Web Services Development for IBM WebSphere Application Server V6.1
Question 1.
Which task can the _setProperty method in the javax.xml.rpc.Stub interface be used to perform?
A. To configure the document style in the SOAP message
B. To change the parameter of a Web service operation
C. To modify the target service endpoint address
D. To enable Transport Level Security (TLS)
Answer: C
Question 2.
WSDL faults are mapped to which three Java classes?
A. javax.wsdl.WSDLFault
B. javax.wsdl.WSDLException
C. java.rmi.RemoteException
D. javax.xml.rpc.handler.Exception
E. javax.xml.rpc.soap.SOAPFaultException
F. Service-specific Java exception
Answer: C, E, F
Question 3.
Which describes a Java return type for a Java method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which interface in SAAJ generically represents any literal part in a SOAP message?
A. javax.xml.soap.Text
B. javax.xml.soap.Node
C. javax.xml.soap.DetailEntry
D. javax.xml.soap.SOAPElement
E. javax.xml.soap.SOAPBodyElement
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which is NOT a prerequisite for a service implementation defined in a Session EJB Web service?
A. The Session EJB must have a default public constructor.
B. The remote interface of the Session EJB must implement the endpoint interface.
C. The Session EJB must have a default EJB create method.
D. The Session EJB must have one or more remote methods.
Answer: B
Question 6.
What is out of scope for the JSR 921 specification?
A. SOAP 1.1 and SOAP with Attachments (SwA)
B. WSDL 1.1
C. UDDI 1.0
D. Basic reliable message semantics
Answer: D
Question 7.
By default, which security token type does WebSphere Application Server V6.1 NOT support?
A. username token
B. binary security token, including the X.509 certificate
C. LTPA token
D. Kerberos token
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which three are WS-Security wizards in Rational Application Developer V7.0?
A. Add XML Encryption
B. Add XML Signature
C. Add WS Federation
D. Add WS Secure Conversation
E. Add WS Security Policy
F. Add Stand Alone Security Token
G. Add SAML Support
Answer: A, B, F
Question 9.
In WebSphere Application Server V6.1, 'trust method' is part of which collection?
A. Required Integrity
B. Required Confidentiality
C. Required security token
D. Caller
E. Add time stamp
Answer: D
Question 10.
Which server-side configuration task should be performed to reduce the chances of a replay attack?
A. Add a binary security token in the Request Generator Configuration -> Security Token section
B. Require a timestamp in the Request Consumer Configuration -> Add Timestamp section
C. Add a nonce word to encrypted parts, through the Request Generator Configuration ->
Confidentiality section
D. Require a nonce word in digital signatures, through the Request Consumer Configuration ->
Required Integrity section
Answer: D
Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
An administrator has deployed a new virtual machine on an ESXi 5.x host. Users are complaining of poor performance on the application running on the virtual machine. Performance tools display the results shown in the exhibit.
Which two tasks might improve the user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Add a vCPU to the virtual machine
B. Remove CPU affinity on the advanced CPU setting of the virtual machine
C. Migrate the virtual machine to another ESXi host
D. Remove the limit on the CPU settings of the virtual machine
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
The picture shows CPU at 100% in VM, not CPU shortage on ESX server. A, D – these 2 options both increase the amount of CPU allocated to VM B,C – these 2 options change the physical CPU allocated to VM, but this was not the problem shown
Question 2.
An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory.
Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Memory Resources panel lets you allocate memory resources for a virtual machine and specify reservations, limits, and shares. Symbolic values Low, Normal, High, and Custom are compared to the sum of all shares of all virtual machines on the server and, on an ESX host, the service console. By decreasing the memory share of a particular system, it receives less memory out of the total available memory.
Question 3.
An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Reason for not protected status Description
Starting Fault Tolerance is in the process of starting the Secondry VM. This is message is only visibale for a short period of time.
Need Secondary VM
[ C above ] The Primary VM is running without a Secondary VM, so the Primary VM is Currently not protected. This generally occurs when there is no compatible host in the duster available for the Secondary VM. Correct this by bringing a compatible host online. If there is a compatible host online in the cluster further investigation might be required. Under certain circumstances, disabling Fault Tolerance and then re-enabling it corrects this problem.
