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Here are a few questions from ITcertkeys.com guide seen in the exam.
Hopefully will help you in the exam
Question 1.
Which one of the following statements regarding the certificate authority (CA) is true?
A. The CA issues internet certificates only
B. Access to the certifier ID must be granted
C. The CA issues Lotus Notes certificates only
D. The CA issues both Lotus Notes and Internet certificates
Answer: D
Question 2.
Luke wants to use a single computer to run two separate Domino servers.
Which one of the following types to servers should he use to accomplish this?
A. A Virtual server
B. A multiple server
C. A clustered server
D. A partitioned server
Answer: D
Question 3.
Sarah, the Domino administrator, is planning the hierarchical name scheme for a new Domino environment.
Which one of the following is not required?
A. Common name
B. Country code
C. Organizational unit
D. Organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Country code is an optional element in a hierarchical naming scheme. Country codes are always two characters, and organizational certifiers are always three characters or more in the length.
Question 4.
Which one of the following server condole commands can be used to clear the database cache?
A. DBCache Flush
B. DB_Dump
C. DatabaseFlush
D. None of these answer apply
Answer: A
Explanation:
The DBCache flush console command closes all databases that are currently open in the database cache. Use this command before maintaining databases to flush databases from the cache.
Question 5.
Jane set up domain searching. Which one of the following is referenced when a domain search is made?
A. Domain Catalog
B. Database Catalog
C. Domain Directory
D. Directory Assistance
Answer: A
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Question 1.
Given the output from a dumpadm command:
# dumpadm
Dump content: kernel pages
Dump device: /dev/dsk/c0t0d0s1 (swap)
Savecore directory: /var/crash/wm13w1
Savecore enabled: yes
Which statement is correct?
A. The savecore command will run as the system shuts down following a panic.
B. The dump device is also the swap device.
C. Crash dumps are written to the /var/crash/wm13w1 file.
D. The system will dump the whole content of memory to the dump device.
Answer: B
Question 2.
You run an IT department and are responsible for purchasing hardware within a given budget. You are aware that 70 GBytes of data housed in a series of traditional disk slices is becoming critical to the business. You decide to mirror the data but have concerns about write performance. You can purchase the disk space to mirror the data.
What is a cost-free configuration enhancement that achieves fast write performance?
A. striping the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
B. arranging for the mirror to consist of just two disks
C. using RAID 5 to hold the data in each half of the mirror
D. concatenating the data across the disks in each half of the mirror
Answer: A
Question 3.
Your syslog configuration file contains the line:
mail.debugifdef(`LOGHOST', /var/log/syslog, @loghost)
Which two are correct statements about this entry? (Choose two.)
A. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the /var/log/syslog file.
B. If the loghost alias is set to be the local host, messages are sent to the user loghost on the
Local system.
C. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are emailed to the root user at the
host loghost.
D. The ifdef statement is interpreted by the syslogd daemon.
E. If the loghost alias is not set to the local host, messages are sent to the host defined as the
loghost.
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Given the line from a name service configuration file:
ethers: nis [UNAVAIL=return] files
Which two statements correctly describe the behavior of the name service switch? (Choose two.)
A. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will continue by looking for
it in the local file.
B. If the NIS server does NOT respond, the search for the ethers entry will end without looking in
the local file.
C. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will continue by
looking for it in the local file.
D. If NIS does NOT find the appropriate entry in its ethers map, the search will end without
looking in the local file.
Answer: B, C
Question 5.
You want to automatically mount an NFS resource. You also want to mount the NFS resource so that if the server becomes unavailable, and the client reboots, system initialization will continue without waiting for the resource to mount.
Which mount option can be added to the client's /etc/vfstab file to achieve this?
A. ro
B. intr
C. bg
D. soft
E. hard
F. fg
Answer: C
Question 6.
You are creating a profile on your JumpStart server to install a new system and are using a Flash archive to provide the necessary software. The Flash archive is called /export/nb.flar and is shared on the network from the server grendel, which has the IP address 194.168.85.106.
What is the syntax for the JumpStart client's profile file which will use this archive to install the new system?
