Question 1.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. 

The network consists of an intranet and a perimeter network, as shown in the work area. The perimeter network contains:

• One Windows Server 2003, Web Edition computer named ITCertKeys1.
• One Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition computer named ITCertKeys2.
• One Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition computer named ITCertKeys3.
• One Web server farm that consists of two Windows Server 2003, Web Edition computers.

All servers on the perimeter network are members of the same workgroup.
The design team plans to create a new Active Directory domain that uses the existing servers on the perimeter network. The new domain will support Web applications on the perimeter network. The design team states that the perimeter network domain must be fault tolerant.

You need to select which server or servers on the perimeter network need to be configured as domain controllers.

Which server or servers should you promote?

To answer, select the appropriate server or servers in the work area.
 
Answer: 
 
Explanation:
We know web editions can’t be domain controllers, and we want fault tolerance, which means two Domain Controllers.

The answer is promoting the two servers that aren’t running Web Edition to dc’s (ITCertKeys2 and ITCertKeys3.

Reference:
MS training kit 70-290 chapter one lesson 1;”the server belongs to a domain but cannot be a domain controller”

Question 2.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain and contains Windows Server 2003 computers.

You install a new service on a server named ITCertKeys3. The new service requires that you restart ITCertKeys3. When you attempt to restart ITCertKeys3, the logon screen does not appear. You turn off and then turn on the power for ITCertKeys3. 

The logon screen does not appear. You attempt to recover the failed server by using the Last Known Good Configuration startup option. It is unsuccessful. You attempt to recover ITCertKeys3 by using the Safe Mode Startup options. All Safe Mode options are unsuccessful.

You restore ITCertKeys3. ITCertKeys3 restarts successfully. You discover that ITCertKeys3 failed because the new service is not compatible with a security path.

You want to configure all servers so that you can recover from this type of failure by using the minimum amount of time and by minimizing data loss. You need to ensure that in the future, other services that fail do not result in the same type of failure.

What should you do?

A. Use Add or Remove Programs.
B. Install and use the Recovery Console.
C. Use Automated System Recovery (ASR).
D. Use Device Driver Roll Back.

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. We know that this service causes the failure.
2. We want minimum of time and minimum of data loss.
3. We want a solution for all servers.
4. We want to make sure other services that fail do not result in the same type of failure.

Server HELP
Recovery Console overview
Repair overview
Safe Mode

A method of starting Windows using basic files and drivers only, without networking. Safe Mode is available by pressing the F8 key when prompted during startup. This allows you to start your computer when a problem prevents it from starting normally.and other startup options do not work, consider using the Recovery Console.

This method is recommended only if you are an advanced user who can use basic commands to identify and locate problem drivers and files. In addition, you will need the password for the built-in administrator account administrator account 

On a local computer, the first account that is created when you install an operating system on a new workstation, stand-alone server, or member server. By default, this account has the highest level of administrative access to the local computer, and it is a member of the Administrators group.

In an Active Directory domain, the first account that is created when you set up a new domain by using the Active Directory Installation Wizard.

By default, this account has the highest level of administrative access in a domain, and it is a member of the Administrators, Domain Admins, Domain Users, Enterprise Admins, Group Policy Creator Owners, and Schema Admins groups to use the Recovery Console.

Using the Recovery Console, you can enable and disable services
A program, routine, or process that performs a specific system function to support other programs, particularly at a low (close to the hardware) level. When services are provided over a network, they can be published in Active Directory, facilitating service-centric administration and usage. Some examples of services are the Security Accounts Manager service, File Replication service, and Routing and Remote Access service format drives, read and write data on a local drive (including drives formatted to use NTFS)

NTFS
An advanced file system that provides performance, security, reliability, and advanced features that are not found in any version of file allocation table (FAT). For example, NTFS guarantees volume consistency by using standard transaction logging and recovery techniques. If a system fails, NTFS uses its log file and checkpoint information to restore the consistency of the file system. NTFS also provides advanced features, such as file and folder permissions, encryption, disk quotas, and compression.), and perform many other administrative tasks.

The Recovery Console is particularly useful if you need to repair your system by copying a file from a floppy disk or CD-ROM to your hard drive, or if you need to reconfigure a service that is preventing your computer from starting properly.

Operating system does not start (the logon screen does not appear).
Feature: Last Known Good Configuration startup option
When to use it: When you suspect that a change you made to your computer before restarting might be causing the failure.

What it does: Restores the registry settings and drivers that were in effect the last time the computer started successfully.

For more information, see To start the computer using the last known good configuration.
Feature: Recovery Console When to use it: If using the Last Known Good Configuration startup option is unsuccessful and you cannot start the computer in Safe Mode

Safe Mode
A method of starting Windows using basic files and drivers only, without networking. Safe Mode is available by pressing the F8 key when prompted during startup. This allows you to start your computer when a problem prevents it from starting normally.

This method is recommended only if you are an advanced user who can use basic commands to identify and locate problem drivers and files. To use the Recovery Console, restart the computer with the installation CD for the operating system in the CD drive. When prompted during text-mode setup, press R to start the Recovery Console.