Disabled
[ A above ] Fault Tolerance is currently disabled (no Secondary VM is running). This happends when Fault Tolerance is disabled by the user or when vCenter Server disableds Fault Tolarance after being unable to power on the Secondary VM.
VM not Running Fault Tolerance is enbled but the virtual machine is powered off Power on the virtual machine to reach Protected state.
untitled
Table 3-2. Reasons for Primary VM Not Protected Status
Part 3: Create and Configure Resource Pools (14 questions).
Question 4.
Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 5.
An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.
Which three options are available? (Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
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Question 6.
ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
If you make reservations for your virtual machine’s that are equal to the amount of RAM assigned to them, swapping and page sharing does not occur. You can over commit pretty heavily if you are comfortable with poorer performance. If you do not set reservations, ESX host creates a .vswp file equal to the difference between the amount of physical memory assigned to the virtual machine and the reservation it has. By default, memory reservations are set to 0. If you have a virtual machine with 2GB of memory without a reservation, it creates a 2GB .vswp file when it is powered on. The virtual machine starts using the .vswp file if the server is out of physical RAM. If you set a 1GB reservation, it creates a 1GB .vswp file. The .vswp files are what allows for memory overcommitment.
Question 7.
What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
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http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-
50/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc_50/GUID-3B5AF2B1-C534-4426-
B97A-D14019A8010F.html
Question 8.
Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on the datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A, B, E
Explanation:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1020651
http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/topic/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50/GUID-
38F95285-DB4F-462F-AFD7-0F4D812B085F.html
Question 9.
An administrator has just finished deploying a vApp for a web service.
What three options are available to the administrator for IP allocation within the vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Transient
B. Fixed
C. DHCP
D. Bridged
E. NAT
Answer: A, B, C
Explanation:
Option Description
untitled
Question 10.
An administrator is working to implement Storage Profiles in their environment.
Which two ways can storage capabilities be generated? (Choose two.)
A. They are generated by Datastore Clusters as LUNs are added to the cluster.
B. They are automatically determined by the Storage Profile when it is created.
C. They can be retrieved from the array through the VMware APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA).
D. They can be manually generated by the administrator.
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Understanding Storage Capabilities
A storage capability outlines the quality of service that a storage system can deliver. It is a guarantee that the storage system can provide a specific set of characteristics for capacity, performance, availability, redundancy, and so on. If a storage system uses Storage APIs – Storage Awareness, it informs vCenter Server that it can guarantee a specific set of storage features by presenting them as a storage capability. VCenter Server recognizes the capability and adds it to the list of storage capabilities in the Manage Storage Capabilities dialog box. Such storage capabilities are system-defined. vCenter Server assigns the system-defined storage capability to each datastore that you create from that storage system.
NOTE:
Because multiple system capabilities for a datastore are not supported, a datastore that spans several extents assumes the system capability of only one of its extents. You can create user-defined storage capabilities and associate them with datastores. You should associate the same user-defined capability with datastores that guarantee the same level of storage capabilities. You can associate a user-defined capability with a datastore that already has a system-defined capability. A datastore can have only one system-defined and only one userdefined capability at a time.
Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C, D, E
Explanation:
Question 4.
How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 5.
In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C, D
Explanation:
Question 8
A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the desktop while updating it. After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 10.
An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 1.
While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques.
Which of the following BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not work for them.
Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 3
An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the question asked.
Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather. The general mood of the learners is poor.
Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure.
Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught.
Which of the following should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying attention or participating.
Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 8.
The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning stops working.
Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 9.
At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room. If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y computers present to the user.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 1.
Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols.
Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?
A. Connect the WAP to a different switch
B. Create a voice VLAN
C. Create a DMZ
D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which of the following security tools can Jane, a security administrator, use to deter theft?
