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Question 1.
Cisco Intrusion Detection Systems include host and network sensors.
Which two additional sensors are offered? (Choose two)
A. switch sensors
B. reboot sensors
C. firewall sensors
D. power failure sensors
Answer: A, C
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/cc/pd/sqsw/sqidsz/
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Question 1.
Before launching the Application Publishing Wizard, what must be done to publish a package?
A. The package deployment schedule must be set.
B. The location of the package must be identified.
C. The target servers must be specified.
D. The package must be added to the Presentation Server Console.
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which two Health Monitoring and Recovery tests are enabled by default? (Choose two.)
A. Citrix SMA Service
B. Citrix XML Service
C. Citrix IMA Service
D. Citrix XTE Server Service
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
The administrator who installs the ADF packages on the target servers must have ______ and ______. (Choose the two phrases that complete the sentence correctly.)
A. administrative access to the network share point server
B. read access to the target servers
C. read access to the network share point server
D. administrative access to the target servers
E. read access to the packager server
F. administrative access to the packager server
Answer: C, D
Question 4.
A large medical research company ITCertKeys.com wants to reduce the high CPU usage on their servers in order to improve the user experience. Most users work with a web-based tool that is graphic-intensive. They work with files that need to be accessed from multiple locations and by multiple users so that researchers can access the files as they make their rounds through clinics.
What should the administrator implement to meet the company's requirements?
A. Application limits
B. Published desktops
C. Server-to-client content redirection
D. Client-to-server content redirection
Answer: C
Question 5:
The Citrix Administrator at a ITCertKeys.com plans on deploying a web-based cataloging application consisting of new items under development. The application includes JPEG images of product prototypes alongside detailed descriptions. This application will be accessed by a group of engineers from remote field sites with limited network bandwidth. This application will only be provided by means of a single set of servers running Presentation Server that will be deployed within the new server farm. Access to the data source is controlled so that data queries may originate only from the servers running Presentation Server. The JPEG images are large files and users require graphical detail even when using dial-up, wireless WAN, or other slow connections.
Which three SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration options should be configured at the server farm level? (Choose three.)
A. Determine when to compress
B. Enable SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
C. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to high
D. Compress JPEG images to improve bandwidth and set the compression level to low
E. Use farm settings for SpeedScreen Browser Acceleration
Answer: A, B, D
Question 6.
ITCertKeys.com recently implemented Citrix Presentation Server. The company plans to use the shadowing feature to improve their help desk activities. Specifically, the company wants the help desk personnel to be able to shadow all users in the company's domain and manipulate their work stations remotely. For security and privacy reasons, the company wants to ensure that users must accept shadowing before help desk personnel can shadow them. During the Presentation Server installation, the administrator allowed shadowing but did not configure any settings for remote control or shadow acceptance. The administrator has just created a policy titled "Shadowing."
Which two steps are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit remote input when being shadowed.
B. Enable shadowing in a policy and prohibit being shadowed without notification.
C. Enable permissions for all help desk users and set status to allow.
D. Enable permissions for all users and set status to allow.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
Which two statements are true when an administrator associates published applications with file types and then assigns them to users? (Choose two.)
A. All files of an associated type encountered in locally running applications are opened with
applications running on the server when users run the Program Neighborhood Agent.
B. The client passes the name of the published content file to the local viewer application when
users run the Program Neighborhood Agent.
C. Content published on servers is opened with applications published on servers when users
connect using the Program Neighborhood Agent.
D. The file type associations in the published applications are copied to the registry of the client
device when users connect using the Web Interface.
Answer: A, C
Question 8.
When configuring Virtual Memory Optimization, it is best to configure an optimization time ______________. (Choose the appropriate option to complete the sentence.)
A. when the administrator can manually monitor the process
B. that precedes a scheduled reboot
C. of high or maximum usage
D. of low or no usage
Answer: D
Question 9.