What it does: From the Recovery Console, you can access the drives on your computer. You can then make any of the following changes so that you can start your computer:

• Enable or disable device drivers or services.
• Copy files from the installation CD for the operating system, or copy files from other removable media.
For example, you can copy an essential file that had been deleted.
• Create a new boot sector and new master boot record (MBR)

Master boot record (MBR)
The first sector on a hard disk, which begins the process of starting the computer. The MBR contains the partition table for the disk and a small amount of executable code called the master boot code.

You might need to do this if there are problems starting from the existing boot sector.

Question 3.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network contains a Windows Server 2003 application server named ITCertKeysSrv. ITCertKeysSrv has one processor. ITCertKeysSrv has been running for several weeks.

You add a new application to ITCertKeysSrv. Users now report intermittent poor performance on ITCertKeysSrv. You configure System Monitor and track the performance of ITCertKeysSrv for two hours. You obtain the performance metrics that are summarized in the exhibit.

The values of the performance metrics are consistent over time.
You need to identify the bottleneck on ITCertKeysSrv and upgrade the necessary component. You need to minimize hardware upgrades.

What should you do?

A. Install a faster CPU in ITCertKeysSrv.
B. Add more RAM to ITCertKeysSrv.
C. Add additional disks and spread the disk I/O over the new disks.
D. Increase the size of the paging file.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Physical Disk\Disk Time threshold is 90 percent and the performance metrics values gives a percentage of 93.610. This means that the disk is not being read quickly enough, which could be a hardware issue, and it could also be that the amount of data on the disk is too large.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The CPU is operating below its threshold.
B, D: The values for these could be a result of the Physical Disk\Disk Time exceeding its threshold.

Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, and Dr. Thomas W. Shinder; MCSA/MCSE Managing and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Environment Study Guide & DVD Training System.

Question 4.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. All computers on the network are members of the domain.

You administer a three-node Network Load Balancing cluster. Each cluster node runs Windows Server 2003 and has a single network adapter. The cluster has converged successfully.

You notice that the nodes in the cluster run at almost full capacity most of the time. You want to add a fourth node to the cluster. You enable and configure Network Load Balancing on the fourth node.

However, the cluster does not converge to a four-node cluster. In the System log on the existing three nodes, you find the exact same TCP/IP error event. The event has the following description: 

“The system detected an address conflict for IP address 10.50.8.70 with the system having network hardware address 02:BF:0A:32:08:46.”

In the System log on the new fourth node, you find a similar TCP/error event with the following description: “The system detected an address conflict for IP address 10.50.8.70 with the system having network hardware address 03:BF:0A:32:08:46.” Only the hardware address is different in the two descriptions.

You verify that IP address 10.50.8.70 is configured as the cluster IP address on all four nodes.

You want to configure a four-node Network Load Balancing cluster.

What should you do?

A. Configure the fourth node to use multicast mode.
B. Remove 10.50.8.70 from the Network Connections Properties of the fourth node.
C. On the fourth node, run the nlb.exe resume command.
D. On the fourth node, run the wlbs.exe reload command.

Answer: A

Explanation:
This normally happens when you don’t enable the network load balancing service in TCP/IP of the server when adding two IP’s (one for the server and one for the load balancing IP).

When you want to manage a NLB cluster with one network adapter you use multicast option.

My idea is since reload/suspend and remove the IP are all garbage answers could be that the other nodes are using multicast and this new node is using unicast that’s why on a single network adapter configuration it will cause an IP conflict.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The IP address cannot be changed, since the node has a single network adapter.
C: This command instructs a suspended cluster to resume cluster operations. Using the Resume command doesn't restart clustering operations but, instead, allows the use of Cluster Control commands, including those sent remotely. The Resume command can be targeted at a specific cluster, a specific cluster on a specific host, all clusters on the local machine, or all global machines that are part of the cluster.
D: The nlb.exe command replaces the wlbs.exe command previously used in Windows NT 4.0 and Windows 2000 Server.

Reference:
Syngress 070-293, Page 689

Question 5.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. You need to provide Internet name resolution services for the company. You set up a Windows Server 2003 computer running the DNS Server service to provide this network service.

During testing, you notice the following intermittent problems:

• Name resolution queries sometimes take longer than one minute to resolve.
• Some valid name resolution queries receive the following error message in the Nslookup command and-line tool: “Non-existent domain”.

You suspect that there is a problem with name resolution.
You need to review the individual queries that the server handles. You want to configure monitoring on the DNS server to troubleshoot the problem.

What should you do?

A. In the DNS server properties, on the Debug Logging tab, select the Log packets for debugging option.
B. In the DNS server properties, on the Event Logging tab, select the Errors and warnings  option.
C. In the System Monitor, monitor the Recursive Query Failure counter in the DNS object.
D. In the DNS server properties, on the Monitoring tab, select the monitoring options.

Answer: A

Explanation:
If you need to analyze and monitor the DNS server performance in greater detail, you can use the optional debug tool.

You can choose to log packets based on the following:

_Their direction, either outbound or inbound
_The transport protocol, either TCP or UDP
_Their contents: queries/transfers, updates, or notifications
_Their type, either requests or responses
_Their IP address

Finally, you can choose to include detailed information.

