|
Question 1.
You've configured a Branch Office System to use Automatic User Provisioning.
When users attempt to log in to the appliance for the first time, authentication fails.
The appliance is running on a server with 512 MB of RAM, a Pentium III 500 MHz CPU, and a 40 GB hard disk drive. The users are using Windows 2000 Professional with Novell Client 4.9 installed.
What is causing the problem?
A. The Appliance requires at least 1 GB of RAM
B. The Appliance requires a 1 GHz or faster CPU
C. The workstation must be upgraded to Windows XP Home
D. Novell Client 4.9 isn't compatible with Universal Password
E. NICI must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login
F. NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.9 during the first login
Answer: F
Question 2.
Which products are installed during a Management Server patterned deployment?
(Choose three)
A. iSCSI
B. Open SSH
C. iMonitor
D. iManager
E. Console One
F. Virtual Office
Answer: C, D, E
Question 3.
To start the Archive Server, you enter _________ at the server console.
Answer: ARK START
Question 4.
Which password does the CIFS service on your NetWare 6.5 server use, by default, to authenticate clients after initial installation?
A. NIS Password
B. LDAP Password
C. Simple Password
D. Universal password
E. eDirectory Password
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which NetWare 6.5 service allows users to find and restore deleted files without help desk support?
A. iSCSI
B. Dir XML
C. iFolder
D. Virtual Office
E. Archive and Versioning
F. Enterprise branch office
G. Novell file access protocols
Answer: E
|
I Need Dumps plz helpe me thanks buddy
|
Question 1. Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two) A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter. B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time. C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption. D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter. Answer: B, C Explanation: You can configure your Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter through the Cisco ADU or a third-party tool, such as the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager. Because third-party tools may not provide all the functionality available in ADU, Cisco recommends that you use ADU. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter as well as Aironet Desktop Utility establish the association between the client adapter and Access Point, allows to authenticate wireless client, allows to configure encryption by setting static WEP, WPA/WPA2 passphrase. Section 3: Perform routine IOS device maintenance (0 Questions) Section 4: Isolate sub-optimal internetwork operation at the correctly defined OSI Model layer (2 Questions) Question 2. At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at? A. Layer 5 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 3 D. Layer 2 E. Layer 1 Answer: D Explanation: Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 (L2) protocol designed to run on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is called 802.1d. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not run into a loop situation when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network. Question 3. In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0. D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. Answer: C, D Explanation: The point of this question is the form of multicast MAC address, and the conversion between the multicast MAC address and IP address. The multicast MAC address is 6 bytes(48 bits), the first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E, the last 3 bytes(24 bits) of the multicast MAC address =0 + 23 bit(the last 23 bit of the IP address). "0x01-00-5E" is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. So option B and D are correct. Question 4. EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two) A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router. B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router. C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization). D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to Process the query or build the reply packet. Answer: C, D Explanation: SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning. Incorrect Answers: A: Missing replies, not missing ACKs, cause SIA. B: Routes updates do not cause SIA.Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it readvertises all routes to that neighbor. Reference: Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocolhttp://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/eigrp3.html Question 5. Part of the routing table of router R1 is displayed below: S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130 172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets D EX 172.209.1 [170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239 62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks D EX 99.3.215.0/24 [170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0 [170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0 25.248.17.0/24 [90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001 [90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001 62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks D 62.113.1.227/32 [90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0 [90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14 From analyzing the above command output, what is the administrative distance of the external EIGRP routes? A. 24 B. 32 C. 90 D. 170 E. 27316 F. None of the other alternatives apply Answer: D Explanation: By default an external EIGRP route has a value of 170. By examining the exhibit we see that this default value of the external EIGRP routes (see D-EX in exhibit) indeed is set to 170. The first value within the brackets display the AD, so with a value of [170/27316] the AD is 170 and the metric of the route is 27316. Incorrect Answers: A: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table. B: This is the subnet mask used for some of the routes in the table. C: This is the AD of the internal EIGRP routes, which is the default E: This is the EIGRP metric of the external EIGRP routes.Reference: What Is Administrative