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i m going for CDIA+ exam in the first week of feb. plz forward to me some latest dump papers. plz...
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Question 1.
Navisphere CLI is typically installed with what other software package?
A. Navisphere Manager
B. Host Agent
C. AccessLogix
D. PowerPath
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which two statements about Storage Area Networks (SANs) are true? (Choose two.)
A. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources via IP / Ethernet networking.
B. SANs enable the sharing of storage resources across a high speed, low latency, Fibre
Channel network.
C. SANs provide block level I/O access to storage resources.
D. SANs provide file level I/O access to storage resources.
Answer: B, C
Question 3.
Which three statements are correct about zoning with Brocade switches? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning configuration information is stored on the hosts.
B. Zone aliases are not required to define a zone.
C. A zone can be included in more than one zone configuration.
D. Each zone must be given a unique name.
E. Each device can be included in only one zone.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 4.
Which term is another name for hard zoning in Fibre Channel switches?
A. soft zoning
B. WWN zoning
C. port zoning
D. switch zoning
Answer: C
Question 5.
Where is the Host Agent privileged user list stored?
A. on the Storage Area Network (SAN) for central access
B. in an administrative share on the host server for host-to-host replication
C. both locally and remotely on the SAN
D. each Host Agent maintains its own local copy
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. admhost
B. naviadm
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: A
Question 7.
Which three statements about a GigaBit Interface Converter (GBIC) are true? (Choose three.)
A. Single-mode optical can be used for long wavelength transmissions.
B. A GBIC can convert the SCSI protocol intoFibre Channel.
C. Multi-mode optical can be used for short wavelength transmissions.
D. Small form pluggable LC transceivers build upon the GBIC standard.
E. A GBIC terminates aFibre loop.
Answer: A, C, D
Question 8.
Which two components of a CX700 array do the standby power supplies connect to? (Choose two.)
A. The left and right power distribution units (PDUs)
B. Storage Processor Enclosure (SPE)
C. the first Disk Array Enclosure (DAE2-OS)
D. Disk Processor Enclosure (DPE)
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
B. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
C. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
D. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
E. Snapshots may be created using theadmhost CLI utility.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
What are four characteristics of World Wide Names (WWNs)? (Choose four.)
A. WWNs consist of a 128-bit value comprising a 64-bit node name and a 64-bit port name.
B. WWNs can be used in an IP NIC.
C. WWNs are used to route SAN data and provide zoning and failover functionality.
D. Each device has a pre-defined, unique address.
E. More than one WWN can exist in a single host if the host contains multiple Host Bus Adapters
(HBAs).
Answer: A, C, D, E
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Question 1. Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration? A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other checks can restrict access to the logon screen Answer: A Question 2. Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists? A. ACL's can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites. B. ACL's can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop. C. ACL's require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when the user clicks on a favorite. D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL's. Answer: A Question 3. Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit, Which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen. B. If the file c:\logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller. C. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be presented with a logon screen. D. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen. E. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller. F. If the file c:\logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller. Answer: A, C Question 4. If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair? A. https:///admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode". B. https:// /admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode". C. https:// /admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active". D. https:// /admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active". Answer: B Question 5. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way? A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default. B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console. C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script. D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console. E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance" script. Answer: B Question 6. Which statement is true for users in a group when the "Show administrator-defined favorites only" option is enabled? A. They cannot configure their own user favorites. B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient privileges. C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as FirePass. D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the web-site address. Answer: A Question 7. Which two sequences include the "required" steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.) 1.restart First (Primary) 2.restart Second (Secondary) 3.enable Failover option on First 4.enable Failover option on Second 5.configure virtual IP Address on First 6. configure virtual IP Address on Second A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6 B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6 C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2 D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2 E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2 F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2 Answer: C, D Question 8. Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers? A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent. B. Admin console / Clustering option is present. C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present. D. Admin console / Network Access option is present. Answer: C Question 9. Which statement is true about the Failover Synchronization process on FirePass? A. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby automatically. B. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active automatically. C. The Synchronization process can be configured using a virtual IP Address. D. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby manually by an Administrator. E. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active manually by an Administrator. Answer: A Question 10. Which three types of applications are supported by the Application Access Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.) A. TN3270 access to mainframe B. TN3270 ssh access to mainframe C. TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems (System i) D. Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host E. full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host Answer: A, C, D
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Question 1.