Note:
That’s the only thing that’s going to let you see details about packets.

Reference:
Syngress 070-293, page 414

Troubleshooting DNS servers
Using server debug logging options

The following DNS debug logging options are available:

• Direction of packets
Send Packets sent by the DNS server are logged in the DNS server log file.
Receive Packets received by the DNS server are logged in the log file.
• Content of packets
Standard queries Specifies that packets containing standard queries (per RFC 1034) are logged in the DNS server log file.

Updates Specifies that packets containing dynamic updates (per RFC 2136) are logged in the DNS server log file.

Notifies Specifies that packets containing notifications (per RFC 1996) are logged in the DNS server log file.

• Transport protocol
UDP Specifies that packets sent and received over UDP are logged in the DNS server log file.
TCP Specifies that packets sent and received over TCP are logged in the DNS server log file.

• Type of packet
Request Specifies that request packets are logged in the DNS server log file (a request packet is characterized by a QR bit set to 0 in the DNS message header).

Response Specifies that response packets are logged in the DNS server log file (a response packet is characterized by a QR bit set to 1 in the DNS message header).

• Enable filtering based on IP address Provides additional filtering of packets logged in the DNS server log file. This option allows logging of packets sent from specific IP addresses to a DNS server, or from a DNS server to specific IP addresses.

• File name Lets you specify the name and location of the DNS server log file.
For example: • dns.log specifies that the DNS server log file should be saved as dns.log in the systemroot

Question 6.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network contains four Windows Server 2003 computers configured as a four-node server cluster.

The cluster uses drive Q for the quorum resource. You receive a critical warning that both drives of the mirrored volume that are dedicated to the quorum disk have failed.

You want to bring the cluster and all nodes back into operation as soon as possible.
Which four actions should you take to achieve this goal?

To answer, drag the action that you should perform first to the First Action box. Continue dragging actions to the corresponding numbered boxes until you list all four required actions in the correct order.
 
Answer:  

Explanation:
To recover from a corrupted quorum log or quorum disk
1. If the Cluster service is running, open Computer Management.
2. In the console tree, double-click Services and Applications, and then click Services.
3. In the details pane, click Cluster Service.
4. On the Action menu, click Stop.
5. Repeat steps 1, 2, 3, and 4 for all nodes.
6. If you have a backup of the quorum log, restore the log by following the instructions in "Backing up and restoring server clusters" in Related Topics.
7. If you do not have a backup, select any given node. Make sure that Cluster Service is highlighted in the details pane, and then on the Action menu, click Properties.
Under Service status, in Start parameters, specify /fixquorum, and then click Start.
8. Switch from the problematic quorum disk to another quorum resource.
For more information, see "To use a different disk for the quorum resource" in Related Topics.
9. In Cluster Administrator, bring the new quorum resource disk online.
For information on how to do this, see "To bring a resource online" in Related Topics.
10. Run Chkdsk, using the switches /f and /r, on the quorum resource disk to determine whether the disk is corrupted.
For more information on running Chkdsk, see "Chkdsk" in Related Topics.
If no corruption is detected on the disk, it is likely that the log was corrupted. Proceed to step 12.
11. If corruption is detected, check the System Log in Event Viewer for possible hardware errors.
Resolve any hardware errors before continuing.
12. Stop the Cluster service after Chkdsk is complete, following the instructions in steps 1 - 4.
13. Make sure that Cluster Service is highlighted in the details pane. On the Action menu, click Properties.
Under Service status, in Start parameters, specify /resetquorumlog, and then click Start.
This restores the quorum log from the node's local database.

Important
• The Cluster service must be started by clicking Start on the service control panel. You cannot
click OK or Apply to commit these changes as this does not preserve the /resetquorumlog parameter.
14. Restart the Cluster service on all other nodes.

Reference:
Robert J. Shimonski, Windows Server 2003 Clustering & Load Balancing.

Question 7.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. ITCertKeys has a main office and two branch offices. The branch offices are connected to the main office by T1 lines. The network consists of three Active Directory sites, one for each office. All client computers run either Windows 2000 Professional or Windows XP Professional. Each office has a small data center that contains domain controllers, WINS, DNS, and DHCP servers, all running Windows Server 2003.

Users in all offices connect to a file server in the main office to retrieve critical files. The network team reports that the WAN connections are severely congested during peak business hours. Users report poor file server performance during peak business hours. The design team is concerned that the file server is a single point of failure. The design team requests a plan to alleviate the WAN congestion during business hours and to provide high availability for the file server.

You need to provide a solution that improved file server performance during peak hours and that provides high availability for file services. You need to minimize bandwidth utilization.

What should you do?