A network administrator at ITCertKeys.com created a policy for the Human Resources group called "HR standard" which restricts the users in that group from accessing their local drives. Human Resources has recently added five new recruiters to the team who will travel to universities throughout the country to recruit candidates. While on these trips, the recruiters will need to save data on their laptops and upload information nightly. The administrator creates a new policy for the recruiters called "HR recruitment" and disables the rule which restricts access to the local drives.
Which two steps are required to ensure that the recruiters are able to access their local drives? (Choose two.)
A. Filter the HR recruitment policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access
B. Filter the HR standard policy by users, specify the five recruiter accounts and allow access
C. Rank the HR recruitment policy higher than the HR standard policy
D. Rank the HR standard policy higher than the HR recruitment policy
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
A newly published web-based application calls a Java applet to support audio interaction with other users. The application requires Virtual IP in order to function properly. Users launched the published web browser successfully; however, only the first user on the server could initialize the audio portion. Other Java-based applications on the same servers functioned correctly.
Which option will best address this problem?
A. Remove the servers from the Virtual Loopback list and re-add them to read the new
configuration.
B. Increase the IP range for Virtual IP addresses to allow for the added users.
C. Configure the correct Java runtime path for Virtual IP loopback.
D. Add the entries directly to the registry instead of the Management Console to implement the
new Virtual IP configuration.
Answer: C
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Question 1. How many cache groups can be used in Transparent Cache Switching: A. 5 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2 Answer: B Question 2. Session Capacity Threshold defines: A. The percent of remaining sessions available on the ServerIron B. The total number of sessions used on the ServerIron C. The total number of sessions that are configured on the real servers D. The total session capacity of the ServerIron Answer: A Question 3. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server C. The application cannot be found D. The VIP is bound to the real server E. The application needs to be bound to the real server Answer: D Question 4. Using show server real, if you see UNBND: A. The application is bound to the VIP B. The application cannot be found C. The application needs to be bound to the real server D. The application port for the real server is not bound to the real server E. The VIP is bound to the real server Answer: E Question 5. Filters on the ServerIron configured for Server Load Balancing are: A. Set to drop any connections specified by the filter B. Applied to packets directed to the VIP C. Used to redirect packets to the Internet D. Set to drop traffic to or from specified ports Answer: B Question 6. When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers A. False B. True Answer: A Question 7. What is the default SLB behavior for Server Load Balancing for packets from the ServerIron to the real server? Choices: 1) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real serverIP b. Source translate the clients IP address 2) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination translates address from the VIP to the real server IP b.Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged 3) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination leave the clients IP address unchanged b. Source Translate the real server IP address into a VIP address 4) Packets from the ServerIron to the real server a. Destination Leave the real server IP address unchanged b. Source leaves the clients IP address unchanged A. 4 B. 2 C. 1 D. 3 Answer: B Question 8. Configuring a remote server as primary will include it: A. As the primary remote backup server B. As the primary backup server C. In the VIP balancing with the local servers D. As the server to access when all the locals have failed Answer: C Question 9. What ServerIron CLI command enables FWLB for TCP. A. ip policy 1 fw tcp 0 global B. ip policy 1 fw tcp 1 global C. ip policy 1 fw udp 1 global D. server fw-port 5 Answer: A Question 10. When configuring Hot Standby Redundancy, the configuration from one ServerIron can be copied to another ServerIron exactly except for: A. The management address and the MAC address B. The MAC address C. The sync-link address D. The management address Answer: D