If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A. The role
B. The schema name
C. The owner keyword
D. The current SQLID (if set)
Answer: A
Question 2.
A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables, indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE" has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user "DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed.
Which of the following statements are correct? (Select two answers)
A. None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B. The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C. When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D. Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
E. To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Answer: A, C
Question 3.
A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5)
C. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D. -START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4,5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA
CAPTURE CHANGES
Answer: C
Question 4.
A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer needed.
Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A. SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B. FREE Package (..)
C. DROP Package (..)
D. DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Answer: B
Question 5.
At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC) invoked?
A. At DB2 startup.
B. When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C. When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D. During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP panel.
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A. DSN1.IMS
B. DSNR.IMS
C. DSN1.MASS
D. DSN1.SASS
Answer: C
Question 7.
An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1 with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated.
Which of the following will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A. REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D. Change TSOID1 's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Answer: D
Question 8.
A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method. The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages.
Which of the following explicit system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also execute them?
A. BINDADD
B. CREATEIN
C. BINDAGENT
D. CREATEDBA
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain queries?
A. STDSQL
B. OPTHINTS
C. PARTKEYU
D. DESCSTAT
Answer: B
Question 10.
What is the purpose of the following catalog health query?
SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR, BTYPE, DNAME
FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD
WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A')
AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT *
FROM SYSIBM.SYSTADLES
WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR
AND NAME = PD.BNAME
AND TYPE = PD.STYPE);
A. For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTASLES.
D. For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a syntax error exception is thrown.
Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A
Question 2.
Given the following table definition:
CREATE TABLE staff (
id SMALLINT NOT NULL,
name VARCHAR(9),
dept SMALLINT,
job CHAR(5))
Assuming that the following statements execute successfully:
Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand()
cmdStaff.CommandText = "SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)"
Which of the following is the correct way to provide a value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
Answer: D
Question 3.
If the following code is executed in the order shown:
conDB2 As DB2Connection
conDB2.ConnectionString = "Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"
conDB2.Open()
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the local database catalog.
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B
Question 6.
Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied. Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a Cursor Stability isolation level.
What would be the best course of action to improve the system's concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT operation.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C
Question 8.
Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
====== ===== ======= =======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER track_chgs
AFTER UPDATE OF salary, name, empno ON emp
REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable
FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
INSERT INTO changes
SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM ntable;
END;
After executing the following SQL statements:
DELETE FROM changes;
UPDATE emp SET deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95';
INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary + 1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;
What value will be returned by this query? SELECT count(*) FROM changes
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A
Question 9.
Given the following table and view definitions:
CREATE TABLE city (
cityid INT GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY ,
city_name CHAR(10),
state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN ('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));
CREATE VIEW city_view AS (
SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname FROM city
WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL'));
and the following trigger definition:
CREATE TRIGGER city_viewInput
INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view
REFERENCING NEW AS n
FOR EACH ROW MODE DB2SQL
BEGIN ATOMIC
DECLARE delim INT;
SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code)
VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1), SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));
END;
If the following SQL statments are executed:
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ;
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI');
INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX');
INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Denver,CO');
How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT * FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
Question 10.
An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query: SELECT t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1
If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the following DB2 object types must the identifier T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B
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Question 1.
A database administrator wishes to enable automatic table and index reorganization.
Which set of Database Configuration parameters must be set to ON for automatic table and index reorganization to be enabled?
A. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
B. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
C. AUTO_MAINT, AUTO_RUNSTATS, AUTO_REORG
D. AUTO_TBL_MAINT, AUTO_REORG
Answer: B
Question 2.
