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Question 1.
Jamie wants to define variables to be used in a from for either Notes clients. In which one of the following events should Jamie enter Java Script code?
A. on load
B. on Exit
C. Post Open
D. Query Open
Answer: A
Question 2.
Karen is writing a Java Script to display information about a movie when the user clicks a button.
Which one of the following characters will be ignored in Karen's Script?
A. Colons
B. Parentheses
C. Tab characters
D. Single quotation mark
Answer: C
Question 3.
In which one of the following events should jim enter java Script code to validate a field in use for both Notes clients and Web clients?
A. on Blur
B. on Focus
C. Exiting
D. Input Validation
Answer: A
Question 4.
Edith wants to change a graphic whenever the user passes the cursor over the graphic in a Web browser. Which one of the following describes how she can do this?
A. She cannot do this; image cannot be change
B. She should write the location (URL) of the new image to the src property of the image in the on
Select event and set it back to the original image in the on Mouse Up event.
C. She should write the location (URL) of the new image to the src property of the image in the on
Mouse Over event and set it back to the original image in the on Mouse Out event.
D. She should write the location (URL) of the new image to the value property of the image in the
on Mouse Over event and set it back to the original image in the on Mouse Out event.
Answer: C
Question 5.
The following Java Script function was create to check whether required data has been entered into a field:
Var validate = validate (frm.First name)
Function validate (fld)
{
if(frm.First name = ="")
<MISSING LINE1>
.... Java Script statements....
Return "value"
<MISSING LINE2>
}
Assuming that the code executes correctly, which one of the following describes what was placed on <MISSING LINE1>?
A. {
B. (
C. [
D. /*
Answer: C
Question 6.
Give the following:
<INPUT TYPE = BUTTON NAME = "Submit Btn" VALUE = "Submit" onC lick
= "submit Me (this. Form)">
Which one of the following is the "submit Me(this. Form)" portion of the tag called?
A. Button event
B. Event handler
C. Button method
D. On Click method
Answer: B
Question 7.
Sue is write a function that uses the statement x = = y.
Which one of the following statement is true regarding x = = y?
A. It returns true if the operands are equal.
B. It returns true if both logical expression are true.
C. It returns the value to the right of the variable to the left.
D. It returns the value to the right of the variable to the right.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
You accidentally initiated an abort sequence. As a consequence, your SPARC-based SYSTEM WENT INTO THE prom MODE.
Which two actions disable the default keyboard abort sequence? (Choose two)
A. detach serial console device
B. run the kbd -a disable command
C. run the eeprom command to disable KEYBOARD_ABORT
D. in PROM mode, change the value of keyboard to disable
E. edit / etc/default/kbd to change the value of the variable KEYBOARD_ABORT to disable
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
Your x86-based system with Solaris 10 OS installed on it is not booting correctly. You think the problem might be that a BIOS setting is not correctly configured.
What should you do to abort the boot process and reboot into the BIOS configuration menu?
A. While holding down the reset button, you power cycle the system.
B. You press the middle mouse button, When the screen times out, you enter the BIOS
configuration menu and examine the BIOS settings.
C. You press the stop-A keys then typ reset-all. You reboot directly into the BIOS configuration
menu and examine the BIOS settings.
D. You press the Ctrl-Alt-Del keys and reboot the system, or press the reset button. When the
screen tells indicates the key to enter the BIOS, you press it and examine your BIOS settings.
Answer: D
Question 3.
Given:
ap: : sysinit:/sbin/sutopush -f/etc/iu.ap
sp: : sysinit:/sbin/soconfig -f /etc/sock2path
smf: :sysinit:/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd >/dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog /dev/msglog 2<>/dev/msglog
Which two statements are true? (choose two)
A. This file must be read by the process inetd.
B. When booting this system, svc.startd will start.
C. This is a part of the content of the /etc/inittab file
D. This system starts/lib/svc/bin/svc.startd for run level 1.
E. When this system gets the powerfail signal, svc.startd will be respawned.
Answer: B, C
Question 4.
There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device aliases . The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them.
Which sequence of OBP commands temporarily disables the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=false
reset
B. use-nvramrc?=false
reset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? false
reset
D. setenv use-nvramrc? = false
reset
Answer: C
Question 5.