A. Virtualization
B. Cable locks
C. GPS tracking
D. Device encryption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which of the following can be implemented on a laptop hard drive to help prevent unauthorized access to data?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Key escrow
C. Screen lock
D. Data loss prevention
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which of the following network devices allows Jane, a security technician, to perform malware inspection?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Firewall
D. NIPS
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
The accounting department needs access to network share A to maintain a number of financial reporting documents. The department also needs access to network share B in HR to view payroll documentation for cross-referencing items. Jane, an administrative assistant, needs access to view one document in network share A to gather data for management reports.
Which of the following gives accounting and Jane the correct rights to these areas?
A. Accounting should be given read/write access to network share A and read access to network share B. Jane should be given read access for the specific document on network share A.
B. Accounting should be given read/write access to network share A and read access to network share B. Jane should be given read access to network share A.
C. Accounting should be given full access to network share A and read access to network share B. Jane should be given read/write access for the specific document on network share A.
D. Accounting should be given full access to network share A and read access to network share B. Jane should be given read/write access to network share A.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
Which of the following creates ciphertext by changing the placement of characters?
A. Transposition cryptography
B. Hashing
C. Elliptical cryptography
D. Digital signatures
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which of the following malware types uses stealth techniques to conceal itself, cannot install itself without user interaction, and cannot automatically propagate?
A. Rootkit
B. Logic bomb
C. Adware
D. Virus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 9.
When Pete, an employee, leaves a company, which of the following should be updated to ensure Pete's security access is reduced or eliminated?
A. RSA
B. CA
C. PKI
D. CRL
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which of the following should Matt, an administrator, change FIRST when installing a new access point?
A. SSID broadcast
B. Encryption
C. DHCP addresses
D. Default password
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 1.
A user reports that their computer is running considerably slower after visiting a website. The user's PC has a current antivirus package that is running correctly.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST in order to diagnose the problem?
A. Clear the web browser history.
B. Run an anti-spyware tool.
C. Defrag the user's hard drive.
D. Run the CHKDSK utility.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which of the following protocols would a technician use to run commands on a remote computer?
A. NETBIOS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TELNET
Answer: D
Question 3.
Which of the following groups should a user be added to for the ability to restore files, without granting any ownership privileges?
A. Remote Desktop Users
B. Power Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
Answer: D
Question 4.
A customer wants to change the file system on a Windows 2000 PC from FAT32 to NTFS without destroying data.
Which of the following is correct?
A. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /M
B. From the command line run FORMAT C: /FS:NTFS
C. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /-Y
D. From the command line run CONVERT C: /FS:NTFS
Answer: D
Question 5.
An inkjet printer has poor color registration. Which of the following should be done FIRST to resolve the problem?
A. Clean the printheads.
B. Replace the toner.
C. Calibrate the device.
D. Replace the drum.
Answer: C
Question 6.
A technician needs to upgrade memory on a laptop with one available memory slot. The type and amount of memory has been confirmed to be correct. Once the new memory is added, the BIOS reports the original memory size.
Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform?
A. Replace all of the laptop's memory.
B. Reseat the laptop memory.
C. Perform a Windows Update.
D. Replace the motherboard.
Answer: B
Question 7.
An assistant in a company unexpectedly falls ill the week before a major company merger. The assistant was responsible for maintaining all of the files concerning the merger and used NTFS permissions on the folders to keep them protected. No one has the passwords but the data must be accessed immediately.
Which of the following would be the BEST method for the technician to access this data?
A. Log in as administrator and copy the files to the assistant's manager profile on the computer.
B. Log in as administrator and assign ownership of the files to the assistant's manager.
C. Log in as administrator and assign share rights of the files to the assistant's manager.
D. Log in as administrator and rename the assistant's profile to the manager's profile on the computer.
Answer: B
Question 8.
A customer reports that their sound is not working. They state that the speakers worked previously.
Which of the following should the technician check? (Select THREE).
A. Speakers are in regulatory compliance.
B. Speakers are on and the mute is off.
C. Ensure the speakers are on the Windows HCL.
D. Verify the system has enough hard drive space.
E. The audio driver is installed correctly.
F. Speakers are plugged into the correct jack.
Answer: B, E, F
Question 9.
