|
I passed with 70%, itcertkeys provide us great material.Question 1.
John wishes TO HAVE THE domino 6/6.5 Web server receive a URL request that matches a particular pattern. He then wants to map a file-system path to that pattern.
Which one of the following types of web rule would he create?
A. Directory
B. Redirection
C. Substitution
D. HTTP Response Header
Answer: A
Question 2.
A user sends a search request to server A, but some of the search hits are actually located in a database on server B. Which one of the following must be configured for server A to generate the HTML for the search results page to point to server B?
A. The " Search results URL" field in the server document.
B. The " Search results URL" field in the domain document.
C. The "Generating references to the Web server" field in the server document.
D. The "Generating references to the Web server" field in the domain document.
Answer: C
Question 3.
When you install a Domino 6 Webserver, several file-resource directories are created automatically. Which directories are created?
A. CGI, HTML and Icon directories
B. Bin Database and HTML directories
C. CGI Database and Icon directories
D. HTML Icon and Database directories
Answer: A
Question 4.
James is converting his Domino 5 Web Server Configurations to Domino internet SITES.
In Domino 5, he utilized virtual server documents. Which one of the following is the Domino 6/6.5 equivalent?
A. Rule
B. File Protection
C. Web Site document
D. Authentication Realm
Answer: B
Question 5.
Alyssa, the Domino administrator wishes to restrict web agents from running indefinitely on a Domino server. In which one of the following fields is this value configured?
A. Web agent timeout
B. Run web agent concurrently
C. Persistent connection timeout
D. Run unrestricted methods and operations
Answer: A
Question 6.
Emily, the Domino administrator is enabling webDav for the first time. What HTTP method are enabled by default?
A. GET,PLAC,HEAD,RETRIEVE
B. GET,OPTIONS, REMOVE,REPLACE
C. PUT,REPLACE, REMOVE, RETRIEVE
D. GET, HEAD, OPTIONS, POST, TRACE
Answer: D
|
Question 1.
The NAS is configured to autogenerate an IP address pool of 30 subnets with a netmask of /30, beginning at address 192.166.10.0.
Which IP address is leased to the end-user host on the second subnet?
A. 192.166.10.4
B. 192.166.10.5
C. 192.166.10.6
D. 192.166.10.7
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which derault administrator group has delete permissions?
A. admin
B. help-desk
C. add-edit
D. full-control
Answer: D
Question 3.
What is the result when the condition statement in a Cisco NAA check for required software evaluates to false on a client machine?
A. The required software is automatically downloaded to the user device.
B. The required software is made available after the user is quarantined.
C. The user is put in the unauthenticated role and the software is considered missing.
D. The user is placed in the temporary role and the software is made available.
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which three components comprise a Cisco NAC Appliance solution? (Choose three.)
A. a NAC-enabled Cisco router
B. a Linux server for in-band or out-of-band network admission control
C. a Linux server for centralized management of network admission servers
D. a Cisco router to provide VPN services
E. a read-only client operating on an endpoint device
F. a NAC-enabled Cisco switch
Answer: B, C, E
Question 5.
Drag the default username from the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
Question 6.
Drag each feature of a Cisco NAC Appliance solution from the left to its correct benefit on the right.
Answer:
Question 7.
When configuring the Cisco NAM to implement Cisco NAA requirement checking on client machines, what is the next step after configuring checks and rules?
A. retrieve updates
B. require the use of the Cisco NAA
C. configure session timeout and traffic policies
D. map rules to requirement
E. configure requirements
Answer: E
Question 8.
When logging in to a Cisco NAC Appliance solution, an end user is prompted for a username, password, and provider.
What should be entered in the Provider drop-down field shown in the exhibit?
A. the authenticating NAS
B. the authorizing NAM
C. the name of the ISP
D. the external authenticating server
Answer: D
Question 9.
What are the two types of traffic policies that apply to user roles? (Choose two.)