An x86-based laptop has just had Solaris 10 OS installed. The graphics configuration has NOT been automatically detected and it is running without graphics.
Which program can you run to create an Xsun configuration file?
A. /user/X11/bin/Xserver
B. /user/dt/bin/xsession
C. /usr/x11/binxorgconfig
D. /usr/openwin/bin/kdmconfig
E. /usr/x11/bin/xorg -configure
Answer: D
Question 6.
The SPARC-based workstation system in your accounts department need their PROMs upgraded. Some of the systems fail to upgrade.
What is the cause?
A. The patch is corrupt.
B. The systems do not have enough memory
C. The write protect jumper has not been set correctly.
D. The system is running an earlier version of Solaris OS.
Answer: C
Question 7.
A SPARC-based system does not boot and displays the message:
"Timeout waiting for ARP/RARP packet"
Which three actions should you take to check the boot environment of the system? (Choose three)
A. check if the frame buffer is working properly
B. check if the NVRAM alias net is set properly
C. check if the NVRAM alias boot-file is set properly
D. check if the PROM variable boot-device is set properly
E. check if the PROM variable local-mac-address?
Answer: B, D, E
Question 8.
You receive a complaint from a user who is unable to use the SSH service to access the user's lab system. You use a serial line to get in and check the SSH service. The svcs output is shown in the exhibit.
What has caused the disruption of the SSH service?
A. The service is disabled.
B. The contract_id is missing
C. There is no "next state" defined
D. One of the dependencies has NOT been met.
Answer: D
As you can see /network/physical is disabled
One of dependencies has not been meet therefore ssh not running
So right answer is D
Question 9.
A SPARC-based system, but you are not sure of the physical path information;
Which OBP command shows you this information/
A. printenv
B. probe-all
C. show-devs
D. prtdiag -v
E. probe-scsi-all
Answer: C
Question 10.
As system administrator, you are asked to shut down the Apache HTTPD service that is running on a development server. You run the svcs grep apache command, and receive this output.
Legacy_run Feb_02 1RC:/ETC/RC3_D/S50APACHE
Based on this output, which two statements are tru?
A. This service is managed by LRC.
B. This service is NOT managed by SMF
C. Any legacy_run state can NOT be manually shut down.
D. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the shutdown script in the /tc/init.d
directory
E. In order to shut down this service, you need to execute the following shutdown script svcadm –
v disable /etc/init.d/s50apache
Answer: B, D
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Question 1. After connecting to a codec via WebGUI, you are prompted for a username and password. Which username password combination is used on the codec by default? A. Cisco, Cisco B. admin, Cisco C. Cisco, Cisco D. admin, cisco Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1300? A. The system is designed to support meetings of six to eight participants B. The system features three 65-inch screens, three cameras, microphones, and speakers C. Voice-enabled switching is performed by the codec to select the active speaker in the room and capture the video for the remote side D. The power and Ethernet outlets must be positioned directly behind the unit Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. When using Auto-Collaborate, what two actions need to be done to display the laptop content after connecting the cable? (Choose two.) A. Press the Auto-Collaborate softkey B. Initiate Auto-Collaborate on the codec’s GUI C. Set the laptop resolution to 1024x768 D. Set your laptop resolution to 1024x720 E. Use function key on the laptop to send signal to external display Answer: C, E Explanation: Question 4. During your RRA assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room you notice: • The HVAC diffuser has noticeable noise (measured at48 1dB) which sounds like rushing air What three recommendations should be made to the customer? (Choose three.) A. The customer should turn the fan level down on the HVAC system to insure the fan noise is minimized in the Cisco TelePresence room B. The customer should contact an HVAC specialist to review and recommend an appropriate solution C. The customer should not worry about the HVAC fan noise because the Cisco TelePresence System uses a noise suppression algorithm designed to identify HVAC fan noise and minimize those frequencies D. The customer should replace the diffusers with a diffuser that is rated with a noise criterion of 10 or greater E. The customer should replace the ducting directly above the room with acoustically treated ducting to remove the sound of rushing airflow Answer: B, D, E Explanation: Question 5. In the Cisco TelePresence administration WebGUI, the camera Auto Adjust can be used to check which setting? A. life size B. zoom and focus C. white color balance D. HDMI input threshold Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. What is the leveling process for the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 frame? A. With only one display, there is no need to level the frame before attaching it to the wall B. Attach the frame to the wall and level the frame by raising or lowering the feet. C. Place a level on the middle and upper crossbars and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the frame is horizontally level D. Place a level on the side of the frame and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the Frame is vertically level Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Refer to the exhibit. Identify the port number where the Audio Video expansion box should connect. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 9 F. 10 G. 11 H. 12 I. 13 Answer: H Explanation: Question 8. Which statement is correct when tuning the cameras by using the WebGUI of the Cisco TelePresence codec? A. If there is a noticeable flicker on the screen, the 50 Hz Flicker Reduction button will eliminate the flicker and increase the image resolution. B. If the user is 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 m) away from the display, click the 4 feet radio button for the Focus Distance radio choice. If the user is farther than 5 feet (1.5 m) away, click the 6 feet choice. C. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance choices. D. Auto Color Balance can produce the best results when the colors of the walls in your room are white or gray. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which three statements are correct when tuning the camera on a Cisco TelePresence CTS-1xxx system? (Choose three.) A. Target placement should match the green and red boxes on the screen, respectively B. Place the large target three feet behind the small target. C. Place the large target five feet behind the small target D. Tune the camera so that the red and green bars line up as closely as possible E. Perform auto-adjust to optimize focus and sharpness Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Question 10. Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras? (Choose two) A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button fur the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to add more light C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable- radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance Answer: A, B Explanation: Question 11. During your assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room, you notice: • The ceiling is 8 feel (2 4meters) high and currently illuminated with recessed parabolic light fixtures. Which lighting recommendation is the most appropriate? A. The Cisco Telepresence endpoint has a lighting facade which is designed to provide enough light for the participants face and torso, so no lighting changes are required B. The ceiling should be raised higher than 8 feet (2.4 meters) to accommodate appropriate light fixtures for use with Telepresence C. The existing fixtures are not ideal but are adequate for use with TelePresence D. The existing fixtures should be replaced with recessed indirect light textures E. No recommendation can be made until the lighting has been measured with a lux meter in the appropriate zones Answer: D Explanation:
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Question 1. Which DHCP server gives secondary codecs in Cisco TelePresence CTS-3000 and CTS-3200 systems their IP addresses? A. DHCP server on the voice VLAN B. DHCP server on the primary codec C. DHCP server on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager D. DHCP server on the CiscoTelePresence Manager Answer: B Question 2. How do you calibrate the light meter from the Cisco recommended RRA tool kit? A. Press the Auto Adjust button on the meter. B. Turn the meter on and off. C. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Zero button. D. Cover the sensor with the cap and press the Light Source button. Answer: C Question 3. What two options does an administrator have using WebUI for CTMS in Monitoring/Room Testing for any active meeting? (Choose two.) A. add a CTS System to a meeting B. view network statistics C. view meeting statistics D. start loopback E. force switch Answer: A, B Question 4. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy does not have an email account listed in the Unified CM. This is preventing the Cisco Telepresence Manager from synchronizing with the email address for the Cisco Telepresence Room in the Calendar server. Refer to the exhibit. You are using Cisco Telepresence Manager and have just added a new room in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and have made test calls successfully. You run the Discover Rooms option under Discovery Service successfully. You then go into the Rooms section and see the status. Which is the cause of the problem? A. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy does not have an email account listed in the Unified CM. This is preventing the Cisco Telepresence Manager from synchronizing with the email address for the Cisco Telepresence Room in the Calendar server. B. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The Calendar server does not have an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. C. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco Telepresence Manager does not have proper privileges to view this account. D. The Cisco Telepresence room Fluffy has an email address listed in the Unified CM. The Calendar server has an account for the email address provided by the Unified CM. The Cisco Telepresence Manager cannot authenticate to the LDAP server and cannot log into the Calendar server to synchronize with the account. Answer: C Question 5. During the RRA, how should you hold the light sensor when taking the majority of light measurements? A. Horizontally, so it gets the direct lighting from ceiling light fixtures. B. Vertically, toward the displays to measure the light they put off. C. Horizontally, toward any untreated windows to measure light coming in. D. Vertically, so it is reading light as if it were hitting the participant's face. Answer: D Question 6. At a minimum, what must an administrator configure in the CUCM for the Cisco Telepresence Multipoint Switch? A. SIP trunk and route pattern B. H.323 gateway and route pattern C. H.323 gateway, route pattern, route list and route group D. SIP trunk, route pattern, route list and route group E. H.323 gateway, route pattern and route group F. route pattern, route list and route group Answer: A Question 7. Which QoS mapping is specific to Cisco Telepresence? A. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 40 B. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 46 C. CoS 3 to map to a DSCP value of 48 D. CoS 5 to map to a DSCP value of 16 E. CoS 4 to map to a DSCP value of 32 Answer: E Question 8. How is VIP mode enabled for a scheduled multipoint Cisco Telepresence meeting? A. through the Cisco IP phone interface B. through theWebUI on the CTMS C. through the CiscoTelepresence Manager D. through calendar scheduling interface Answer: B Question 9. Which three statements about the cabling of a Cisco Telepresence 3000 are true? (Choose three.) A. All speakers connect to the primary codec. B. All video cameras connect to the primary codec. C. All 65 inch plasma displays connect to the primary codec. D. Microphones connect to the corresponding codec. E. Speakers connect to the corresponding codec. F. Video cameras connect to the corresponding codec. G. Plasma displays connect to the corresponding codec. Answer: A, F, G Question 10. DRAG DROP Answer:
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Question 1.
What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives?
A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager.
B. Caller will receive ringing treatment.
C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed.
D. Caller will receive network busy treatment.
E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing?
A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list
B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time
C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list
D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.)
A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG
B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit
C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service
platform
D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server
E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 4.
In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group?
A. CRS CTI Route Point
B. CTI Ports
C. CRS Call Control Group
D. Communications Manager Call Control Group
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which interface is used to configuration debug parameter for log files?
A. Data store control center
B. Alarm and Trace Configuration
C. System parameter
D. Control center
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the main function of the CRS Editor?
A. remotely manages the LDAP Directory
B. creates CRS Engine reports
C. creates application scripts for call flows
D. manages the CRS Server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
In Cisco Unified Contact Center Express, where is wrap-up data enabled?
A. in CSQ configuration on Application Administration
B. in workflow groups on Cisco Desktop Administrator
C. in the Cisco Supervisor Desktop
D. in resource configuration on Application Administration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the purpose of the Repair button in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express 5.0 Installation Wizard?
A. repair the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster associated with this Cisco CRS system
B. remove a version of Cisco CRS that the user had attempted but failed to remove previously
C. recover a Cisco CRS system
D. reinstall the same version of Cisco CRS on top of the currently installed version
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
What is a benefit of using sub flows?
A. creates a framework for CRS Server status reporting
B. decreases latency through increased bandwidth on CRS Server
C. collects information about callers to agents
D. decreases the amount of flows
E. provides more efficient management of flows that are called by multiple other flows
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
In the CRS Application Editor, where do you start the debugger?