A. Purchase two high-end servers and a shared fiber-attached disk array.
    Implement a file server cluster in the main office by using both new servers and the shared 
    fiber attached disk array.
B. Implement Offline Files on the client computers in the branch offices by using Synchronization
    Manager. 
    Schedule synchronization to occur during off-peak hours.
C. Implement a stand-alone Distributed File System (DFS) root in the main office.
    Implement copies of shared folders for the branch offices.
    Schedule replication of shared folders to occur during off-peak hours by using scheduled tasks.
D. Implement a domain Distributed File System (DFS) root in the main office.
    Implement DFS replicas for the branch offices.
    Schedule replication to occur during off-peak hours.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A DFS root is effectively a folder containing links to shared files. A domain DFS root is stored in Active Directory. This means that the users don’t need to know which physical server is hosting the shared files; they just open a folder in Active Directory and view a list of shared folders.

A DFS replica is another server hosting the same shared files. We can configure replication between the file servers to replicate the shared files out of business hours. The users in each office will access the files from a DFS replica in the user’s office, rather than accessing the files over a WAN link.

Incorrect Answers:
A: This won’t minimize bandwidth utilization because the users in the branch offices will still access the files over the WAN.
B: This doesn’t provide any redundancy for the server hosting the shared files.
C: You need DFS replicas to use the replicas of the shared folders.

Reference:
Robert Williams, Mark Walla; The Ultimate Windows Server 2003 system administrator's guide.

Question 8.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. All computers on the network are members of the domain. The domain contains a Windows Server 2003 computer named ITCertKeysA.

You are planning a public key infrastructure (PKI) for the company. You want to deploy an enterprise certification authority (CA) on ITCertKeysA.

You create a new global security group named IT Approvers. You install an enterprise CA and configure the CA to issue Key Recovery Agent certificates.

The company’s written security policy states that issuance of a Key Recovery Agent certificate requires approval from a member of the IT Approvers group. All other certificates must be issued automatically.

You need to ensure that members of the IT Approvers group can approve pending enrolment requests for a Key Recovery Agent certificate.

What should you?

A. Assign the IT Approvers group the Allow – Enroll permissions for the Key Recovery Agent.
B. Assign the IT Approvers group the Allow – Issue and Manage Certificates permission for the CA.
C. For all certificate managers, add the IT Approvers group to the list of managed subjects.
D. Add the IT Approvers group to the existing IT Publisher group in the domain.
E. Assign the IT Approvers group the Allow – Full Control permission for the Certificate Templates container in the Active Directory configuration naming context.

Answer: B

Explanations:
1. In order to approve certificates you need certificate manager rights.
2. In order to get those rights you need Issue and Manage Certificates rights.
3. The option to enable auto enroll or wait for approval is made at the certificate template (in this case the key recovery template).
From the windows 2003 help.
A. will allow enroll only.
C. will allow all certificate managers.
D. cert publisher group is meant to include the CA servers only.
E. no need to give them full control on the certificate template when we have role separation in windows 2003 pki.

Reference:
Windows 2003 help.

Question 9.
You are the network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Itcertkeys.com. All computers on the network are members of the domain.

You are planning a public key infrastructure (PKI) for the company. You want to ensure that users who log on to the domain receive a certificate that can be used to authenticate to Web sites.

You create a new certificate template named User Authentication. You configure a Group Policy object (GPO) that applies to all users. The GPO specifies that user certificates must be enrolled when the policy is applied. You install an enterprise certification authority (CA) on a computer that runs Windows Server 2003.

Users report that when they log on, they do not have certificates to authenticate to Web sites that require certificate authentication.

You want to ensure that users receive certificates that can be used to authenticate to Web sites.
Which two actions should you take? 
(Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)

A. On the User Authenticate certificate template, select the Reenroll All Certificate Holders command.
B. Assign the Domain Users group the Allow – Autoenroll permission for the User 
    Authentication certificate template.
C. Configure the CA to enable the User Authentication certificate template.
D. Assign the Domain Users group the Allow – Issue and Manage Certificates permission for the CA.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
Certificate enrollment methods and domain membership
The domain membership of computers for which you want to enroll certificates affects the certificate enrollment method that you can choose.

Certificates for domain member computers can be enrolled automatically (also known as auto-enrollment), while an administrator must enroll certificates for non-domain member computers using the Web or a floppy disk.
The certificate enrollment method for non-domain member computers is known as a trust bootstrap process, through which certificates are created and then manually requested or distributed securely by administrators, to build common trust.

Allowing for autoenrollment
You can use autoenrollment so that subjects automatically enroll for certificates, retrieve issued certificates, and renew expiring certificates without subject interaction.

For certificate templates, the intended subjects must have Read, Enroll and Autoenroll permissions before the subjects can enroll.

To ensure that unintended subjects cannot request a certificate based on this template, you must identify those unintended subjects and explicitly configure the Deny permission for them. This acts as a safeguard, further ensuring that they cannot even present an unacceptable request to the certification authority. Note that Read permission does not allow enrollment or autoenrollment, it only allows the subject to view the certificate template.

Renewal of existing certificates requires only the Enroll permission for the requesting subject

Certificates obtained in any way, including autoenrollment and manual requests, can be renewed automatically.

These types of renewals do not require Autoenroll permission, even if they are renewed automatically.