A. IP-based
B. peer-based
C. host-based
D. manager-based
E. server-based
F. VLAN-based
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
After you implement a network scan and view the report, you notice that a plug-in did not access any of its dependent plug-ins.
What did you forget to do?
A. enable the Dependent Plug-in check box on the General Tab form
B. configure dependent plug-in support when you mapped the Nessus scan check to the Nessus
plug-in rule
C. install dependent plug-ins when you updated the Cisco NAC Appliance plug-in library
D. load the dependent plug-ins for that plug-in in the Plug-in Updates form
Answer: D
|
Question 2. According to the ITIL® v3 framework, what triggers an incident? A. whenever a severity 3 incident is closed B. when the problem is identified as urgent C. when a problem is discovered during a change window D. when an outage is called into a service center Answer: D Question 3. According to the ITIL® v3 framework, what is the primary reason for implementing SLAs? A. Ensure accurate measurement of response times. B. Establish an open line of communication between the customer and the service provider C. Reduce network latency. D. Provide a legal contract between the customer and the service provider. Answer: D Question 4. Each syslog message has a numerical severity level assigned to generate error messages about software or hardware malfunctions. Which of these messages has the highest numeric severity level? A. Error B. Emergency C. Debug D. Critical E. Alert Answer: C Question 5. Which three of these methods can you use to back up a configuration running Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2 Mainline? (Choose three) A. SNMP B. SFTP C. TFTP D. KRON E. SSH Answer: A, C, E Question 6. A router is causing problems in the network and you want to capture as much information as you can before you manually reload or power-cycle the router. What command would you type at the CLI of the router to capture information that would be lost when the router is rebooted? A. showcrashinfo B. show syslog C. show tech-support D. show stacks E. show memory Answer: C Question 7. Which three steps are best practices in accurately documenting a network? (Choose three). A. Document separate Layer 2 and Layer 3 topologies. B. Document Layer 3 topology to include all switches and routers. C. Clearly document the port identifiers on all of the links. D. Clearly depict different routing domains with appropriate information such as the routing protocol and process number. E. Avoid defining router-id commands and loopbacks in the router label. F. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams. Answer: A, C, D Question 8. Which three steps would you use to troubleshoot a performance-related problem in the network core? (Choose three.) A. define problem B. analyze problem C. determine affected users D. create action plan E. verify service-level requirements Answer: B, C, E Question 9. Which two steps are best practices to be followed while documenting a network. (Choose two.) A. Use proper icons for different devices in the network. B. Use different colors and widths for denoting different links of different bandwidth. C. Use same icons for all types of routers and switches in the network. D. Avoid defining the router-id in the router label. E. Use connectivity details of all layers of the OSI model in diagrams. Answer: A, B Question 10. What is the advantage of using a passive monitoring technique? A. does not require continuous measurement of traffic types B. measures application-specific parameters per traffic classes C. identifies issues and bottlenecks before they occur D. no interference with live traffic Answer: D Question 11. The command below was executed on a Cisco 12000 Series Router running Cisco IOS XR. Which statement is true about the output of the command? A. 71.44.1.66 is an IP address local to the router. B. OSPF is not running on this router. C. There are no static routes in the routing table. D. The last route entry for Loopback causes routing loops Answer: C
|
Question 1. Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network. Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network? A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take B. Hubs can filter frames C. Switches do not forward broadcasts D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts F. None of the above Answer: D Explanation: The biggest benefit of using switches instead of hubs in your internetwork is that each switch port is actually its own collision domain. (Conversely, a hub creates one large collision domain.) But even armed with a switch, you still can't break up broadcast domains. Neither switches nor bridges will do that. They'll typically simply forward all broadcasts instead. Switch creates the collision domain per port, so we can say switch increase the number of collision domains. Question 2. Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches? A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability. C. Switches can not forward broadcasts. D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames. E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network. Answer: E Explanation: Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network. Incorrect Answers: A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not. B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a network. C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN. Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default. D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice, switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub. Question 3. When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices) A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports. B. A switch is a multiport bridge, C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received. D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not. E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain. F. None of the above statements are true. Answer: B, C Explanation: Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame. Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch. Incorrect Answers: A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports than switches. D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic remains in the same VLAN. E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating additional, smaller collision domains. Question 4. Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices) A. Packet switching B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment. C. Packet filtering D. Broadcast domain enlargement E. Broadcast forwarding F. Internetwork communication G. None of the above Answer: A, C, F Explanation: The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct. Incorrect Answers: B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment. D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains. E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default. Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the router level. Question 5. The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeysCorporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network. Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.) A. A switch B. A router C. A network adapter card D. A hub E. A repeater Answer: D, E Explanation: A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN. Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances. Question 6. Cisco is the leader in the router market space. What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two) A. The microsegmentation of broadcast domains B. Path selection C. Packet switching D. Bridging between LAN segments E. Access layer security F. VLAN membership assignment G. Application optimization Answer: B, C Explanation: The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible. Question 7. Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3) A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based. B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges. C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches. D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains. E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts. F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses. Answer: B, E, F Question 8. As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three) A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop. B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device. C. A modem terminates an analog local loop. D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device. E. A modem terminates a digital local loop. F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop. G. A modem is used to terminate a T1 Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Layer 2 switching is considered hardware-based bridging because it uses specialized hardware called an application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC). ASICs can run up to gigabit speeds with very low latency rates. Switches usually have higher port number then bridge. Generally bridges have two ports. Both operates on Data link layer. Question 9. The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network. What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two) A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses E. Decreasing the number of collision domains Answer: A, D Explanation: A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time. D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets. Question 10. CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network. What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two) A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers G. To support automatic network failover during outages Answer: B, D Explanation: Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices, which is useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network. You can use: Show cdp neighbor Show cdp neighbor details Commands to gather the information of connected neighbors.
|
Question 1. In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover? A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 60 seconds Answer: D Question 2. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.) A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity C. Problem alerts for operations personnel D. User Tracking to track IP telephones E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources Answer: A, C Question 3. Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails? A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile. B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports. C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address. D. No special configuration is needed. Answer: C Question 4. What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives? A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager. B. Caller will receive ringing treatment. C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed. D. Caller will receive network busy treatment. E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow. Answer: A Question 5. Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing? A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected Answer: A Question 6. Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.) A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option Answer: A, C Question 7. In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group? A. CRS CTI Route Point B. CTI Ports C. CRS Call Control Group D. Communications Manager Call Control Group Answer: B Question 8. How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used? A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc. B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step. C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified. D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server. Answer: C Question 9. Where do you enable the CRS engine? A. Cluster Setup page B. Server Setup page C. Publisher Activation page D. Component Activation page Answer: D Question 10. An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent's CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability? A. IPCC Express Premium B. IP IVR C. IPCC Express Standard D. IPCC Express Enhanced E. IPCC Enterprise Answer: D