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Question 1. To which level of the storage configuration hierarchy do the read and write cache policies apply on the MSA2000? A. virtual disk B. array C. physical disk D. volume Answer: D Question 2. You recently upgraded to CommandView EVA v7 and changed the password to pa$$word01. You can no longer manage the EVA5000. What is a possible cause? A. The password contains unsupported characters. B. The password contains fewer than 12 characters. C. The password requires at least one uppercase character. D. The password contains more than 8 characters. Answer: D Question 3. What is a hidden MSA2000 volume that contains preallocated reserve space for snapshot data? A. snap pool B. master volume C. target volume D. rollback pool Answer: A Question 4. What is the EVAperf default setting for collecting data? A. every second B. every 5 seconds C. every 15 seconds D. every 10 seconds Answer: D Question 5. After a power outage, the MSA2000 controller powers up while some member disks of a RAID set are still unavailable. Which disaster recovery function attempts to get the associated LUN online? A. Refresh Disk Blocks B. Dequarantine Virtual Disk C. ReInitialize Disk Blocks D. Trust Virtual Disk Answer: D Question 6. What is the minimum version of CommandView to enable all the features of controller firmware XCS 6.10? A. CommandView EVA 6.02 B. CommandView EVA 7.0 C. CommandView EVA 6.1 D. CommandView EVA 6.0 Answer: B Question 7. What is the maximum size LUN that can be created on the EVA4400 at initial release? A. 2TB B. 16TB C. 1TB D. 32TB Answer: A Question 8. DRAG DROP Match each customer requirement with the appropriate HP StorageWorks solution Answer: Explanation: Question 9. You are installing an MSA2012fc storage solution at a customer site. The manual addition of a global spare disk fails. What is the most probable reason for the failure? A. No virtual disk exists on the system. B. Global spares must be added in pairs. C. Global spare disks must reside in the same enclosure as thevdisks. D. Unassigned disks are automatically used as global spares. Answer: A Question 10. Which items can be part of a disk group on an HP StorageWorks EVA for a successful online disk drive code load? (Select two.) A. unprotected RSS B. Vraid0 LUN C. Vraid5 LUN D. reconstructing disk group E. Vraid1 LUN Answer: C, E
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Question 1. The business value of data can change over time. Which concept is helpful to revalue such data? A. long-term data replication B. data revision tracking C. one-button data restoration D. policy-based data movement Answer: D Question 2. You work as a network engineer. You study the exhibit carefully. You are extending a SAN fabric at customer site using Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) devices. How many hops does a data packet perform when using this interconnect? Exhibit: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Answer: A Question 3. What is a key influence in HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition purchasing decisions? A. simplicity of handling provisioning tasks B. simplified XP storage management C. storage reporting for UNIX, Windows, and Linux hosts D. simplified EVA storage management Answer: D Question 4. HP Data Protector Software and Veritas NetBackup are installed on the same host. What is the result of a CIM discovery? A. No backup applications will be discovered. B. Both applications will be discovered and can work in parallel. C. OnlyVeritas NetBackup will be discovered by default. D. Only HP Data Protector will be discovered by default. Answer: B Question 5. What are HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition plug-ins? (Select two.) A. Provisioning Manager B. Policy Viewer C. Database Viewer D. Global Reporter Viewer E. File System Viewer Answer: C, E Question 6. What must you ensure when starting the CIM Extension manually in Linux operating systems? A. Any discovery processes must be stopped. B. You must be logged in with root privileges. C. All other CIM daemons must be stopped. D. The HP Storage Essentials SRM must be set up to run in auto mode. Answer: B Question 7. How many global spares can you designate for an MSA2012fc storage system? A. 8 B. 6 C. 4 D. 2 Answer: A Question 8. What is the first step in HP ILM methodology assessment? A. Perform a complete data backup. B. Determine archival needs as specified by government-enforced policy. C. Classify important data. D. Determine existing storage volume and estimate future growth Answer: C Question 9. For which type of storage I/O does HP recommend using a separate Ethernet network? A. HPStorageWorks Continuous Access mirrored I/O B. data migration C. ad hoc I/O data updates D. HPStorageWorks Business Copy snapshot Answer: A Question 10. In an HP StorageWorks EVA, when is a log disk considered full? (Select two.) A. when it reaches 2TB of Vraid1 B. when it reaches 1TB of Vraid1 C. when no free space remains on theVdisk in DR group D. when the disk group triggers occupancy alarm E. when there is no free space in the disk group Answer: A, E