Planning for autoenrollment deployment
Autoenrollment is a useful feature of certification services in Windows XP and Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition. Autoenrollment allows the administrator to configure subjects to automatically enroll for certificates, retrieve issued certificates, and renew expiring certificates without requiring subject interaction. The subject does not need to be aware of any certificate operations, unless you configure the certificate template to interact with the subject.

To properly configure subject autoenrollment, the administrator must plan the appropriate certificate template or templates to use. Several settings in the certificate template directly affect the behavior of subject autoenrollment.

• On the Request Handling tab of the selected certificate template, the selection of an autoenrollment user interaction setting will affect autoenrollment:

• Setting 								Affect on autoenrollment behavior
Enroll subject without 				This setting will allow "silent" autoenrollment without requiring 
requiring any user input			the user to take any action. This setting is preferred when clients 											require certificates but may not be aware that they are using 												them.

Prompt the user during 			The user will receive a message and may need to take an action 
Enrollment							when enrollment is performed. This action may be necessary 												when the certificate is intended for a smart card, which would 												require the user to provide their personal identification (PIN).

Prompt the user during 			This setting prompts the user both during enrollment and
enrollment and require 			whenever the private key is used.
user input when the private 		This is the most interactive autoenrollment behavior,	
key is used							as it requires the user to confirm all use of the private key.
										It is also the setting that provides the highest level of user 													awareness regarding key usage. 

										Caution
					• 					This setting is provided to the client during certificate 														enrollment. The client should follow the configuration 
										setting, but the setting is not enforced by the certification

Incorrect Answers:
A: Only used when critical changes have been made to a certificate template, and you want it to apply to all users immediately.
D: This would be a security risk, since users should not be allowed management permissions.

Reference:
Windows Server 2003: Managing, Maintaining, Planning, and Implementing a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 environment: Exams 70-292 and 70-296, Microsoft Press, Redmond, Washington, 2004, pp. 25-14.

Question 10.
You are a network administrator for ITCertKeys. The network consists of a single Windows 2000 Active Directory forest that has four domains. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.

The company’s written security policy states that all e-mail messages must be electronically signed when sent to other employees. 

You decide to deploy Certificate Services and automatically enroll users for email authentication certificates.

You install Windows Server 2003 on two member servers and install Certificate Services. You configure one Windows Server 2003 computer as a root certification authority (CA). You configure the other Windows Server 2003 server as an enterprise subordinate CA. You open Certificate Templates on the enterprise subordinate CA, but you are unable to configure certificates templates for autoenrollment.

The Certificate Templates administration tool is shown in the exhibit.

You need to configure Active Directory to support autoenrollment of certificates.

What should you do?

A. Run the adprep /forestprep command on the schema operations master.
B. Place the enterprise subordinate CA’s computer account in the IT Publisher Domain Local group.
C. Run the adprep /domainprep command on a Windows 2000 Server domain controller that is in the same domain as the enterprise subordinate CA.
D. Install Active Directory on the Windows Server 2003 member server that is functioning as the enterprise subordinate CA.
    Configure this server as an additional domain controller in the Windows 2000 Active Directory domain.

Answer: A 

Explanation:
The autoenrollment feature has several infrastructure requirements. These include:

Windows Server 2003 schema and Group Policy updates
Windows 2000 or Windows Server 2003 domain controllers
Windows XP Client
Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition running as an Enterprise certificate authority (CA)

Reference:
http://www.microsoft.net/technet/treeview/default.asp?url=/technet/prodtechnol/winxppro/maintain/certenrl.asp?frame=true

In this question, we have a Windows 2000 domain; therefore, we have Windows 2000 domain controllers. The Enterprise CA is running on a Windows Server 2003 member server which will work ok, but only if the forest schema is a Windows Server 2003 schema. We can update the forest schema with the adprep /forestprep command.

Incorrect Answers:
B: This will happen in the domain in which the CAs are installed.
C: The adprep /domainprep command prepares a Windows 2000 domain for an upgrade to a Windows Server 2003 domain. We are not upgrading the domain, so this isn’t necessary.
D: The CA doesn’t have to be installed on a domain controller. You can’t install AD on a Windows 2003 server until you run the adprep commands.

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Braindumps for "640-802" Exam

Cisco Certified Network Associate

 Question 1
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the ITCertKeys network. 

Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?

A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above

Answer: D

Question 2
Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches?

A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs
B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability.
C. Switches can not forward broadcasts.
D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames.
E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Switches increases the number of collisions domains in the network. Switches that are configured with VLANs will reduce the size of the collision domains by increasing the number of collision domains in a network, but making them smaller than that of one big, flat network.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are capable of VLAN configurations, but hubs are not.
B. Hubs are generally the least costly method possible to connect multiple devices together in a network.
C. Switches forward broadcasts and multicasts, by default, to all ports within the same VLAN. Only routers block all broadcast traffic by default.
D. Switches and hubs can be equally efficient in processing frames, in theory. In practice, switches are generally more efficient as they usually have more CPU and memory allocated to them, and are generally much more expensive than a simple hub.

Question 3
When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements? Choose all the valid answer choices)

A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports.
B. A switch is a multiport bridge,
C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received.
D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not.
E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.
F. None of the above statements are true.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
Both bridges and switches build the bridge table by listening to incoming frames and examining the source MAC address in the frame.