|
Question 1. Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system? A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of security products. B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP Open View to lower the cost of implementation. C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch. D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" Basis to reduce management overhead. E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the return on investment. Answer: A Question 2. DRAG DROP Drop Answer: Question 3. Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer? A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution B. determining what end-user training a customer requires C. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco technologies to meet business requirements D. addressing a customer's physical requirements Answer: C Question 4. What are two important approaches to communicate when identifying a customer's security risks? (Choose two.) A. Security should be a continuous process. B. Security solutions should come from multiple vendors to make it easier to coordinate security events from the point of origin. C. The designated security expert should report to the IT department, since that is where the solution will be implemented. D. Business strategy should directly relate to the security policy and budget. E. Smaller companies are at less risk than larger enterprises, so their security needs are not as great. Answer: A, D Question 5. Which of the following best describe the customer benefit of creating a systems acceptance test plan in the design phase? A. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and Efficient set of processes B. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system C. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on Its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy D. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements Answer: D Question 6. A Cisco Catalyst switch can belong to how many VTP domains? A. 2 B. 1 to 4,096 C. 1 D. 1 to 1,005 E. no limit Answer: C Question 7. The Cisco ASA Security Appliance can offer the benefit of integrating which three security services into one device? (Choose three.) A. PIX firewall B. VPN Concentrator C. IPS D. DDoS Anomaly Guard and Detector E. CSA MC F. ACS server Answer: A, B, C Question 8. A customer has deployed a wireless core feature set using autonomous access points and now wants to include a satellite building 4,500 feet away from the main campus. The customer also wants to provide wireless access to a courtyard for wireless clients in close proximity to the antenna mounting position. Which Cisco Aironet product is the most applicable solution? A. Cisco Aironet 1000 Series B. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series C. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series D. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series E. Cisco Aironet 1200 Series Answer: B Question 9. What is one benefit of the Cisco anti-X defense strategy? A. virtual firewall protection B. malware, virus, and worm mitigation C. applications security D. security events correlation for proactive response Answer: B Question 10. Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of Cisco's wireless IDS functionality? (Choose two.) A. Autonomous APs must be dedicated IDS sensors while lightweight APs can combine client traffic and RF monitoring. B. Cisco or CCX compatible client cards can extend the RF IDS service for autonomous APs. C. 2.4GHz RF management can monitor both 802.11 and non-802.11 RF interference. D. APs only monitor the RF channels that are servicing the clients. E. AirDefense for wireless IDS is required by autonomous APs. Answer: B, C
|
Question 1. Which of the following best describe the customer benefits of change management in the operate phase? A. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements B. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy C. reduce operating costs and limit change. related incidents by providing a consistent and efficient set of processes D. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system Answer: C Question 2. Which of these is the best definition of the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? A. It defines the minimum set of services required to successfully deploy and operate a set of Cisco technologies. B. It determines how best to price Cisco products. C. It provides partners with a useful way to leverage Cisco resources. D. It consists of these phases: plan, deploy, support, and troubleshoot. Answer: A Question 3. What two types of telephony interfaces are used for PSTN connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Digital B. Optical C. Analog D. CDMA Answer: A, C Question 4. Which statement correctly describes the keys witch model of deployment for call processing? A. All IP Phones are able to answer any incoming PSTN call on any line B. PSTN calls are routed through a receptionist or automated attendant. C. All IP Phones in the system have a single unique extension number. Answer: A Question 5. Which definition best describes the implementation service component within the implement phase? A. providing a step-by-step plan that details the installation and service. commission tasks required in order to create a controlled. implementation environment that emulates a customer network B. assessing the ability of site facilities to accommodate proposed infrastructure changes C. developing and executing proof-of-concept tests, validating high-level infrastructure design, and identifying any design enhancements D. Installing, configuring and integrating systems components based on an implementation plan developed in earlier phases