A. Toolbar
B. Step palette
C. Variable window
D. Design window
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Question 1. Why is it beneficial for virtual classroom instructions to know approximately how much time each lesson within a virtual classroom session take? A. Knowing how much time a lesson takes allows the instructor to adjust timelines if the participants want to go deeper or need more time. B. Participants will pay better attention because there will be less time to review. C. The timing of each lesson can help participants understand the relative importance of each instructional section. D. The instructor can manage time by stopping discussions demonstrate and comments before the participants are finished. E. Making effective timing decisions demonstrates leadership in the virtual classroom. Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which three preparation tasks help create an effective audio environment for a virtual classroom session? (Choose three) A. Use only a wireless internet connection. B. Know how to make your phone. C. Work in a space that is free of background noise. D. Hold session in the early morning. E. Put a “trainingin Progress” sign on your door or desk. F. Use an unidirectional microphone Answer: C, E, F Explanation: Question 3. Why is it important for evaluation strategies to be highly specific? A. Virtual instructors might rationalize or make excuse for unmet learning objectives. B. Different stakeholders in organization often have competing properties and agendas. C. Management might reward or punish depending on post session behavior on the job. D. It is important to be factual about what went well, what needs important, and how it will be improved. Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which action is most effective if you want to gauge the ability of the group to use formulas during a virtual classroom session in Microsoft Excel slide? A. Share your application, using an expense report template; demonstrate how to input formulas in an Excel spread sheet. B. Share your application, select a cell and type the first part of formula; ask participants to type the rest into chat. C. Call on aparticipantand ask that person to verbally state what the correct formula would be; given a specific set of criteria D. Pass control of your desktop to a participant and ask that person to type in the correct formula; ask the group to continue. Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. What is a key consideration for deciding whether you should record a virtual classroom session? A. Session recordings that are posted to a company intranet may be subject to attribute laws. B. Participants may demand to know in advance what you plan to do with the recording. C. Conflicts about confidentially may cause participants to be less interactive. D. Participants may be distracted by concerns about what their recorded voice like. Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. What are two industry best practices for timing of virtual classroom sessions? (Choose two) A. Spend at least 5 minutes on each slide to allow cognitive load. B. Sessions should be approximately 60 to 90 minutes in length. C. Twenty percent of your slides should contain 80 percent of the information in the session. D. Add 5 minutes to the agenda for every five participants that are attending your session. E. Ensure that interactivity occurs every 5 minutes on average. Answer: B Explanation: Correct answer: AE Question 7. Which three questions are the most appropriate to ask if your manager asks you to coordinate and schedule a virtual session that you message will conduct next week on strategic planning? (Choose three) A. Do you want participants to be able to interact with you and each other, and if so, how? B. Are your slides ready, and are they optimally designed (for example, following the six by sixrule)? C. Will session attendance be mandatory or optional for participants? D. Approximately how many participants will be attending, and from where? E. Do the various activities support the learning objectives of the session? F. How will the learning gains or effectiveness of the session be measured? G. Is an LMS adequate for the needs of our company, or do we need an LCMS? Answer: E, F, G Explanation: Question 8. What are two key reasons why you should record and critique your own presentation on to two days before facilitating an important training session? (Choose two) A. To ensure that your communication is as clear and succinct as possible. B. To consider two creative ways to adapt the course to an asynchronous format. C. To become self-aware of any use of slang or colloquialisms if the session is for a global audience. D. To determine whether the course needs to be redesigned for a global audience. E. To show program stakeholders exactly what you will be doing. Answer: A, B Explanation: Question 9. How does the use of virtual cueing devices (such as using a highlighter tool or partner) support the process of logic and learning? A. Paves the way for social learning. B. Helps focus attentionon relevant content areas C. Promotes discussion and collaboration D. Engages auditory and less-visual learners Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. What are three appropriate reasons for asking open-ended questions? (Choose three) A. Initiate discussion B. Uncover experiences of participants C. Resolve conflict D. Stimulate critical thinking E. Challenge viewpoints F. Identify dominant participants Answer: C, D, E Explanation:
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Question 1. Which port is indicated on the right Secondary Codec for the CTS-3210? A. Right Display B. Right Camera C. Center Display D. Left Display Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which port do you conned to on the Primary Codec in order to establish an Ethernet connection between your laptop and the Cisco TelePresence 3000 equipment? A. Video port B. Network port C. IP Phone port D. Secondary Camera port Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which size and type of tool is required to loosen the screws that allow rotational adjustment of the CTS-3010 cameras? A. #1 Phillips screwdriver B. 5.0 mm Allen wrench C. #3 Phillips screwdriver D. 3.0 mm Allen wrench Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. Which four functions does Cisco TelePresence rely on Cisco Unified Communications Manager for? (Choose four) A. Configurations B. Software upgrades C. Management D. Call processing E. Scheduling meetings F. Microphone calibration Answer: A, C, D, E Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following components are included on the Cisco TelePresence 3210? (Choose three.) A. One boardroom-style table with a second row B. One boardroom-style table C. One 40" external display D. Nine table microphones E. Four LED light fixtures Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Question 6. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: Layer 2 Datalink – ARP Layer 3 – Network – IP Layer4 – Transport – TCP Layer7 – Application - Email Question 7. Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TelePresence Manager? (Choose three) A. Bulk software upgrades of endpoints B. Calendaring integration and management C. One-Button-to-Push meeting access D. Allow for content sharing E. Concierge services Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 8. Which two hardware components are optional for the Cisco TelePresence 1000? (Choose two) A. One Cisco Unified IP Phone 7975G B. One external display C. One high-definition camera D. One Auxiliary Control Unit Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 9. Which port is indicated on the Auxiliary Control Unit for the CTS-1100 and 1300? A. Auxiliary Collaboration Display B. Serial Control for Projector C. Lights D. Serial Control for Dimmer Box Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. DRAG DROP Answer: Explanation: CTS-500 – 1-2 participants in a home/executive office CTS-1100 – 2 participants in multipurpose room CTS-1300 – 6 participants in multipurpose room CTS-3010 – 6 participants in dedicated telepresence room CTS-3210 – up to 10 participants in dedicated telepresence room