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Question 1. A customer is concerned about growth of the company's HP Data Protector Software database. Which tool will address this concern? A. HP StorageWorks sizing tool B. HP Data Protector database sizer C. Database Configuration Worksheet D. Capacity Planning Spreadsheet Answer: D Question 2. What is the term for a configuration where failure of a single component does not cause failure of the entire system? A. hot-swappable B. NSPOF C. high availability D. SFP Answer: B Question 3. You are proposing an HP Storage Essentials SRM Enterprise Edition solution for a customer environment using only Oracle databases. You have decided to design a single server deployment. What is another term for this configuration? A. shared B. dedicated C. mixed D. isolated Answer: A Question 4. Which HP Storage Essentials SRM pluG. ins are available for the Enterprise Edition, but not for Standard Edition? (Select three.) A. Report Designer B. Backup Manager C. Provisioning Manager D. NAS Manager E. Database Viewer F. Chargeback Manager Answer: A, C, F Question 5. Which statement is correct about Remote Web Console? A. It can manage all XP firmware based software. B. It can provide centralized management of multiple XP arrays. C. Licensing is tier based on a per TB basis. D. It provides SAN level management. Answer: A Question 6. When must a customer use HP StorageWorks Command View XP Advanced Edition over Remote Web Console XP? A. for CLI based array management B. for centralized management of multiple XP arrays C. for Business Copy XP management D. for simple LUN management Answer: B Question 7. You are designing a backup solution for an Enterprise customer. Which ratio between host feed speed and tape write speed is required for optimal performance in compressed mode? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 Answer: C Question 8. Which HP document provides current configuration rules for HP storage connectivity in a SAN environment? A. San Visibility Tool B. SAN Design Reference Guide C. EBS Compatibility Matrix D. Quick Specs Answer: B Question 9. Which VLS6000 feature allows data movement to a physical library or another virtual library system? A. Automigration B. Virtual Tape Device Mirroring C. Virtual Cartridge Copy D. Deduplication Answer: A Question 10. DRAG DROP Click the Task button. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Match the HP Network Attached Storage products with the appropriate customer environment and target market. Answer: Explanation:
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Question 1. What is the maximum number of users that can be logged into an MSA2012 (FC or iSCSI) controller at any one time? A. 1 monitor and 5 manage B. 4 monitor and 2 manage C. 2 monitor and 3 manage D. 5 monitor and 1 manage Answer: D Question 2. What is the maximum affordable amount of business data loss? A. Risk Tlerance Limit B. Recovery point objective C. Critical mass of information D. Business continuity threshold Answer: B Question 3. You are installing an MSA2012i array. The customer asks about the data protection features of the new array. Which capabilities does it have? A. 64 snapshots and 64 volume copies B. 64 snapshots and 128 volume copies C. 128 snapshots and 64 volume copies D. 128 snapshots and 128 volume copies Answer: B Question 4. Click the Exhibit button. Which functions does a Network Storage Router (NSR) provide? Exhibit: A. Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge B. Data encryption to the tape device C. Backup accelerator for 2Gb SANs D. Two-stage backup capabilities for SAN environments Answer: A Question 5. Which components can be managed through the management software of the MSA2000 family? (Select Two) A. Vdisk B. Disk Group C. Data Replication D. Snap pool Answer: A, D Question 6. What is a volume copy? A. A full copy of target data B. Backup copy of source data C. A full allocation copy of all volume source data D. Full copy of all configured volumes Answer: C Question 7. Which type of software is the HP StorageWorks MSA Storage Management Utility? A. Target based web application B. Serial based web application C. Java based secure management