A technician is setting up a secure SOHO network.
Which of the following items needs to be setup on the network?
A. SSID, encryption type, MAC security, encryption key
B. SSID, wireless access point, encryption type, encryption key
C. SSID, encryption type, encryption key, a channel
D. SSID, WEP 128, MAC security, a channel
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which of the following is the effective bandwidth of a 100BASE-TX network card when full-duplex is enabled?
A. 50MBps
B. 100MBps
C. 200MBps
D. 1000MBps
Answer: C
Question 1.
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 6.
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 7.
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps".
What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 8.
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 1.
Which workstation on performance characteristic makes it a good fit for financial analysts and for trading floors?
A. tool-less chassis for easy serviceability
B. multi-socket multi-processor capabilities
C. small footprint to fit in confined spaces
D. flexible configurations with easy upgrades
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
During discovery you learn that your customer frequently runs multiple applications concurrently and they also run multi-threaded applications. The customer wants to ensure they are maximizing their performance.
Which HP workstation feature should you present as a part of the solution for this customer?
A. high speed and ECC Memory
B. latest high performing single core processors
C. multi-socket processor capabilities
D. high speed hard disk drivers with RAID
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 3.
Your healthcare customer indicates they need PACS capability. What area they referring to?
A. Patient Administrative and care system
B. Personnel Accounting Control System
C. Picture Archiving and Communication System
Answer: C
Reference:
http://www.medicexchange.com/PACS/medical-imaging-and-pacs.html
Question 4.
Your DME customer requires a computing solution that provides multiple processor sockets and has ECC memory. The solution must be able to expand as the customer’s needs change.
Which HP product (s) should you recommend this customer?
A. HP Compaq 6000 Pro Series
B. HP Compaq 8000 Elite Series
C. HP Z220/z420 Workstations
D. HP Z620/Z820 Workstation
Answer: D
Reference:
http://h20331.www2.hp.com/Hpsub/downloads/Z820_Product_Design_WP.pdf(page 1)
Question 5.
Your customer is a small engineering firm with 15 employees. They are currently running their CAD applications on a desktop PC that is three years old and they want to move to a more robust system. They also anticipate growth over the next 24 months and want the new solution to be able to support this growth.
A. HP Z220 Workstation
B. HP Compaq 8000 Elite Series
C. HP Compaq 2000 Pro Series
D. HP Compaq 6000 Pro series
Answer: B
Reference:
http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=2&ved=0CGYQFj
AB&url=http%3A%2F%2Fh41131.www4.hp.com%2Fmedia2.php%2FSwitzerland%2FPSG%2FH
P%2520Compaq%25208000%2520Elite%2FHP_Compaq_8000_Elite_Business_PC_Data_Sheet_EMEA.pdf%3Fdl%3D1&ei=bAULUPnCNseE4gTC8t3ECg&usg=AFQjCNHKluSuGZIkTzmrXeGtZXwTWxFqw
Question 6.
Which customer requirement might lead you to recommend an HP Z420 Workstation?
A. HP Service Support
B. single socket technology
C. number of displays supported
D. application ecosystem
Answer: C
Reference:
http://www.hp.com/unitedstates/campaigns/workstations/z420_features.html#.UAsGDTEe5tI
Explanation:
single socket is not a requirement generally. Businesses or individuals can require number of displays supported.
Question 7.
The healthcare market offers the opportunity to sell both PCs and workstations.
Which applications in the Healthcare market are best served with an HP Workstation?
A. medical imaging and review
B. patient records library
C. financial recordkeeping
D. medical suites and doctor officers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
Your customer is purchasing desktop computers for a group of power users. They Work with large data sets and frequently need to have multiple applications running concurrently. It is important that you help this customer differentiate between HP Desktop PCs and Workstations.
A. support for multiple displays
B. support for large ECC Memory configurations
C. Intel vPro management technology
D. choice of Microsoft or Linux Operating Systems and their or AMD processors
Answer: B
Reference:
http://h20271.www2.hp.com/SMB-AP/cache/122145-0-0-190-121.html(third paragraph
and 4th bulleted point on the page)
Question 9.