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Question 1. What is fading? A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate. B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a different propagation delay and path loss. C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves. D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor. E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information. F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance. Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature? A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not no secure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet). B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported. C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed. D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to which the client is associated. Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code? A. 5 B. 12 C. 16 D. 24 E. 150 F. 300 Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary? A. Critical B. Flash C. Major D. Minor E. Urgent Answer: D Explanation: Question 5. Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.) A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only B. implements the validation of wireless management frames C. requires CCXv5 D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID E. requires CCXv4 Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 6. What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero? A. Clients are excluded indefinitely. B. Clients are never excluded. C. Client exclusion is disabled. D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address. E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list. Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting authentication. B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n. C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n. D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2. E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2. Answer: E Explanation: Question 8. How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version? A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers. B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments. D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS. Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers? A. show config B. show run config C. show run-config D. show running config E. show running-config Answer: E Explanation: Question 10. Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.) A. Eavesdropping B. Denial of Service C. War Driving D. Man-in-the-Middle Answer: B, D Explanation:
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Question 1. Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic? A. AUX B. Gigabit Ethernet C. Fast Ethernet D. Channelized serial Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two) A. Encapsulation type B. Interface status C. Layer 2 address D. Layer 3 address E. Keep alive Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 3. The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two) A. Pins 1 and 4 B. Pins 1 and 7 C. Pins 2 and 5 D. Pins 2 and 8 E. Pins 1 and 5 F. Pins 2 and 7 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two) A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad C. Start > All Programs > Notepad D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 5. Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain. C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID Answer: A, B, E Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is a DTE device? A. router B. CSU/DSU C. cable modem D. DSL modem Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two) A. It is a repeater. B. It is a data link layer device. C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host. D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port. E. It acts as an amplifier. Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router? A. Crossover B. Straight-through C. Fiber D. Rollover Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of cable us used on the ATM card? A. Fiber-optic BNC B. Coaxial C. Serial D. Crossover Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.) A. a single strand of glass fiber B. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber C. cost is less than multimode fiber D. operates over less distance than multimode fiber Answer: A, B Explanation:
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Question 1. DRAG DROP
Answer:
Question 2.
Why are thresholds defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network
E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability, timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
According to ITIL® v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provides a customer with a measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 5.
A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is nearly 100 individual steps long.
Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each step that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/- 5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: A
Explanation:
source: http://www.freeopenbook.com/upgrading-repairingnetworks/
ch04lev1sec4.html
Question 6.
You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls. The service desk is unable to resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
Assuming that all physical layer option settings are verified to match carrier-provided specifications, which action should you take to isolate the problem before escalating to the PSTN PTT carrier?
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
reason: The question is saying that the service is not working for certain calls which means that ip connectivity might be fine and the fail over is also working.. Similarly, if sip version are not compatible there would be a problem with all calls. So trunks problem might be the answer
Question 7.
Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are
Informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any NMS system.
D. SNMP traps are formally defined in a MIB, whereas syslog body contents are not formally defined.
E. SNMP traps are user-definable and vary based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are standards-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
source: https://supportforums.cisco.com/message/3184632
Question 9.
While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL®
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three of the following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
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