Switches are multiport bridges that allow you to create multiple broadcast domains. Each broadcast domain is like a distinct virtual bridge within a switch.

Incorrect Answers:
A. Switches are generally faster than bridges. Bridges also do not necessarily have fewer ports than switches.
D. Both bridges and switches will forward broadcast and multicast traffic, assuming that the traffic remains in the same VLAN.
E. The use of VLANs in a switch can decrease the size of the collision domain, by creating additional, smaller collision domains.

Question 4
Which of the following correctly describe the various functions and virtues of a router? (Select all valid answer choices)

A. Packet switching
B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.
C. Packet filtering
D. Broadcast domain enlargement
E. Broadcast forwarding
F. Internetwork communication
G. None of the above

Answer: A, C, F

Explanation:
The main function of a router is to connect different, separated networks together. In doing so, switching packets from one network to another is a primary function, along with providing for communication between networks. As an additional feature, routers are capable of providing filtering on a network address and application port level, so choice C is also correct.

Incorrect Answers:
B. Routers can indeed be used to segment a network separate a collision domain, since routers do not forward LAN broadcasts and multicasts to other interfaces. However, routers alone can not prevent all collisions from occurring on any given LAN segment. D. Routers actually segment LANs into smaller broadcast domains.
E. Routers do not forward broadcast and multicast traffic out the additional interfaces by default. Unless bridging or IP helpers are configured on the router, LAN broadcasts are blocked at the router level.

Question 5
The LAN needs are expanding at the ITCertKeys corporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the ITCertKeys network.

Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A switch
B. A router
C. A network adapter card
D. A hub
E. A repeater

Answer: D, E

Explanation:
A hub simply repeats the electrical signal and makes no attempt to interpret the electrical signal (layer 1) as a LAN frame (Layer 2). So, a hub actually performs OSI layer 1 functions, repeating an electrical signal, whereas a switch performs OSI layer 2 functions, actually interpreting Ethernet header information, particularly addresses, to make forwarding decisions. Hubs can be used to increase the number of stations that can be supported on a LAN.

Because the repeater does not interpret what the bits mean, but does examine and generate electrical signals, a repeater is considered to operate at Layer 1. Repeaters can be used to physically extend the LAN to greater distances.

Question 6
Cisco is the leader in the router market space. 

What basic functions do their routers perform in a network? (Choose two)

A. The micro segmentation of broadcast domains
B. Path selection
C. Packet switching
D. Bridging between LAN segments
E. Access layer security
F. VLAN membership assignment
G. Application optimization

Answer: B, C

Explanation:
The primary functions of a router are: Packet Switching and Path Selection. It is the routers job to determine the best method for delivering the data, and switching that data as quickly as possible.

Question 7
Both bridges are switches are being used throughout the ITCertKeys LAN. 

Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches in this network? (Choose 3)

A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.
B. Switches usually have a higher number of ports than most bridges.
C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.
D. Bridges define broadcast domains while switches define collision domains.
E. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.
F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Answer: B, E, F

Question 8
As a network administrator, you will need to decide on the appropriate network devices to use. 

Which of the following correctly describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three)

A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
C. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
D. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
E. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
F. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
G. A modem is used to terminate a T1

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9
The ITCertKeys network administrator needs to determine what LAN devices to install on the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two advantages of using Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two)

A. Allowing simultaneous frame transmissions
B. Increasing the size of broadcast domains
C. Increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices
D. Filtering frames based on MAC addresses
E. Decreasing the number of collision domains

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
A: A half duplex connection is where only one device can send or receive at a time. A full duplex connection is where both devices can send and receive at the same time. Thus, if you have a 100Mb half-duplex connection, only sending at 100Mb OR receiving at 100Mb can happen at the same time. If you have a 100Mb full duplex connection, you can effectively get 200Mb out of the link because you could be sending 100Mb and receiving 100Mb at the same time.
D: Switches are capable of filtering frames based on any Layer 2 fields. For example, a switch can be programmed to reject (not forward) all frames sourced from a particular network. Because link layer information often includes a reference to an upper-layer protocol, switches usually can filter on this parameter. Furthermore, filters can be helpful in dealing with unnecessary broadcast and multicast packets.

Question 10
CDP is being used throughout the ITCertKeys network. 

What are two reasons why the ITCertKeys network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two)

A. To determine the status of network services on a remote device
B. To obtain the IP Address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
C. To verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
D. To verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. To obtain VLAN information from directly connected swticehs
F. To determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
G. To support automatic network failover during outages

Answer: B, D

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Braindumps for "642-071" Exam

Cisco Unity Design and Networking

 Question 1.
Is it possible for Unity to connect to the same global catalog server as the Exchange 2000 server it is servicing, if Unity is installed in its own Windows 2000 site?

A. No, it is not possible because a global catalog server can only service one Windows 2000 site.
B. No, it is not possible because the Exchange 2000 servers replicate too much directory information.
C. Yes it is possible as long as you edit the registry and point Unity to the correct global catalog  server.
D. Yes it is possible because a global catalog server can be configured to support up to five Windows 2000 sites.