Distance?http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/105/admin_distance.html Question 6. The network is shown below, along with the relevant router configurations: R1# show run interface Loopback0 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Ethernet0 ip address 172.29.1.1 255.255.255.0 media-type 10BaseT ! ! router eigrp 999 redistribute connected network 172.29.0.0 auto-summary no eigrp log-neighbor-changes ! ip classless no ip http server R2# show run interface Ethernet0 ip address 172.29.1.2 255.255.255.0 media-type 10BaseT ! interface Ethernet1 ip address 172.19.2.2 255.255.255.0 media-type 10BaseT ! router eigrp 999 network 172.19.0.0 network 172.29.0.0 ! ip classless no ip http server R3# show run interface Ethernet1/0 ip address 172.19.2.3 255.255.255.0 ! router eigrp 999 network 172.19.0.0 auto-summary no eigrp log-neighbor-changes ! ip classless ip http server With the topology found in the graphic, what will the R1 loopback 0 be in the R3 routing table? A. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0/8. B. It will show up in the routing table as D EX 10.0.0.0/8. C. It will show up in the routing table as D 10.0.0./24. D. It will not show up in R3 routing table because there is no network command on R1. Answer: B Explanation: Because router R1 is configured with route redistribution, it will redistribute the connected loopback network into EIGRP. Because redistributed routes will show up as external EIGRP routes in the routing table, choice B is correct. Although the loopback interface is using a /24 subnet mask, EIGRP summarizes at network boundaries by default so the network will appear as the class A network of 10.0.0.0/8 in the routing table of the other routers. Incorrect Answers: A: The route will be external, since it was redistributed into EIGRP. C: It will be external because of redistribution, and it will also be summarized since that is the default behavior of EIGRP. D: Although it was not configured under the EIGRP network command, it would be redistributed because it is a connected route. Question 7. The EIGRP network is displayed in the following topology diagram: You work as a network technician. Study the exhibits carefully. If the command "variance 3" was added to the EIGRP configuration of R5, which path or paths would be chosen to route traffic from R5 to network X? A. R5-R2-R1 B. R5-R2-R1 and R5-R3-R1. C. R5-R3-R1 and R5-R4-R1. D. R5-R2-R1,R5-R3-R1, and R5-R4-R1. Answer: B Explanation: Every routing protocol supports equal cost path load balancing. In addition, Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) and EIGRP also support unequal cost path load balancing. Use the variance n command in order to instruct the router to include routes with a metric of less than n times the minimum metric route for that destination. The variable n can take a value between 1 and 128. The default is 1, which means equal cost load balancing. Traffic is also distributed among the links with unequal costs, proportionately, with respect to the metric. In this question the variance 3 command is used . In this instance, R5 can get to Net X using the path R5-R3 = metric of 10, and R3-R1 = 10 as well with the FD between R5 - R1 being 10 + 10 = 20. Therefore, we can load balance on any route that had an FD of 3x the successor, or 3x20, which is 60 Important Note: If a path does not meet the feasibility condition, the path is not used in load balancing. This is why chose D is wrong as this path has an Advertised Distance of 25 which is greater than the successors FD. The link below refers to an example that is nearly identical to the example in this question, except theirs used a variance of 2 and this question used a variance of 3. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml Question 8. The following command was issued on Router 2: Given the above output shown above, which statement is true? A. 192.168.1.0 is a redistributed route into EIGRP. B. 192.168.1.0 is a summarized route. C. 192.168.1.0 is a static route. D. 192.168.1.0 is equal path load balancing with 172.16.1.0. E. None of the other alternatives apply Answer: A Explanation: When EIGRP learns the routing information from the different routing protocol it uses D EX symbol to indicate that this routing information has learned from other routing protocol. Question 9. A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true? A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms. B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters. C. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB. D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers. E. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers. F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB. Answer: A, F Explanation: Metrics are the mathematics used to select a route. The higher the metric associated with a route, the less desirable it is. For EIGRP, the Bellman-Ford algorithm uses the following equation and creates the overall 24-bit metric assigned to a route: * metric = [(K1 × bandwidth) + [( K2 × bandwidth) ÷ (256 - load)] + (K3 × delay)] × [K5 ÷ (reliability + K4)] The elements in this equation are as follows: * By default, K1 = K3 = 1, K2 = K4 = K5 = 0. Therefore, by default, the metric formula reduces to: metric = (1 × bandwidth) + (1 × delay) metric = bandwidth + delay K Values should be same to become the EIGRP neighbors. Question 10. Study the exhibit below carefully: If the configuration shown below is added to Router1, which three route entries will EIGRP advertise to neighboring routers? (Select three) router eigrp 10 network 10.0.0.0 eigrp stub A. 192.168.20.0/24 B. 10.1.2.0/24 C. 10.1.1.0/24 D. 10.1.3.0/24 E. 10.0.0.0/8 Answer: C, D, E Explanation: The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router configuration. Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the remote router. When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes with the message "inaccessible." A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router. Any neighbor that receives a packet informing it of the stub status will not query the stub router for any routes, and a router that has a stub peer will not query that peer. The stub router will depend on the distribution router to send the proper updates to all peers.