A. archive_location grendel /export/nb.flar nfs
B. archive_location nfs grendel /export/nb.flar
C. archive_location 194.168.85.106 nfs /export/nb.flar
D. archive_location nfs 194.168.85.106:/export/nb.flar
Answer: D
Question 7.
The rules.ok file on your JumpStart server contains the line:
hostname client1 backup_root client_config set_root_passwd
Which two are correct statements about the function of this line? (Choose two.)
A. The client runs the backup_root script prior to installing software.
B. The client runs the set_root_passwd script after installing software.
C. The client will configure itself using either the backup_root, client_config, or set_root_passwd
profiles.
D. The client runs the backup_root, client_config and set_root_passwd scripts after installing
software.
E. The client runs the backup_root, client_config, and set_root_passwd scripts prior to installing
software.
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
You have Solaris Volume Manager installed on your system and want to create your first metadevice.
What initial action must you take?
A. create a soft partition using the -s initialize option with the appropriate command
B. run a command to initialize the configuration metadevice
C. run the vxinstall utility to initialize the volume manager software for use
D. run a command to create the first state database
E. run a utility to add a license to enable SVM for Solaris 9
Answer: D
Question 9.
Given:
# getfacl file1
# file: file1
# owner: root
# group: other
user::rwuser:
user3:rwx #effective:r--
group::r-- #effective:r--
mask:r--
other:r--
You run the command:
setfacl -s u::rwx,g::rw-,o:r--,m:rw- file1
Which statement describes the effect of the setfacl command?
A. The permissions assigned to user3 remain unchanged.
B. The permissions for user3 are removed from the system.
C. The effective permissions of the group other remain unchanged.
D. Nothing happens due to a syntax error in the setfacl command.
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which three functions can the syslogd daemon perform? (Choose three.)
A. forwarding messages to a list of users
B. interrupting processes that are producing errors above a pre-configured threshold
C. writing messages to a system log
D. forwarding input from root to the user's processes
E. writing IPC messages to the processes that are generating errors rapidly
F. forwarding messages to the syslogd daemon on another host on the network
Answer: A, C, F
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Question 1. On an NFS server, which commands can you use to determine which clients have mounted exported file systems? (Select two.) A. more /etc/rmtab B. mount -v C. showmount -a D. more /etc/mounts E. more /etc/nfstab Answer: A, C Question 2. What is the main script that controls the start up of system services? A. /sbin/preinitrc B. /sbin/ioinitrc C. /sbin/bcheckrc D. /sbin/rc Answer: D Question 3. Which features are enabled by the HP-UX WBEM (Web-Based Enterprise Management) provider instrumentation? (Select three.) A. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) user configuration B. HP SIM and SMH display of system health and properties C. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) inventory reports D. HP Systems Management Homepage (SMH) display of component health E. Management processor display of health of the server it is managing F. HP System Management Homepage (SMH) configuration snapshots and inventory reports G. HP-UX Software Assistant capabilities Answer: B, C, D Question 4. Which Ignite command makes a recovery tape of all files in vg00? A. make_tape_recovery -x inc_entire=/dev/vg00 -a /dev/rmt/1mn B. make_recovery -x inc_entire=/dev/vg00 -a /dev/rmt/1mn C. make_tape_recovery -x inc_vg00=all -a /dev/rmt/1mn D. make_net_recovery -x inc=/dev/vg00 -d /dev/rmt/1mn Answer: A Question 5. What does the pvcreate command create? A. the physical links B. a hard partition C. the lvm disk resident structures D. a physical volume device file Answer: C Question 6. Which protocol is used to assign an IP address to hosts? A. DNS B. DHCP C. BOOTP D. BIND Answer: B Question 7. On an NFS client, which configuration file is used to name the local mount point when mounting a file system from an NFS server during system boot? A. nfs.conf B. fstab C. exports D. nfstab Answer: B Question 8. Why do you use the HP-UX System Management Homepage (SMH) and its functional areas? (Select three.) A. to manage a small number of systems in your environment B. to see the health of the system and its components C. to configure the HP-UX Event Monitoring System D. to perform HP-UX management tasks such as configuration E. to run inventory reports and snapshot comparisons on the HP-UX system F. to manage Web-Based Enterprise Management subscriptions and view events on the system Answer: B, D, F Question 9. Which statements are true regarding threads and processes? (Select two.) A. A thread is a component of a process. B. A process is a container for a set of instructions that carry out a task of the program. C. A thread forces the entire process to run on a single set of resources. D. Threads and processes have nothing to do with each other. E. A process is a component of a thread. Answer: A, B Question 10. What do physical volume links provide in HP-UX 11i v2? A. access to a spare disk B. an alternate path to a disk C. automatic load balancing D. improved RAID performance Answer: B