Answer: A

Question 2.
Exhibit:
Which Cisco Unity type of deployment model is shown in the exhibit?

A. centralized call processing, distributed messaging
B. centralized call processing, centralized messaging
C. distributed call processing, decentralized messaging
D. localized call processing, localized branch messaging

Answer: A

Question 3.
ITCertKeys.com maintains a distributed Legacy voice mail and messaging infrastructure. They also have a distributed call processing environment, consisting of Legacy PBX equipment.

ITCertKeys.com maintains a dual data center layout in San Diego, California and Yuma, Arizona with two smaller remote branch offices in Palm Springs and El Centro, California, connected to the data centers by 256k links. There are at least 500 users in both remote sites, with 2000 users in each data center. 

ITCertKeys.com wants to move from their Legacy voice mail system to a Unified Messaging environment with Cisco Unity. You discuss options for collapsing the company's call processing infrastructure as well and find they cannot collapse their Legacy call processing environment to centralized Cisco Call Manager. They must keep the Legacy PBXs functioning for at least two more years as stipulated by their lease agreement. 

You request all PBX type/release information from the customer and discover that their current PBXs are all supported by Cisco Unity. The PBX's are all from the same manufacturer, and 5 digit dialing is available from any phone in their network.

Given that 5 digit dialing is available from any phone on the customer's network, which statement is true?

A. They do not need to enable more networking? on their PBXs
B. They can begin to collapse their call control environment to line up with the introduction of Call Manager into their environment.
C. This means absolutely nothing to this design. Anytime you have remote offices that have mail stores across slow WAN links you MUST have a Unity server collocated with those stores.
D. They can centralize Unity in a single site. A single Unity can be installed in one of the data  centers and can easily support 5000 total users. Since they have 5 digit dialing across their  environment, the PBX's networking functions can take care of MWI's, etc.

Answer: C

Question 4.
Exhibit:
Why is the Cisco Unity deployment shown in the exhibit NOT supported?

A. Digital networking will not work over the WAN.
B. There are two Cisco Unity servers installed at headquarters.
C. A Cisco Call Manager cluster is required at the branch office.
D. The Cisco Unity branch office server is remote from a message store.

Answer: D

Question 5.
Exhibit: #1
Exhibit: #2
In Exhibit: 1, the Call Manager cluster and Unity use the extension range 3000? 4200. 

Your customer ITCertKeys.com wants to deploy Unified Messaging. Exchange stores are local at the data center and are part of the same organization. Digital networking is an absolute requirement without using access codes. Exhibit: 2 Shows how the IT organization expects to accommodate future growth.

What is the best solution with regard to dialing domains?

A. A completely unique "dialing location" is created in Call Manager and Unity is assigned to that location.
B. All Unity servers need to be in the same dialing domain. This poses no problem given its simple environment.
C. A unique dialing domain is created at each Unity location. The other Unity locations are automatically available at that time.
D. Future growth is planned for by allowing all Unity servers to be in different locations and to be part of separate dialing domains.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Your customer ITCertKeys.com has fully distributed message store environment across WAN links that run at 256k. There are 500 subscribers in each physical site. There are five set and four of them mountain main stores.

Cisco Unity design requirements state that a minimum you must have how many Unity servers?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8

Answer: B

Question 7.
Exhibit:
Call Manager Cluster A and unity use extension range 1000?650. Call Manager Cluster B and Unity use extension range 2000?450. Call Manager Cluster C and Unity extension range 1500? 950.

Your customer ITCertKeys.com wants to deploy Unified Messaging. Exchange stores are local at each site and part of the same organization. Digital networking is an absolute requirement without using access codes.

Which statement is true?

A. All Unity servers are in different locations, but are part of the same dialing domain.
B. A unique dialing domain is created per unity location. The other Unity locations are automatically available at that time.
C. All Unity servers are in the same dialing domain and Call Manager Cluster C to change the extensions that overlap with the Call Manager Cluster A.
D. Unity servers A and B are in the same dialing domain and Unity C put into its own dialing domain to address the extension conflicts with Unity A and B.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Exhibit:
Each remote location has 15 users with a telephone and voice mailbox, with a 256K WAN link. Trans coding is available at the main location.

Which codec(s) can Unity default configuration support?

A. G.726 only
B. G.711 only
C. G.729a only
D. G.711 and G.726
E. G.711 and G.729a

Answer: E

Question 9.
Your customer ITCertKeys.com has five Lotus Domino domains and manages five separate address books, along with five remote mail stores. They do this as result of recent acquisitions. They would like to merge these in the future and want to understand how this affects their Cisco Unity considerations today.

Which statement is true?

A. They need to consolidate address books before they can install Unity
B. They need least three Unity servers. Each Unity can connect to two names .nfs servers simultaneously.
C. They need at least one Unity server in this environment, as Unity can service an unlimited number of address books.
D. They need at least five Unity servers. A single Cisco Unity can only monitor one copy of names. nfs at a time, from a single Domino domain.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Exhibit:
Which Cisco Unity messaging model is shown in the exhibit?