|
Question 1. Which two characteristics of optical networks data to be transmitted over extremely long distances? (Choose two.) A. No electromagnetic interference (EMI) B. Minimal signal loss C. No bandwidth limits D. No encryption Answer: A, B Question 2. What is a wide-area network (WAN)? A. A network that is restricted to a single building, a group of buildings, or even a single room B. A network that connects client devices wirelessly using radio waves C. A network that crosses metropolitan, regional or national boundaries D. A network that encompasses an entire city or metropolitan area and connects multiple local-area networks (LANs) Answer: C Question 3. Which IP telephony component provides call processing, such as signaling that in a traditional voice network is provided by switching equipment, such as a PBX? A. Voice gateways, such as the Cisco VG248 analog phone gateway B. Call-management hardware and software, such as Cisco Call Manager C. Client-based software, such as Cisco SoftPhone D. Advanced call-handling software, such as Cisco Unity Answer: B Question 4. A software engineering firm wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer wait times and improve employee productivity. Which Cisco solution best matches this business need? A. IP Telephony B. DSL C. WLAN D. Optical Network Answer: A Question 5. A growing publishing firm needs a secure way for remote content editors to connect through the Internet to the company extranet. Which Cisco solution best matches this business need? A. IP telephony B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Content Networking D. Wireless network Answer: B Question 6. What creates an encrypted tunnel through a shared public network infrastructure, such as the Internet to provide a secure connection between remote users and a private network? A. VPN B. HTTP C. DSL D. Optical Networking Answer: A Question 7. What does a router do? A. Reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN) B. Stores data on network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN) C. Routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN) D. Broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and wide-area network (WAN) Answer: C Question 8. Which device is used in wireless networks to send transmission to a target area? A. Directional Antenna B. Optical fiber C. Omni-directional antenna D. Access point Answer: A Question 9. Which wireless local-area network (WLAN) device is often used to make wireless connections between buildings or campuses? A. Access Point B. Bridge C. Router D. Client Adapter Answer: B Question 10. On what type of network does the Cisco Unified Communications system reside? A. A single, joined voice, video and data network B. Voice networks only C. Wireless networks only D. Data networks only E. Independent voice, video and data networks Answer: A
|
Question 1. Order the following resolutions, by pixel count, from lowest to highest. A. D1, HD, QCIF, CIF B. D1, CIF, 4CIF, HD C. QCIF, CIF, D1, HD D. QCIF, D1, CIF, HD Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. What are the two differences between interlaced and progressive scan video? (Choose two.) A. Progressive scan video is generally better with fast-moving objects B. Interlaced video is generally better with fast-moving objects C. Interlaced video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines D. Progressive scan video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 3. Where should outdoor surveillance cameras be mounted when nearby sources of light are present? A. The camera should be mounted lower than the light source. B. The camera should be mounted in parallel with the nearest light source. C. The camera should be mounted above the light source. D. Location does not matter, as long as the camera is day/night capable. Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. What is the correct camera and lens setup for the use of IR lighting? A. Color camera with IR corrected lens B. A camera with day/night mode and IR corrected lens C. A camera with day/night mode and varifocal lens D. Color camera with varifocal lens Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which switch port capability is recommended for an MSP server? A. Server switch ports should have 10/100 Mb capability B. Server switch ports should have 1000 Mb capability C. Server switch ports should have 10 Gb capability D. Servers should be connected to PoE-capable switches Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. On a converged network infrastructure, which Layer 2 technology can be easily enabled and configured to ensure separation of video surveillance traffic on the network from other sources (such as voice, email, and web browsing)? A. IP routing B. Firewall C. QoS D. VLAN Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. In addition to bandwidth, which factors should be considered when designing an IP network capable of delivering high-quality surveillance video in real time? A. Minimize jitter and maximize latency B. Minimize latency and maximize jitter C. Minimize both jitter and latency D. Maximize both jitter and latency Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. The Cisco Physical Security CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 platform can support which configuration of option cards? A. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P B. 2 x CIVS-ENC-8P C. 2 x CIVS-ENC-16P D. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P and 1 x CIVS-ENC-8P Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which two of the following Cisco Physical Security MSP servers support an optional secondary power supply? (Choose two.) A. CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 B. CPS-MSP-2RU-K9 C. CPS-MSP-4RU D. CPS-SS-4RU E. CIAC-PAME-1125-K9 Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum number of internal encoder ports supported by the CPS-MSP-2RU-K9? A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 48 Answer: D Explanation:
|