Self tuning memory simplifies the task of memory configuration by automatically setting values for memory configuration parameters and sizing buffer pools.
When enabled, the memory tuner dynamically distributes available memory resources between _____.
A. several buffer pools
B. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, lock list areas, and buffer pools
C. several memory consumers including sort, package cache, monitor heap, and lock list areas
D. several memory consumers including load and buffer pools
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which explanation describing the AUTOCONFIGURE command is valid?
A. The AUTOCONFIGURE command will only make recommendations based on the assumption of a single database per instance.
B. When explicitly invoking the Configuration Advisor using the AUTOCONFIGURE command, the registry setting of DB2_ENABLE_AUTOCONFIG_DEFAULT will be honored; this variable must be set to ON in order for the AUTOCONFIGURE command to be run successfully.
C. The AUTOCONFIGURE command does not require an explicit database connection.
D. When using the BUFFERPOOL keyword and a value of 50, AUTOCONFIGURE will tell DB2 to use 50% of the database shared memory for the buffer pools.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which commands will set the throttling percentage for a running backup operation that has a Utility ID of 2 for a database named DBTEST in an instance named DB2INST1 to 10 percent?
A. db2set UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT=ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIM FOR 2 TO 10;
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_LIMIT FOR 2 TO 10;
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON;
SET UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY FOR 2 TO 10;
Answer: D
Question 5.
Which list of keywords contains values that are all valid input parameters for the AUTOCONFIGURE command?
A. mem_percent, workload_type, tpm, isolation
B. mem_percent, workload_type, stmm, isolation
C. workload_type, isolation, num_apps, tpm
D. mem_percent, tpm, stmm, isolation
Answer: A
Question 6.
Given the following server information:
Instance name: db2inst1
Port number: 50000
Service name: db2c_db2inst1
Hostname: 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A
Database: db2tcp
Which command will catalog a node for this server?
A. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
B. CATALOG TCPIP6 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
C. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
D. CATALOG TCPIP4 NODE db2tcp REMOTE 1080:0:0:0:8:800:200C:417A SERVER 50000
Answer: B
Question 7.
Given the following command:
BACKUP DB dbtest UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY 20
Which command should be executed prior to the BACKUP command in order for the backup operation to run in throttled mode?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR dbtest USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM ON
B. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 100
C. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_PRIORITY ON
D. UPDATE DBM CFG USING UTIL_IMPACT_LIM 50
Answer: D
Question 8.
A database administrator needs to obtain the self tuning settings for a database named MYDB.
Which command should be issued?
A. db2set -all
B. GET DBM CFG SHOW DETAIL
C. GET DB CFG FOR mydb SHOW DETAIL
D. LIST MEMORY SETTINGS FOR mydb
Answer: C
Question 9.
During a routine inspection of database MYDB, a database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup (AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = ON
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = ON
Which command will activate automatic statistics collection for the database MYDB?
A. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF OFF
AUTO_PROF_UPD OFF
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_RUNSTATS ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON
AUTO_RUNSTATS ON
D. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TBL_MAINT ON AUTO_STATS_PROF ON
Answer: C
Question 10.
The test database MYDB requires frequent table and index reorganization to support ongoing application development. A database administrator obtained the following information by executing the command GET DB CFG FOR mydb.
Automatic maintenance (AUTO_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic database backup AUTO_DB_BACKUP) = OFF
Automatic table maintenance (AUTO_TBL_MAINT) = OFF
Automatic runstats (AUTO_RUNSTATS) = OFF
Automatic statistics profiling (AUTO_STATS_PROF) = OFF
Automatic profile updates (AUTO_PROF_UPD) = OFF
Automatic reorganization (AUTO_REORG) = OFF
Which commands will enable automatic table and index reorganization for the database MYDB?
A. REORG TABLE ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
REORG INDEXES ALL FOR DB mydb AUTOMATICALLY;
B. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
C. UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_TABLE_MAINT ON;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
D. RESET DB CFG FOR mydb;
UPDATE DB CFG FOR mydb USING AUTO_REORG ON;
Answer: D
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