D. Windows based remote connectivity Answer: A Question 8. What does MPIO do if the Device Specific Module (DSM) returns an inactive path? A. Initiates a path failover B. Performs automatic path verification C. Removes the path from the load balancing policy D. Changes the storage LUN to write-through mode Answer: A Question 9. What is the maximum acceptable time interval for business data unavailability? A. Installation of backup procedure B. Recovery point objective C. Half an hour down time D. During off times maximum 30 minutes Answer: B Question 10. Which component enables access to block storage on a Fiber Channel SAN across an Ethernet network? A. Ethernet Switch B. Fibre Channel Switch C. FC-IP gateway connector D. iSCSI to Fiber Channel bridge Answer: D
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Question 1. For disaster recovery, many customers require that data be replicated to remote sites. What is an advantage in terms of backup operations? A. There is no need to transport tapes between sites. B. The production site only needs to perform a point-in-time copy. C. Data corruption from the primary site cannot be replicated to the secondary site. D. Backup jobs can be run at the secondary site on the replicated data to avoid overhead on the production server. Answer: D Question 2. In addition to drivers and the backup application, which software component is crucial for bringing a multiserver solution together in an EBS? A. open file software B. client agent software C. device sharing software D. database agent software Answer: C Question 3. Which advantages does a tape library offer over a standalone tape drive? (Select three.) A. increased capacity B. increased automation C. decreased LAN utilization D. increased device reliability E. increased remote device management capabilities Answer: A, B, E Question 4. How does the HP StorageWorks Enterprise Backup Solution provide increased stability, adaptability, performance, seamless and faster integration? A. by using existing LAN topologies with network-attached storage devices (NAS) B. through high-speed, single-server communication to tape devices using direct-attached SCSI C. by exclusively using HP hardware and software components which were extensively tested and supported D. through centralized backup of multiple servers, at local backup speeds, over aFibre Channel storage network to tape libraries Answer: D Question 5. A server attached to SAN Switch 16 is unable to discover a tape library. What is a possible cause? A. TheFibre Channel SAN Switch has an incorrect IP configuration. B. One of the SCSI connections on the MDR does not have a terminator. C. Thecfglibrary command was not typed at the AMC prompt of the MDR. D. The type of SCSI module in the MDR (HVD/LVD) does not match the tape library SCSI interface. Answer: D Question 6. Which tool can receive SNMP traps and events from a Command View server (or tape library) and can launch Command View from the context of a trap? A. HP Storage Essentials B. HP Library & Tape Tools C. HP Systems Insight Manager D. HPOpenView Storage Media Operations Answer: C Question 7. What is the appropriate tool to gather further information when a robotics failure occurs? A. Library Exerciser B. Element Status Test C. Library Troubleshooting Flowchart D. Library POST (Power on self test) Answer: A Question 8. When experiencing a problem with a storage product, why does HP recommend generating a support ticket with HP Library and Tape Tools (L&TT) rather than performing only a device analysis test? A. The resulting data is presented in a more useful format. B. The device analysis test does not report media problems. C. L&TT connects to the HP support site to search for a solution. D. HP Support is automatically informed about the problem symptoms. Answer: A Question 9. Using the EBS troubleshooting flowcharts, what should you do first when a tape drive or library is not seen from the management tool of the Fibre Channel-to-SCSI bridge? A. Check the SCSI cable connections. B. Verify the presence of the HBA in device manager. C. Restore the router to the factory-default configuration. D. Check if theFibre Channel port speed is set correctly. Answer: A Question 10. You are designing a LAN backup solution for a customer who wants to back up AVI video files. What should be considered to achieve maximum backup performance? A. Disable push agents. B. Turn off tape drive compression. C. Turn on client agent compression. D. Set the tape drive to small block sizes. Answer: B