Question 1. Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services. A. Staging Plan B. Implementation Plan C. Business Plan D. Detailed Design Validation E. Project Kick-off Answer: B Question 2. Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution? A. Proof of Concept B. High-level Design Development C. Business Case Development D. Business Requirements Development E. Operations Technology Strategy Development F. Technology Strategy Development Answer: A Question 3. In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks? A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment C. execute network migration plan D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit Answer: B Question 4. In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks? A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment D. execute network migration plan Answer: C Question 5. In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component? A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting B. Implementation Plan C. Project Kick-off D. Staging Plan E. Migration Plan F. Staff Plan Development Answer: F Question 6. In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? A. Execute test cases B. Configure core products C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer Answer: B Question 7. Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase? A. determining network elements that will be tested B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan C. entering documentation into knowledge management system D. developing backup/recovery plan E. creating an escalation plan F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies Answer: F Question 8. In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task? A. perform preliminary Site Assessment B. configure core products C. execute test cases D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach? A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco technology or solution B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced Technologies C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and objectives D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies Answer: A Question 10. Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase? A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements of a customer B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help deploy network technologies C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the customer D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the appropriate technology strategy Answer: A
|
Question 1. A CallPilot customer site will be using Multimedia Messaging. The switch will need a specific kind of configuration for this messaging service. What is the required configuration? A. Regular DN B. Phantom DN C. Control DN (CDN) D. ACD-DN dummy queue Answer: C Question 2. With CallPilot RIs. 5.0, when upgrading to a new release of CallPilot, the number of reserved seats may now be reduced. You are performing an upgrade on a CallPilot RIs. 4.0 system with a keycode that authorizes 500 Fax messaging seats. Only 200 Fax messaging seats are currently in use. Which is the minimum number of Fax messaging seats that can be authorized with a new RIs. 5.0 keycode? A. 100 B. 200 C. 250 D. 500 Answer: B Question 3. You are preparing to install CallPilot RIs.5.0 for a customer. The customer wants to access the CallPilot system from the LAN and must provide some information for the installation. What information must the customer provide? A. DHCP server B. a Cat-5 cable C. an Ethernet switch D. a static IP address and subnet mask Answer: D Question 4. When installing CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option? A. Client PC B. CallPilot server C. Administrator PC D. Customer provided Web server Answer: D Question 5. An administrator cannot login to CallPilot Manager from the login web page. You have confirmed that the administrator is entering their correct mailbox number and password and that their mailbox is not disabled. What should you check? A. that the user's PC is running Internet Information Server (IIS) B. that the Server field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system C. that the Location field contains the correct server name for the CallPilot system D. that the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) option is turned on because passwords can only be passed over SSL Answer: B Question 6. CallPilot desktop messaging has several CallPilot RIs.5.0 feature enhancements. Which are two of these enhancements? (Choose two.) A. ping on Startup B. Global CallPilot Address Book C. creating personal distribution lists D. Deliver to Location in Microsoft Outlook Answer: B, D Question 7. The CallPilot RIs. 5.0 has introduced the High Availability feature. The High Availability feature is available on which CallPilot server platform? A. 703t B. 600r C. 1005r D. 1002rp Answer: C Question 8. When installing CallPilot Reporter RIs. 5.0 on the standalone Web server, additional required software is also installed. Which version of Crystal Reports is installed? A. Crystal Reports 8 B. Crystal Reports X C. Crystal Reports 8.5 D. Crystal Reports Xl Answer: D Question 9. Which software is required before installing CallPilot Manager on a stand-alone Web server? A. PC Anywhere B. Sybase Database C. Java Runtime Environment D. Internet Information Server (IIS) Answer: D Question 10. Your customer is upgrading to CallPilot RIs. 5.0. The current keycode authorizes 500 Speech Activated Messaging seats but the customer is currently only using 100 seats. With the upgrade and a new CallPilot Rls. 5.0 keycode, what two options does the customer have for the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats? (Choose two.) A. No options are available; the number of seats cannot be reduced. B. Take no action and retain the unused Speech Activated Messaging seats. C. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to 100 or more. D. Reduce the number of Speech Activated Messaging seats authorized in the new keycode to any number as long as the feature is supported on at least 1 seat. Answer: B, C
|