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Question 1. An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still decide to implement your off-schedule shift change. Which leadership trait does this show? A. the ability to encourage team participation B. the ability to discourage one-person domination C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary Answer: D Question 2. Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure? A. the employee B. the employee's mentor C. the employee's manager D. the employee's team leader Answer: A Question 3. What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three) A. They help team members improve B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills. C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities. D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements. Answer: A, B, C Question 4. Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent. Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support organization's performance? A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time. C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time Answer: A Question 5. A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help Desk in the morning. He had to call back later. Which metric captures this situation? A. Time in Queue B. Abandonment Rate C. Average Speed of Answer D. First Call Resolution Rate Answer: B Question 6. What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan? A. the support center's budget requirements B. the support center's staffing requirements C. the support center's implementation timelines D. the support center's role in the corporate vision Answer: D Question 7. Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods? (Choose three) A. project analysis B. position profiling C. skill gap analysis D. individual assessment Answer: B, C, D Question 8. Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals? (Choose three) A. Automatic Call Distributor B. Interactive Voice Response C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System D. Extra-diem Reporting Application E. Customer Relationship Management Answer: A, B, E Question 9. Which statement about contract staffing is true? A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company. B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time employees D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by their company. Answer: C Question 10. What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three) A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns. Answer: A, B, D
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Question 1. In which three ways does a Cisco IPS network sensor protect the network from attacks? (Choose three.) A. It can take variety of actions when it detects traffic that matches a set of rules that pertain to typical intrusion activity B. It permits or denies traffic into the protected network based on access lists that you create on the sensor C. It uses a blend of intrusion detection technologies to detect malicious network activity D. It can generate an alert when it detects traffic that matches a set of rules that pertain to typical intrusion activity Answer: A, C, D Question 2. You would like to have your inline sensor deny attackers inline when events occur that have risk ratings over 85. Which two actions, when taken in conjunction will accomplish this? (Choose two.) A. Assign the risk rating range of 85 to 100 to the Deny Attacker inline event action B. Create target value ratings of 85 to 100 C. Create an event variable for the protected network D. Create an Event Action Filter and assign the risk rating range of 85 to 100 to the filter E. Enable Event Action overrides F. Enable Event Action Filters Answer: A, E Question 3. Which statement accurately describes Cisco IPS Sensor Automatic signature and service pack updates? A. If multiple signature or service pack updates are available when the sensor checks for an update, the Cisco IPS Sensor installs the first update it detects B. You must download service pack and signature updates form cisco.com to locally accessible server before they can be automatically applied to your Cisco IPS Sensor C. When you configure automatic updates, the Cisco IPS Sensor checks Cisco.com for updates hourly. D. The Cisco IPS Sensor can automatically download service pack and signature updates form cisco.com E. The Cisco IPS Sensor can download signature and service pack updates only from an TFTP or HTTP server Answer: B Question 4. You think users on your corporate network are disguising the user of file-sharing applications by tunneling the traffic through port 80. How can you configure your Cisco IPS Sensor to identify and stop this activity? A. Enable all signatures in the Service HTTP engine B. Assign the Deny Packet inline action to all signatures in the service HTTP Engine C. Enable the alarm for the non-HTTP traffic signature. Then create an Event Action Override that adds the Deny Packet inline action to event triggered by the signature if the traffic originates from your corporate network D. Enable both the HTTP application policy and the alarm on non-HTTP traffic signature E. Enable all signature in the Service HTTP engine. Then create an event action override that adds the Deny packet