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Question 1. What is an example of a stress test? A. purchasing at anE.commerce site B. updating orders on a client/server system C. viewing upcoming flight itineraries on a flight reservation application D. displaying the home page immediately after a marketing promotion has been run Answer: D Question 2. When scheduling a scenario, which run modes are available in the Controller? (Select two.) A. Group B. Scenario C. Duration D. Global Schedule E. Real-Life schedule F. Run Until Complete Answer: E, F Question 3. You want to control the delay between iterations. Where do you set this in the Run-time settings? A. General: Pacing B. General: Think Time C. Network: Speed Simulation D. Browser: Browser Emulation Answer: A Question 4. Which level of concurrency identifies how many users are currently in the process of buying a ticket? A. system B. application C. transaction D. business process Answer: D Question 5. What is the appropriate scenario outline if your quantitative goal is to attain 2,500 concurrent users for the Update transaction during peak time? A. Load test should achieve 2,500 users only. B. Script should define the Update transaction only. C. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2,500 users. D. Script should define the Update transaction, and the load test should achieve 2.500 concurrent users. Answer: D Question 6. Which option in the Analysis tool allows you to see the results of two graphs from the same load test scenario in a single graph? A. Drill Down B. Apply Filter C. Merge Graphs D. Auto Correlate Answer: C Question 7. What is the LoadRunner term for varying values defined in a placeholder that replaces the hard. coded values? A. variable B. constant C. parameter D. correlation Answer: C Question 8. Which scenario run is recommended to set the Run-time setting to Standard Logging? A. Debug B. Full Load C. Top Time D. Scalability Answer: C Question 9. What is the first indication of a performance problem? A. The network delay time is above 15ms. B. The DMG is not resolving the machine name. C. The Web server's available memory drops below 1 GB. D. The end userexpenences higherthan expected response times. Answer: D Question 10. How can you validate that the LoadRunner Agent is running on the load generator? A. Port 443 will be open. B. The MlFW.exe process will be running. C. The radar dish will appear in the system tray. D. The load generator will be pinged using the name/DNS/IP. Answer: C
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Question 1.
What is the Draft-Kompella control plane based on?
A. IGP
B. LDP
C. MPLS
D. BGP
Answer: D
Question 2.
A router receives an IPv6 packet which is 2000 bytes in length. The MTU of the outgoing interface is 1500 bytes.
What action will the router take?
A. fragments the packet
B. forwards the packet
C. drops the packet and sends an ICMP message
D. drops the packet silently
Answer: C
Question 3.
In which two ways can you influence how downstream LSRs treat MPLS traffic? (Choose two.)
A. Use a DSCP rewrite table.
B. Statically assign a CoS value to an RSVP-signaled LSP.
C. Statically assign a CoS value to an LDP-signaled LSP.
D. Use an EXP rewrite table.
Answer: B, D
Question 4.
What is the use of MSDP across multiple PIM domains?
A. It advertises RPs to all downstream routers.
B. It advertises active multicast sources.
C. It prevents multicast routing loops.
D. It scopes multicast traffic.
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which two statements are true when configuring a domain-id ? (Choose two.)
A. The default OSPF domain-id is 127.0.0.1
B. For a layer 3 VPN connecting multiple OSPF domains, configuring a domain-id can help
Control LSA translations
C. In most cases, a domain-id must be configured
D. In most cases, you do not need to configure a domain-id
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Into which protocol are LDP hello messages encapsulated?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP
D. MPLS
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which two forwarding classes have bandwidth assigned when CoS is not explicitly configured in JUNOS software? (Choose two.)
A. Network control (NC)
B. Assured forwarding (AF)
C. Expedited forwarding (EF)
D. Best effort (BE)
Answer: A, D
Question 8.
In JUNOS software, which type of encapsulation is required on a PE router for the CE-facing interface in a Martini-based VPN?
A. ATM
B. CCC
C. Ethernet
D. HDLC
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which routing table stores IPv6 routes?
A. inet.2
B. inet.0
C. inet.v6
D. inet6.0
E. ip-net.0
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which three authentication options does IS-IS support? (Choose three.)
A. unauthenticated
B. MD5
C. Kerberos
D. simple password
E. DES
Answer: A, B, D
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