A. branched messaging
B. clustered messaging
C. centralized messaging
D. distributed messaging

Answer: C

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Braindumps for "642-381" Exam

Foundation Express for Field Engineers

 Question 1.
Which three statements are correct about the IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet standard? (Choose three.)

A. It defines a port that acts as a power source to be a PSE.
B. It defines a powered device to be a PDE.
C. It defines how a powered device is detected.
D. It defines three methods of delivering Power over Ethernet to the discovered powered device.
E. It describes five power classes to which a device may belong.
F. It defines power class 0 as being reserved for future use.

Answer: A, C, E

Question 2.
You have just configured and enabled the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set from a remote location using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Firewall wizard. You later want to double-check your configuration using Cisco SDM. However, you find that you can no longer connect to the Cisco IOS Firewall using Cisco SDM. 

What is the probable cause of this failure?

A. You must additionally specify the Cisco SDM management port number to gain access when the configuration has been applied.
B. You have not generated an RSA key pair between the host and device to allow secure access  via Cisco SDM.
C. You have been locked out via access lists that have been applied to the router as a result of  your Cisco SDM configuration.
D. You must specify the host IP address of Cisco SDM in the Configuration panel for allowed  management connections.

Answer: C

Question 3.
When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) to configure IPS, what must you do first before you can select Configure > Signature to edit any signatures?

A. Select Configure > Global Settings to enable IPS globally on the router.
B. Select Configure > Global Settings to disable the Failed Closed option.
C. Select Configure > Global Settings to point Cisco SDM to the ips.tar file in the router Flash memory.
D. Select Configure > Rules to create the inbound and/or outbound filter to determine which traffic will be scanned by IPS.
E. Select Configure > Rules to enable an interface for inbound and/or outbound IPS.

Answer: E

Question 4.
Exhibit:
Switches A and C are running PVST+ STP, and Switch B is running 802.1Q STP. If the BPDU of the root in VLAN 1 is better than the BPDU of the root in VLAN 2, then there is no blocking port in the VLAN 2 topology. The BPDU of VLAN 2 never makes a "full circle" around the topology; it is replaced by the VLAN 1 BPDU on the B-C link, because B runs only one STP merged with VLAN 1 STP of PVST+. Thus, there is a forwarding loop. 

What does PVST+ do to correct this?

A. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B)  towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the  loop.
B. Switch B sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch A)  towards Switch C. Switch C will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the  loop.
C. Switch C sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 2 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B) towards Switch C. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the  loop.
D. Switch A sends PVST+ BPDUs of VLAN 1 (to the SSTP address that is flooded by Switch B)  towards Switch B. Switch A will put port C-B into a type-inconsistent state, which prevents the loop.

Answer: A

Question 5.
In an infrastructure based on a wireless advanced feature set using lightweight access points, by which method is a rogue contained?

A. The WCS sends excessive traffic to the rogue, thus overloading the access point.
B. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcast de-association packets.
C. The rogue MAC address is used to spoof broadcast de-authentication packets.
D. The WCS sends out excessive signals on the same channel when the rogue is detected.

Answer: C

Question 6.
OSPF routes are being redistributed into EIGRP but they are not showing up in the routing table. 

What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)

A. CEF has not been enabled.
B. Synchronization has been turned off.
C. Incorrect distribute lists have been configured.
D. No default metric has been configured for EIGRP.
E. The ip classless command is missing.
F. There are mismatched autonomous system numbers.

Answer: C, D

Question 7.
Exhibit:
Which two statements are correct about what is displayed? (Choose two.)

A. The IP address that is used for the router ID must be reachable.
B. Router 1 is the designated router because it has the lowest configured IP address.
C. Router 1 is the designated router because it has the highest configured loopback address.
D. If Router 1 had a PRI of 0, it could not be a designated router or a backup designated router.
E. Router 1 has had its ID manually configured by using the router-ID command.

Answer: C, D

Question 8.
What is the default authentication method when using HTTP to access the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM), assuming that you are not using the default configuration file (sdmconfig-xxxx.cfg) that comes with Cisco SDM?

A. none
B. local database
C. aaa
D. enable password
E. line console password
F. line vty password

Answer: D

Question 9.
The network administrator has configured the SSID value in a wireless Cisco Aironet client card.

What is the result of the client-to-access-point association if the client SSID1 is left blank, and the
SSID2 is assigned a value of my_ssid?

A. The client will consider SSID1 a null value, causing the client to request the SSID from the  access point.
B. The client software will not allow this configuration and will create an error message until the configuration is corrected.
C. The client software will replace SSID1 with SSID2, and use my_ssid to attempt association with the access point.
D. The client software will attempt association with the access point using a null value of SSID1,  and if not successful it will rotate to use the SSID2 value of my_ssid.

Answer: C

Question 10.
Which four features can be configured using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager version 2.1.1? (Choose four.)

A. IP multicast routing (PIM)
B. IPS
C. Easy VPN Remote and Easy VPN Server
D. static routes and IGP routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, EIGRP)
E. SSL VPN (Web VPN)
F. AAA

Answer: B, C, D, F

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