inline action to events triggered by these signatures if the traffic originates form your corporate network Answer: D Question 5. With Cisco IPS 6.0, what is the maximum number of Virtual sensors that can be configured on a single platform? A. The number depends on the amount of device memory B. Six C. Four D. Two E. Two in promiscuous mode using VLAN groups, four in inline mode supporting all interface type configurations Answer: C Question 6. Which two management access methods are enabled by default on a Cisco IPS sensor? (Choose two.) A. HTTP B. SSH C. Telnet D. IPSec E. HTTPS Answer: B, E Question 7. What is used to perform password recovery for the "cisco" admin account on a Cisco IPS 4200 Series Sensor? A. ROMMON CLI B. Cisco IDM C. Setup mode D. Recovery Partition E. GRUB menu Answer: E Question 8. How should you create a custom signature that will fire when a series of pre-defined signature occur and you want the Cisco IPS Sensor to generate alerts only for the new custom signature, not for the individual signatures? A. Use the Normalizer Engine and se the summary mode to Global Summarize B. Use the Service Engine and Set the summary mode to global summarize C. Use the Trojan Engine and remove the Produce Alert action from the component signatures D. Use the Normalizer engine and remove the Produce Alert action from the component signatures E. Use the ATOMIC Engine and set the summary mode to Global Summarize F. Use the Meta engine and remove the produce alert action from the component signatures Answer: F Question 9. When configuring Passive OS Fingerprinting, what is the purpose of restricting operating system mapping to specific addresses? A. Limits the ARR to the defined IP Addresses B. Specifies which IP Address range to import from EPI for OS fingerprinting C. Excludes the defined IP Addresses from automatic risk rating calculations so that you can specify the desired risk rating D. Allows you to configure separate OS maps within that IP address range Answer: A Question 10. You have been made aware of new and unwanted traffic on your network. You want to create a signature to monitor and perform an action against that traffic when certain thresholds are reached. What would be the best way to configure this new signature? A. Use the Anomaly Detection functions to learn abut the unwanted traffic, then create a new meta signature using Cisco IDM B. Clone and edit an existing signature that closely matches the traffic you are trying to prevent C. Create a new signature definition, edit it, and then enable it D. Edit a built-in signature that closely matches the traffic you are trying to prevent Answer: C
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Question 1. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: B Question 2. ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements: Conference 3:three conference participants What will occur when the third conference is attempted? A. The third conference will succeed as desired. B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence. C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for three conferences of three people each. D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide the number of required services. Answer: A Question 3. Exhibit: ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters;ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location? A. A B. B C. C D. D Answer: B Question 4: ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IPVC 3521 B. Cisco IPVC 3526 C. Cisco IPVC 3540 D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway E. Cisc MCM proxy Answer: B, C Question 5. Exhibit: A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 166667 B. bandwidth remote 166667 C. bandwidth session 166667 D. bandwidth region 166667 E. bandwidth zone 166667 Answer: A Question 6. Exhibit: CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager? A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 kbps. B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 kbps. C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 kbps. D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps between the central site and each remote site. E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps between the central site and each remote site. F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps between the central site and each remote site. Answer: C Question 7. ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. What should this company purchase? A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade Answer: C Question 8. Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.) A. the number of sites in the enterprise B. the number and location of gatekeepers C. the incoming PSTN call routing method D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed F. the location of voice gateways Answer: A, C, D Question 9. Exhibit: The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps? A. bandwidth interzone 768 B. bandwidth limit 768 C. bandwidth session 768 D. bandwidth call 768 E. bandwidth zone 768 Answer: C Question 10. What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups? A. zones B. clusters C. calling search spaces D. toll bypass routing Answer: A