Question 1. Which command is used to assign root privileges to an existing user? A. /nas/sbin/enableRootToUser B. /nas/sbin/addRootIdToUser C. /nas/sbin/switchToRoot D. /nas/sbin/enableRootID Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which Unisphere storage domain role will limit a user to the administration of file system checkpoints, LUN mirrors, and Replication Manager tasks? A. Data recovery B. Data protection C. Administrator D. NAS administrator Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. In a VNX system, which feature manages access to specific management clients? A. IP address filtering B. Auditing C. Public key infrastructure D. User privileges Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system? A.\ B. .FQDN C. @FQDN D. Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. What is the maximum number of LDAP service connections available when configuring LDAP for VNX Block storage systems? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. What is the default port used for secure LDAP (LDAPS) communications on a VNX system? A. 389 B. 443 C. 563 D. 636 Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. In which file are the default audit events defined? A. /etc/auditd.conf B. /nas/audit/audit.rules C. /nas/etc/audit.rules D. /etc/audit/audit.rules Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. In which directory are VNX audit logs located? A. /celerra/audit B. /nas/var/log C. /nas/log D. /var/log Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment? A. 2048 bits B. 1024 bits C. 2048 bytes D. 1024 bytes Answer: A Explanation: Question 10. Which authority (ies) signs certificates generated for Data Movers? A. Data Movers B. External CA, Control Station C. Management server D. Data Movers, management server Answer: B Explanation:
|
Question 1. Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.) A. Intel single core processors B. AMD dual core processors C. AMD quad core processors D. Inteldual core processors Answer: A, D Question 2. How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server? A. 2 channels B. 3channels C. 4channels D. 6 channels Answer: D Question 3. On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located? A. processor socket B. processor core C. HyperTransport Bus D. Front Side Bus Answer: B Question 4. Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.) A. chipset B. PCI-e cards C. hard drives D. CPU E. fans Answer: A, D Question 5. A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive size presented to the operating system? A. 292GB B. 438GB C. 584GB D. 730GB Answer: B Question 6. Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem? A. Sun Solaris B. Windows Server 2008 R2x64 Enterprise Edition C. Novell NetWare 6.5 D. Novell SLES 10 Answer: A Question 7. Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors? A. Extreme Digital (xD) B. Secure Digital (SD) C. Compact Flash (CF) D. PCI-express (PCIe) Answer: B Question 8. For the Intel x5570Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x" preceding the processor model number indicate? A. extreme performance B. lowerwattage C. turbo boost performance D. highperformance/wattage Answer: D Question 9. In which log are Array POST errors recorded? A. Windows Event Log B. Integrated Management Log C. IPMI Log D. Onboard Administrator Log Answer: B Question 10. What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.) A. firmwareversion B. OEM hard drive vendor C. RAID stripe size D. HardwareErrorLogs E. SmartArray driver version Answer: A, C, D
|
Question 1. Question 2. Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which type of classifier is being used in this CoS configuration? A. behavior aggregate B. policer C. multifield D. forwarding policy Answer: C Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos/junos56/swconfig56-interfaces/html/cosoverview3. html http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos/junos56/swconfig56-interfaces/html/cosoverview4. html Question 3. Which command do you use to go from the shell prompt to the CLI prompt? A. run cli B. cli C. start cli D. edit Answer: B Explanation: Reference: just see example: root@195.184.192.231's password: --- JUNOS 9.5R4.3 built 2010-02-16 08:09:40 UTC root@rc2% cli root@rc2.au.glk> Question 4. When using the monitor traffic command on Junos devices, which UNIX-based utility is accessed? A. snoop B. tcpdump C. monitor D. tail Answer: C Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/junos-es/junos-es93/junos-es-admin-guide/using-themonitor-traffic-command.html Question 5. What is the default import routing policy for OSPF? A. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet 3 routing table. B. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet7.0 routing table C. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet4.0 routing table D. Accept all OSPF routes and install them into the inet.0 routing table. Answer: D Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos10.0/information-products/topic-collections/configguide-policy/policy-protocol-import-export-defaults.html#id-10113228 Question 6. Which three user authentication methods are supported by the Junos OS? (Choose three.) A. RADIUS B. CHAP C. local user database D. TACACS+ E. PAP Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Reference: http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos9.5/information-products/topic-collections/swconfigsystem-basics/authentication-order-authentication-methods-overview.html Question 7. What represents the binary equivalence of 207? A. 11001111 B. 11101011 C. 11010111 D. 11010101 Answer: A Question 8. What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded? A. root authentication B. default gateway C. hostname D. management services Answer: A Question 9. Which account is used to access a Junos device in factory-default configuration? A. root B. admin C. juniper D. user Answer: A Question 10. You need to control SSH. HTTP, and Telnet access to an MX240 router through any interface. You have decided to use a firewall filter. How should you apply the firewall filter? A. as an outbound filter on interface fxp0 B. as an outbound filter on interface lo0 C. as an inbound filter on interface fxp0 D. as an inbound filter on interface lo0 Answer: D
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.