E. improving a customer's infrastructure security system Answer: D Question 6. A customer with a small enterprise network of 15 remote sites is trying to optimize its VPN by migrating some remote sites using Frame Relay connections to the Internet to using cable connections to the Internet. Minimizing costs is one of the customer's highest priorities. Only a moderate amount of IP traffic is passing through the network, most of which is from the remote sites to the central site. IPSec should be used to provide VPN functionality and basic confidentiality is desired. Based on the traffic patterns, which topology would be the easiest for this customer to set up and manage? A. full mesh B. partial mesh C. point-to-multipoint D. huB. anD.spoke Answer: D Question 7. How can the proper configuration of Voice Mail be tested at an end user's IP phone? A. Press the "i" button. B. Press the "Settings" button. C. Press the "Services" button. D. Press the "Messages" button Answer: D Question 8. In what location is it recommended that the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WLSM be placed? A. distribution layer B. core layer C. access layer D. network management functional module Answer: A Question 9. Which of these is an accurate list of Cisco Lifecycle Services phases? A. initiation, planning, analysis, design, development, implementation, operations and maintenance B. project planning, site assessment, risk assessment, solution selection and acquisition, testing, and operations C. Prepare, plan design implement operate, and optimize D. analysis, design, deployment, testing, implementation, and production I E. presales, project planning, development, implementation, operations testing, and operations signoff Answer: C Question 10. What port role assignment would you make for the Gigabit Ethernet port on the Cisco CE520 used in the Smart Business Communications System? A. IP Phone and desktop B. Cisco UC520 C. Cisco CE520 D. Cisco 871W Answer: B
|
Question 1. LSC validation is failing on a new SCCP IP phone that you have just added to the Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 cluster. No other IP phones are experiencing any problems with LSC validation. What can you do to help pinpoint the problem? A. Check for security alarms B. Verify that the authentication string is correct in the Cisco Unified CallManager device configuration screen C. View the SDI trace output D. Use the Security configuration menu on the IP phone to verify that an LSC has been downloaded to the IP phone Answer: D Question 2. Which three capabilities can't be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.) A. Set preference to 1 B. Invoke a Tcl application C. Enable dtmf-relay D. Set codec to G.711 E. Disable DID F. Disable VAD Answer: B, C, F Question 3. When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files? A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files B. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view the preconfigured trace files D. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page and view the output with the RTMT plug-in Answer: B Question 4. You are troubleshooting why a user can't make calls to the PSTN. You are reviewing trace files and you found where the user's IP phone initiates the call but you never see the call go out the gateway. What is the next step in troubleshooting this issue? A. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to another Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same time-stamp B. Look in the MGCP trace file to determine which MGCP gateway the call was sent to C. Look in the IP Voice Media Streaming APP trace file to see if an MTP was invoked D. Look in the SDL trace file to see if there is a signal to anther Cisco Unified CallManager node with the same TCP handle Answer: A Question 5. Exhibit: Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. Voice bearer traffic is mapped to which queue in FastEthernet0/2? A. Queue 2 B. Queue 3 C. Queue 1 D. Queue 4 Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: Your work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Please study the exhibit carefully. You have received a trouble ticket stating that calls to international numbers are failing. To place an international call, users dial the access code, "9," followed by "011", the country code and the destination number. After entering the debug isdn 1931 command on the MGCP gateway, you have the user attempt the call again. Base on the debug output, what is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The TON in incorrect B. The circuit is not configured correctly or has a physical layer issue C. Cisco Unified CallManaager is not stripping the access code before sending the call to the gateway D. The gateway dial peer needs to prefix "011" to the called number so the PSTN knows this is an internation call E. The user's CSS does not permit international calls Answer: A Question 7. You have developed a dial plan for Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 solution. All the route patterns, partitions, calling search spaces and translation rules have been configured. Before starting up the system you wish to test the dial plan for errors. Which Cisco Unified CallManager tool will simplify this testing? A. Route Plan Report B. Dial Plan Installer C. Dialed Number Analyzer D. RTMT Traces and Alarms Answer: C Question 8. You have just obtained a list of the following options: all patterns unassigned DN Call Park Conference Directory Number Translation Pattern Call pickup group Route pattern Message waiting Voice mail Attendant console What have you selected in order to produce this list? A. Route Plan > External Route Plan Wizard B. Control Center > Feature Services C. Route Plan > Route Plan Report D. Dialed Number Analyzer Answer: C Question 9. You have configured the Enable Keep Alive check under Trace Filter settings. How does this change the trace output? A. It adds the IP address of the endpoint in hex B. It maps the unique TCP handle for the endpoint to the MAC address of the endpoint in the trace output C. It adds the SCCP messages and all fields sent as part of that message D. It adds TCP socket numbers between the endpoint and Cisco Unified CallManager for the session Answer: B Question 10. When using trace output to troubleshooting a Cisco Unified CallManager 5.0 problem, how can you collect and view the trace files? A. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and download the RTMT plug-in from the CallManager Administration page to view the trace output B. Configure the proper alarms and traces on the Cisco Unified CallManager Administration page and view the output with the RTMT plug-in C. Download the RTMT plug-in from the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page to view the preconfigured trace files D. Configure the proper trace settings on the Cisco Unified CallManager Serviceability page and then use the embedded RTMT tool to view the trace files Answer: A
|
Question 1. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: B Question 2. ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements: Conference 3:three conference participants What will occur when the third conference is attempted? A. The third conference will succeed as desired. B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence. C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three conferences of three people each. D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the number of required services. Answer: A Question 3. Exhibit: ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B Question 4. ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IPVC 3521 B. Cisco IPVC 3526 C. Cisco IPVC 3540 D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway E. Cisc MCM proxy Answer: B, C Question 5. Exhibit: A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager? A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 kbps. B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 kbps. C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 kbps. D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps between the central site and each remote site. E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps between the central site and each remote site. F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps between the central site and each remote site. Answer: C Question 7. ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. What should this company purchase? A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade Answer: C Question 8. Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.) A. the number of sites in the enterprise B. the number and location of gatekeepers C. the incoming PSTN call routing method D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed F. the location of voice gateways Answer: A, C, D Question 9. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 768 B. bandwidth limit 768 C. bandwidth session 768 D. bandwidth call 768 E. bandwidth zone 768 Answer: C Question 10. What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups? A. zones B. clusters C. calling search spaces D. toll bypass routing Answer: A
|
Question 1. Which Cisco Security product is used to perform a Security Posture Assessment of client workstations? A. Adaptive Security Appliance B. Cisco Security Agent C. Cisco Security Posture Assessment Tool D. Cisco NAS Appliance E. Cisco ACS Answer: D Question 2. Which three policy types can be assigned to a network user role in the Cisco NAC Appliance architecture? (Choose three.) A. Allowed IP Address ranges B. Network Port Scanning Plug-ins C. VPN and roaming policies D. Inactivity period E. Session Duration F. Minimum Password length Answer: B, C, E Question 3. Which two components should be included in a network design document? (Choose two.) A. Complete network blueprint B. Operating Expense C. Risk Analysis D. Configuration for each device E. Detailed part list Answer: A, E Question 4. DRAG DROP You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security modules. Match the descriptions with the proper module. Use only options that apply. Answer: Question 5. Which statement is true about the Cisco Security MARS Global Controller? A. Rules that are created on a Local Controller can be pushed to the Global Controller B. Most data archiving is done by the Global Controller C. The Global Controller receives detailed incidents information from the Local Controllers and correlates the incidents between multiple Local Controllers D. The Global Controller Centrally Manages of a group of Local Controllers Answer: D Question 6. Which certificates are needed for a device to join a certificate-authenticated network? A. The Certificates of the device and its peer B. The Certificates of the certificate authority, the device and the peer C. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the peer D. The Certificates of the certificate authority and the device Answer: D Question 7. Which three Cisco Security products help to prevent application misuse and abuse? (Choose three.) A. Cisco ASA 5500 Series Adaptive Security Appliances B. Cisco IOS FW and IPS C. Cisco Traffic Anomaly Detector D. Cisco Security Agent E. Cisco Trust Agent F. NAC Appliance (Cisco Clean Access) Answer: A, B, D Question 8. DRAG DROP You work as a network engineer at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, Miss. ITCertKeys, is interested attack methodologies. Match the descriptions with the proper methodology. Use only options that apply. Answer: Question 9. Which two of these features are integrated security components of the Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance? (Chose two.) A. VRF-aware firewall B. Cisco ASA AIP SSM C. VTI D. Control Plane Policing E. Anti-X F. DMVPN Answer: B, E Question 10. Which of these items is a valid method to verify a network security design? A. Computer simulation B. Network audit C. Sing-off by the operations team D. Pilot or prototype network E. Analysis of earlier attacks Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.