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Question 1. Which file format and audio codec should you use when creating enhanced audio podcasts? A. M4A and AAC B. WAV and MP3 C. WAV and MP3 VBR D. M4A and Protected AAC Answer: A Question 2. Podcast aggregators are applications that search, format, and display podcasts, based on subscriptions to ________. A. metadata B. RSS feeds C. entries from the iTunes Music Store D. HTML files associated with podcasts Answer: B Question 3. Weblogs can be published and syndicated using which THREE protocols? (Choose THREE.) A. RSS B. RTP C. RSS2 D. RTSP E. Atom F. PCAST Answer: A, C, E Question 4. Which application can be used to create a live stream that anyone with an Internet connection can access? A. QuickTime Pro B. QuickTime Player C. QuickTime Broadcaster D. QuickTime Streaming Server Answer: C Question 5. What feature of the Weblog Server is defined below? An electronic link between two entries that lets a weblog author (or blogger) respond or refer to another blogger's entry by using an entry on his or her own weblog. A. GUID URL B. trackback URL C. syndication URL D. default domain URL Answer: B Question 6. You have created a podcast and want users to access it via iTunes or their iPod. Which of the following hosting options will NOT help you achieve your goal? A. iWeb and .Mac B. Web Server in Mac OS X Server C. Weblog Server in Mac OS X Server D. QuickTime Streaming Server in Mac OS X Server Answer: D Question 7. Where are QuickTime Streaming Server user accounts stored by default? A. /var/db/netinfo/local.nidb B. /Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtusers C. /System/Library/QuickTimeStreaming/Config/qtusers D. /Library/Application Support/Apple/QuickTime/Streaming/Users/qtusers Answer: B Question 8. You want to post a podcast to your new weblog server. You have logged in, configured your first weblog category, and clicked New Entry to create your first weblog entry. Which of these steps should you perform NEXT? A. Click Advanced to add your podcast file. B. Test your podcast subscription from iTunes. C. Test your podcast weblog entry from a web browser. D. Click New Episode to add the first podcast episode to your weblog. Answer: A Question 9. What is an advantage of streaming media via HTTP? A. Streaming media via HTTP allows you to multicast live streams. B. Streaming media via HTTP ensures that all movie packets are delivered and that dropped packets are retransmitted. C. Streams delivered via HTTP allow users to skip to any point in a movie on the server without downloading the intervening material. D. Streams delivered via HTTP allow long movies and continuous transmissions to be viewed without having to store more than a few seconds of data locally. Answer: B Question 10. Which TWO are valid iPod video formats? (Choose TWO.) A. H.264 (768 kbps, 320x240, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz) B. .MOV (2.5 Mbps, 640x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz) C. MPEG-2 (768 kbps, 320x240, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz) D. MPEG-3 (2.5 Mbps, 480x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz) E. MPEG-4 (2.5 Mbps, 480x480, AAC-LC up to 160 kbps, 48 kHz) Answer: A, E
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Question 1. A new Xserve is booted from the Mac OS X Server v10.4 installation disc. Which password will let you connect to the Xserve remotely? A. the sequence of characters, "PASSWORD" B. the first eight characters of the Xserve serial number C. the first eight characters of the Xserve Ethernet MAC address D. the first eight characters of the Mac OS X Server software serial number Answer: B Question 2. Which command-line tool can help you identify the configuration file that is written to when you change an option from the graphical interface? A. ps B. otool C. tcpdump D. fs_usage E. netstat -a Answer: D Question 3. Certain tools must be used to configure a Mac OS X Server computer from the command line. Other tools are optional. Which tool below is optional when configuring Mac OS X Server from the command line? A. ifconfig B. serversetup C. networksetup Answer: A Question 4. You want to enable secure connections to your AFP service. Which command can you use to do so? A. sudo serveradmin settings afp:SSHTunnel = yes B. sudo serveradmin command afp:setSSHTunnel:yes C. sudo networksetup -CreateBond afp:SSHTunnel D. sudo networksetup settings -setappletalk "Built-in Ethernet" = SSH Answer: A Question 5. Where are records for share points stored? A. in /etc/afpd.conf B. in /etc/aftovertcp.cfg C. in the local NetInfo database D. in the LDAP database of the Open Directory Master Answer: C Question 6. Server Admin typically sends commands to servermgrd using ________. A. SSH B. SNMP C. XML over HTTPS D. an Apple-proprietary data stream over HTTP Answer: C Question 7. Which statement is true of Server Admin's default SSL configuration? A. Each server has a unique, self-signed certificate. B. SSL is disabled because no valid certificates are pre-installed. C. Each server has a unique certificate signed by Apple's Certificate Authority. D. All servers use the identical, pre-installed certificate signed by Apple's Certificate Authority. Answer: A Question 8. You are using the command-line installer to install PretendCoTools.pkg. You want to install it on a non-boot volume mounted on a server. Which command will help you determine whether the package supports installation on that volume? A. hdiutil verify