A Customer is considering desktop PCs for their solution.
You should recommend an HP Z420 Workstation if the customer has what requirement?
A. multiple display support
B. latest Intel architecture
C. 3D graphics requirement
D. form factor options
Answer: C
Reference:
http://www8.hp.com/uk/en/products/workstations/productdetail.
html?oid=5225033(Never Compromise on Graphics, first bulleted point)
Question 10.
Your customer is having difficulty deciding between an HP 8000 Elite Series and a Z220 Workstation solution for their design organization. They indicated that they do not see much deference between the two solutions.
What could you tell this customer that might influence them to select the HP Z220 Workstation?
A. The HP Z220 Workstation offers a broad selection of form factors that meet designer requirements.
B. The HP Z220 Workstation has high performance Intel Processors RAID configurations that make a difference to designers.
C. The rigorous 130,000 hours of testing assures the reliability demanded by designers.
D. HP Z220 Workstation meets designer demands with a system designed to support the latest 2D/3D graphics.
Answer: D
Reference:
http://www.hp.com/unitedstates/
campaigns/workstations/z220_features.html#.UAsJyjEe5tI(See the graphics tab)
Question 1.
To which component of a digital signage network does this definition apply?
"These are generally specialized appliances, based on PC hardware, with special software."
A. content management server
B. digital signage players
C. digital signage transmitters
D. digital signage displays
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 2.
The components of a digital signage system consist of Displays, Content Management Software, Servers, and what additional component?
A. PC Players
B. Internet Services
C. Security Solutions
D. Accountability Solutions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which statement is part of the HP Digital Signage Value Proposition?
A. HP Digital Signage products can be used as both a digital signage solution and a digital TV.
B. HP provides customers with a five year warranty and life cycle onall digital signage products.
C.HP Digital Signage products provide sweeping innovations that have made HP the market leader.
C. HP offers certified platforms and commercial grade components that meet demanding 24/7 needs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 4.
What are two key facts you should use to overcome an objection from a customer who plans to use a TV for their digital signage needs? (Select two.)
A. HP Digital Signage can present an image in landscape or portrait orientation.
B. HP Digital Signage displays provide a richer and truer digital image by using more liquid crystals.
C. HP Digital Signage supports IR Remote Control to help prevent accidental changes to displayed information
D. HP Digital Signage is designed for 24/7 use.
E. The controls on an HP Digital Signage product are easily located and simplify changes that a user wants to make.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Many digital signage customers are looking for a quantitative return on investment. Others seek only to achieve a business objective. Which HP Digital Signage target customer group has "return on objective" as their number one reason for investing in the solution?
A. In-store merchandising
B. In-store point-of-purchase advertising/promotion
C. Digital-Out-of-Home (DOOH) advertising networks
D. Information/Entertainment networks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 6.
What makes HP a good choice as a digital signage solution provider?
A. HP has a broad portfolio, key partnerships, and a global service organization
B. HP offers hardware and content management software.
C. HP offers content creation services.
D. HP offers PCs and Thin Clients to drive Digital Signage.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
What is the typical role of a VAR in the digital signage ecosystem?
A. write and publish digital signage software
B. modify internal digital signage components
C. integrate digital signage hardware and software
D. manufacture digital signage hardware
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 8.
What is the preferred way to describe HP Digital Signage with the Scala Quick Start other than being an ideal player (or Scala Enterprise networks) ?
A. It is an ideal solution for very large deployments.
B. It provides a full turn-key solution for small deployments and SMB.
C. The QuickStart package includes physical installation of displays
D. It enhances the color pallet displayable on the screen.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which digital signage solution approach uses a USB Thumb Drive and has no scheduling or control of content delivery?
A. HP Software Driven Media Playing
B. Simple Content Loop
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which digital signage solution architecture uses PC based players combined with a server and will meet the need of customers who want complete control of the infrastructure of their digital signage network?
A. Simple Content Loop
B. Basic Single-Location Media Playing
C. Premise based system
D. Software-as-a-Service based system
Answer: C
Explanation:
