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Question 1.
Which method can b found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHOmeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remover(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D
Question 11.
Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a.CMO.2.0 entity bean?
(Choose two.)
A. Java primitive
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A, C
Question 2.
Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class?
(Choose two.)
A. Declare variable for all persiwsten fields.
B. Provide constructors to initalize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent
fields.
E. Implement ejbCreaate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create <METHOD>
methods.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
Which statement about EJ B QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed form EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB
QL query.
Answer: B
Question 4.
What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean’s primary key will survive
C. Massage-driven bean instances will service.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to client using entity beans.
Answer: A, B
Question 5.
Which is feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous massage handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which if a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. Server failover
C. Load balancing
D. Servlet support
E. Server clustering
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications an link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two APlas are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A, E
Question 9.
Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B, D
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the file command?
A. The file command is used to transfer files between file systems.
B. The file command attempts to classify the file type based on the file’s content.
C. The file command reports on file size, file ownership, and access permissions.
D. The file command is used to search binary data streams for reference to readable ASCII files.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 complaint container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs.
C. Deferred database writes
D. Lazy loading of entity bean data
E. Client principal caller propagation
Answer: E
Question 12.
Which two must a Bean Provider void in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any complaint EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSesion q = AQueueConnection.createQueueSessin(true, 0);
D. object o = new Object(); object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FilelnputStream fs= new java.io.EilenputStream(“MyFile”);
Answer: D, E
Question 13.
What are two programming restriction in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final.
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext.
Answer: B, C
Question 14.
Which two actions could adversely effect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean?
(Choose two.)
A. changing a thread’s priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be an network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a massage-driven bean
Answer: A, B
Question 15.
What is true about using java.net.Socket an java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes. Only java.net.Soclket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C
Question 16.
Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or massage-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods.
E. The fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean’s business methods.
Answer: C, E
Question 17.
Given:
4. <method-permission>
5. <role-name>employee>/role-name>
6. <method>
7. <ejb-name>EmployeeService>/ejb-nmame>
8. </method>
9. </method-permission>
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E
Question 18.
Who must ensure that a bean’s environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which two statements are true about an ejb-jar file? (Choose two.)
A. it must contain a WAR file.
B. The client does not need access to it.
C. It does not need to contain a deployment descriptor.
D. It must not contain application assembly information.
E. It must contain the bean class file by either inclusion or reference.
F. It must contain all classes generated by the container for this bean, by either inclusion or
reference.
Answer: B, E
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Question 1. Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 3 hours D. 4 hours Answer: B Question 2. What is a remote replication solution for EMC CLARiiON storage systems? A. MirrorView/A B. SnapView C. SRDF/AR D. TimeFinder Answer: A Question 3. Which represents a common implementation of a storage network with limited scalability? A. CSMA/CD B. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop C. Store and Forward D. Switched Fabric Answer: B Question 4. Identify the E Port and Edge switch in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 1 and 6 B. 4 and 5 C. 7 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: A Question 5. What is the process that writes physical address information to a disk? A. Concatenating B. Formatting C. Partitioning D. Striping Answer: B Question 6. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of a company is 4 hours. Which statement is true in the event of a disaster? A. Must be able to restart their network within 4 hours B. Must be able to restart their servers within 4 hours C. Must be able to resume production within 4 hours D. No more than 4 hours of production data can be lost Answer: D Question 7. Which technology is designed for storage of fixed content data? A. CAS B. DAS C. NAS D. SAN Answer: A Question 8. In SAN, if the primary concern is cabling flexibility, what method of zoning should be employed? A. Hard Zoning B. Mixed Zoning C. Port Zoning D. WWN Zoning Answer: D Question 9. A disk has Cylinder Head Sector (CHS) values of 1000, 4 and 25. What address range will be used for the Logical Block Address (LBA) values for this disk? A. 0 - 49,999 B. 0 - 99,999 C. 1 - 50,000 D. 1 - 100,000 Answer: B Question 10. Which key requirement of the Data Center infrastructure addresses the concern of data on storage systems being accessible 24X7? A. Availability B. Manageability C. Performance D. Scalability Answer: A
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Question 1.
If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A. The role
B. The schema name
C. The owner keyword
D. The current SQLID (if set)
Answer: A
Question 2.
A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables, indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE" has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user "DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Select two answers)
A. None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B. The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C. When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D. Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
E. To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5)
C. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA
CAPTURE CHANGES
Answer: C
Question 4.
A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer needed.
Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A. SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B. FREE Package (..)
C. DROP Package (..)
D. DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Answer: B
Question 5.
At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC) invoked?
A. At DB2 startup.
B. When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C. When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D. During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP panel.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A. DSN1.IMS
B. DSNR.IMS
C. DSN1.MASS
D. DSN1.SASS
Answer: C
Question 7.
An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1 with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated.
Which of the following will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A. REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Answer: D
Question 8.
A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method. The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages.
Which of the following explicit system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also execute them?
A. BINDADD
B. CREATEIN
C. BINDAGENT
D. CREATEDBA
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain queries?
A. STDSQL
B. OPTHINTS
C. PARTKEYU
D. DESCSTAT
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the following catalog health query?
SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR, BTYPE, DNAME
FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD
WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A')
AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT *
FROM SYSIBM.SYSTADLES
WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR
AND NAME = PD.BNAME
AND TYPE = PD.STYPE);
A. For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTASLES.
D. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a syntax error exception is thrown.
Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A
Question 2.
Given the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE staff (
id SMALLINT NOT NULL,
name VARCHAR(9),
dept SMALLINT,
job CHAR(5))
Assuming that the following statements execute successfully:
Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand()
cmdStaff.CommandText = "SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)"
Which of the following is the correct way to provide a value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
Answer: D
Question 3.
If the following code is executed in the order shown:
conDB2 As DB2Connection
conDB2.ConnectionString = "Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"
conDB2.Open()
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the local database catalog.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B
Question 6.
Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied. Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a Cursor Stability isolation level.
What would be the best course of action to improve the system's concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT operation.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C
Question 8.
Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
====== ===== ======= =======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER track_chgs
AFTER UPDATE OF salary, name, empno ON emp
REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable
FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
INSERT INTO changes
SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM ntable;
END;
After executing the following SQL statements:
DELETE FROM changes;
UPDATE emp SET deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95';
INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary + 1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;
What value will be returned by this query? SELECT count(*) FROM changes
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A
Question 9.
Given the following table and view definitions:
CREATE TABLE city (
cityid INT GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY ,
city_name CHAR(10),
state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN ('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));
CREATE VIEW city_view AS (
SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname FROM city
WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL'));
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER city_viewInput
INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view
REFERENCING NEW AS n
FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
DECLARE delim INT;
SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code)
VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1), SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));
END;
If the following SQL statments are executed:
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ;
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX');
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Denver,CO');
How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT * FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Question 10.
An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query: SELECT t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1
If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the following DB2 object types must the identifier T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A database administrator wishes to enable automatic table and index reorganization.
Which set of Database Configuration parameters must be set to ON for automatic table and index reorganization to be enabled?
A. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
B. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
C. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_RUNSTATS, AUTO_REORG
D. AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
Answer: B
Question 2.
Self tuning memory simplifies the task of memory configuration by automatically setting values for memory configuration parameters and sizing buffer pools.
When enabled, the memory tuner dynamically distributes available memory resources between _____.
A. several buffer pools
B. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, lock list areas, and buffer pools
C. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, monitor heap, and lock list areas
D. several memory consumers including load and buffer pools
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which explanation describing the AUTOCONFIGURE command is valid?
A. The AUTOCONFIGURE command will only make recommendations based on the assumption of a single database per instance.
B. When explicitly invoking the Configuration Advisor using the AUTOCONFIGURE command, the registry setting of DB2_ENABLE_AUTOCONFIG_DEFAULT will be honored; this variable must be set to ON in order for the AUTOCONFIGURE command to be run successfully.
C. The AUTOCONFIGURE command does not require an explicit database connection.
D. When using the BUFFERPOOL keyword and a value of 50, AUTOCONFIGURE will tell DB2 to use 50% of the database shared memory for the buffer pools.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which commands will set the throttling percentage for a running backup operation that has a Utility ID of 2 for a database named DBTEST in an instance named DB2INST1 to 10 percent?
A. db2set UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT=ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIM FOR 2 TO 10;
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT FOR 2 TO 10;
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which list of keywords contains values that are all valid input parameters for the AUTOCONFIGURE command?
A. mem_percent, workload_type, tpm, isolation
B. mem_percent, workload_type, stmm, isolation
C. workload_type, isolation, num_apps, tpm
D. mem_percent, tpm, stmm, isolation
Answer: A
Question 6.
Given the following server information:
Instance name: db2inst1
Port number: 50000
Service name: db2c_db2inst1
Hostname: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A
Database: db2tcp
Which command will catalog a node for this server?
A. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
B. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
C. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
D. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
Answer: B
Question 7.
Given the following command:
BACKUP DB dbtest UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY 20
Which command should be executed prior to the BACKUP command in order for the backup operation to run in throttled mode?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON
B. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 100
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 50
Answer: D
Question 8.
A database administrator needs to obtain the self tuning settings for a database named MYDB.
Which command should be issued?
A. db2set -all
B. GET DBM CFG SHOW DETAIL
C. GET DB CFG FOR mydb SHOW DETAIL
D. LIST MEMORY SETTINGS FOR mydb
Answer: C
Question 9.
During a routine inspection of database MYDB, a database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup (AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = ON
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = ON
Which command will activate automatic statistics collection for the database MYDB?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF OFF
AUTO_PROF_UPD OFF
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON
AUTO_RUNSTATS ON
D. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
Answer: C
Question 10.
The test database MYDB requires frequent table and index reorganization to support ongoing application development. A database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = OFF
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = OFF
Which commands will enable automatic table and index reorganization for the database MYDB?
A. REORG TABLE ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
REORG INDEXES ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TABLE_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
D. RESET DB CFG FOR mydb; UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
Answer: D
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