
D. The size of the SGA components is set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.
E. The size of the SGA components is limited by the setting of SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter.

Answer: B, C, E

Explanation:
The minimum SGA configuration is three granules. One is for fixed SGA, one for database buffer, one for shared pool. Oracle9i has enhanced the nature of SGA parameters; they are now dynamic. You can change the values of the shared pool and the buffer cache without restarting the database instance. The Oracle9i dynamic SGA concept enables you to take memory from one area of the SGA and allocate it to another area as needed while the database instance is up and running. Additionally, the unit of memory allocation fr SGA is a granule in Oracle9i. Oracle9i also introduces SGA_MAX_SIZE, a new static parameter that enables the DBA to start with a smaller SGA and dynamically increase it to the maximum value specified by SGA_MAX_SIZE. If you do not set SGA_MAX_SIZE or if you set it to a value less than initial SGA size, you cannot increase the SGA size later.

Incorrect Answers
A: The size of a granule is 4 MB if the SGA at startup is less than 128 MB; it will be 16 MB otherwise.
D: The size of the SGA components is not set by the SGA_MAX_SIZE parameter. This parameter is just maximum limit for sum of the SGA components. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 180-182 
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 16-17
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 4.
There is more than one way to set the server to detect and affect long running operations automatically. 

What is the best choice of you want to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations?

A. Define user profiles and set the CPU_PER_CALL limit.
B. Define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager.
C. Create a batch job that checks V$SESSION_LONGOPS; the batch job alters the session 
    priority of the long running operations.
D. Create a user defined event in the Oracle Enterprise Manager, which monitors 
    V$SESSION_LONGOPS.

Answer: B

Explanation:
You can define a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager to reduce the impact of long running operations on other users without aborting the long running operations.

Incorrect Answers
A: You cannot do this with CPU_PER_CALL limit.
C: You don't need to use a batch job to check V$SESSION_LONGOPS for this purpose.
D: It can be done with a SWITCH_TIME for a plan in the Resource Manager, you don't need to monitor V$SESSION_LONGOPS.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 122-129 Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements

Question 5.
What are three benefits of performing data definition language (DDL) statements against a partitioned table with the UPDATE GLOBAL INDEXES clause? (Choose three)

A. Global indexes are rebuilt automatically at the end of the DDL operation thereby avoiding problems with the UNUSABLE status.
B. You do not have to search for invalid global indexes after the DDL command completes and rebuild them individually.
C. Global indexes are maintained during the operation of the DDL command and therefore can be used by any concurrent query.
D. Global indexes remain intact and available for use by data manipulation language (DML) statements even for sessions that have not enabled the skipping of unusable indexes.

Answer: A, B, D

Explanation:
Oracle9i overcomes the problem of rebuilding the global index by giving you the option to update global indexes as Oracle performs the partition DDL. This feature is not applicable to local indexes, domain indexes, index-organized tables (IOTs), or to indexes that were UNUSABLE prior to start of the partition DML. You can invoke this capability by using the optional clause UPDATE GLOBAL INDEX of the ALTER TABLE command. You can use this clause with the ADD, COALESCE, DROP, EXCHANGE, MERGE, MOVE, SPLIT, and TRUNCATE partition DDL commands.

Incorrect Answers
C: Global indexes are not maintained during the operation of the DDL command. OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 130-131
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 102-107
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features

Question 6.
Which statement correctly describes the function of Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature?

A. It provides each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
B. It enables you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to 
    partition the users or the database tables.
C. It lets you dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer 
    sizes.
D. It allows you to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the 
    master definition site.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Oracle9i Cache Fusion allows you to execute scalable applications on a clustered database without having to partition the users or the database tables.

Incorrect Answers
A: It does not provide each session with its own view of the database at a different point in the past.
C: The Oracle9i Cache Fusion feature does not dynamically reassign memory in your database buffer cache to different block buffer sizes.
D: It does not provide you ability to add new sites to multimaster replication environment without quiescing the master definition site. 
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 223-230
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 193-206
Chapter 7: Oracle9i Real Application Clusters

Question 7.
What is true if you want to switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2?

A. It is NOT possible to switch unless no active transaction exist in UNDO1.
B. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; but current active transactions will abort.
C. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; current active transactions will be automatically migrated to 
    UNDO2.
D. It is possible to switch to UNDO2; only current active transactions will continue to execute 
    inside UNDO1.

Answer: D

Explanation:
You can switch undo tablespaces from the current one, called UNDO1, to a new one called UNDO2. Only current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1, all new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.

Incorrect Answers
A: You can switch undo tablespaces while active transactions will run in the old undo tablespace. All new transactions will be assigned to the new undo tablespace.
B: Current active transactions will abort if you switched undo tablespaces.
C: Current active transactions will continue to execute inside UNDO1 till they commit or roll back. They will not be automatically migrated to UNDO2.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 160-166
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 19-25
Chapter 1: Oracle9i Database Administration and Management Features

Question 8.
Examine the list of variables and their data types:
NAME DATA Type
TS, TS1 TIMESTAMP
TSZ TIMESTAMP WITH TIME ZONE
TLZ TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
IYM INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
IDS, IDSI INTERVAL YEAR To SECOND

Which three expressions using the new data and time data types are valid? (Choose three)

A. IDS* 2
B. TS + IYM
C. TS -TSI
D. IDS - TS
E. IDS + IYM

Answer: A, B, E

Explanation:
IDS*2, TS+IYM and IDS+IYM are valid new date and time data types.

Incorrect Answers
C: You cannot subtract timestamps.
D: It's not possible to subtract timestamp from the interval day to second. 
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 266-271
Chapter 5: Language Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 132-135
Chapter 5: Miscellaneous Oracle9i Features and Enhancements

Question 9.
Consider the following statement:
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SHEMA_STATS (-
2> ownname => 'OE', -
3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, -
4> method opt => 'for all columns size AUTO');

What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the METHOD_OPT option?

A. The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all 
     table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
B. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the 
    application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data and application usage of the column/s 
    for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D. The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data 
    distribution, for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.

Incorrect Answers
A: The Oracle server does not create a new histogram based on existing histogram.
B: Histogram creation is not regardless of how the application uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D: The Oracle server creates a histogram not only based on application usage, but based on data distribution also.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 220-222 
Chapter 4: Performance and Scalability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 180-181
Chapter 6: Oracle9i SQL, PL/SQL New Features

Question 10.
Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two)

A. External tables can be updated.
B. External tables are read-only tables.
C. Indexes can be created on external tables.
D. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.

Answer: B, D

Explanation:
External tables are read-only tables whose data resides in an external OS flat file, and whose definition is stored inside the database. Indexes cannot be created on external tables.

Incorrect Answers
A: External tables cannot be updated. They are read-only tables.
C: Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
OCP Oracle9i Database: New Features for Administrators, Daniel Benjamin, p. 131-134
Chapter 3: Manageability Enhancements
Oracle 9i New Features, Robert Freeman, p. 111-116
Chapter 4: New Oracle9i Database DDS and Data-Warehouse Features

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