PretendCoTools.pkg B. installer-volinfo -pkg PretendCoTools.pkg C. lsbom PretendCoTools.pkg/Contents/Archive.bom D. cat PretendCoTools.pkg/contents/Resources/preflight Answer: B Question 9. You want to use the built-in software RAID in Mac Os X Server to create a RAID 1 set across two disks in an Xserve. Which command will accomplish this goal? A. megaraid create R1 -drive 0 1 -stripesize 64 B. diskutil createRAID mirror RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1 C. diskutil createRAID stripe RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1 D. diskutil createRAID stripe-distributed-parity RAID_Volume HFS+ disk0 disk1 Answer: B Question 10. You want to update the software on a headless Xserve over an SSH connection to the server, but one of the component installers has a graphical element that displays a splash screen. How can you prevent the installer from launching this graphical element? A. Run softwareupdate with the -headless option. B. Set the environment variable COMMAND_LINE_INSTALL to 1. C. Use SystemStarter to start the HeadlessStartup startup item. D. Download the updates with softwareupdate -d, then install them with installer -noGUI. Answer: B
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Question 1. One of your ITCertKeys.com co-workers, Tim, is working to define and develop Financial Statement Generator reports where the budget amounts and actual amounts would display on the report per period. Tim comes to you and says that he has defined an FSG report according to the client's requirements; the actual amounts are correctly shown, but the problem is that budget amounts are not showing up on the report. What is your response? A. Budget status is Frozen. B. The budget name needs to be associated with the row set through control values. C. There is some issue with the assignment of accounts to the budget organization. D. The first fiscal year of the budget was never opened. E. The last fiscal year of the budget is Closed. Answer: B Question 2. Jason, the corporate controller of ITCertKeys.com where you are implementing Oracle General Ledger, Accounts Payable, an Accounts Receivable, is very excited about the Global Intercompany System (GIS). He wrote some notes from a conversation with his accounting manager about GIS. He wants you to validate which points he has written down about GIS are true. Identify Jason's three correct points. (Choose three.) A. GIS enables intercompany transactions to be approved after transfer from AP and AR. B. Unlike intercompany accounting within the same set of books, GIS only works between sets of books but not within the same set of books. C. Intercompany journals are created automatically as soon as they are approved. D. You can set up GIS so that the sender's transactions do not need to be approved by the receiver. E. If a sender approves the transaction but the receiver rejects it, the transaction is recalled. F. Each company that uses GIS must be set up as a subsidiary that is associated with a balancing segment value. G. You can optionally send notifications to a defined user or responsibility when an intercompany transaction is initiated. Answer: D, F, G Question 3. One of ITCertKeys.com's clients wants the ability to report with Financial Statements Generator (FSG) and perform account inquiry at the summary (business unit) level of its Cost Center segment. A business unit is a group of cost centers and a business unit manager typically has several cost centers under his or her responsibility. Which option will meet the client's requirements? A. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers, and Summary Accounts. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts. B. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the Rollup Groups. C. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Create Summary Accounts based on the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values. D. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values. E. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Summary Accounts for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts. Answer: A Question 4. Which report would provide information about the processing type (parallel or sequential) that may be defined for reports? A. Report Detail Listing B. Content Set Summary Listing C. Row Set Summary Listing Answer: B Question 5. After you determine your needs and organize your summary account structure, which General Ledger tools can you use to define parent-child values and rollup groups? A. Analyzer Hierarchies, Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed). B. Mass Maintenance, Analyzer Hierarchies, or Account Hierarchy Manager C. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Manager D. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed). E. Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed). Answer: E Question 6. The Consolidation Workbench enables you to _____, _____, and _____. (Choose three.) A. access the State Controller B. create consolidations sets, which launch multiple consolidations in a single step C. create multilevel hierarchies, which you can view using the graphical Consolidation Hierarchy Viewer D. change the chart of accounts Answer: A, B, C Question 7. ITCertKeys.com wants to define a consolidation process for its enterprise. It has two sets of books: Set of Books A and Set of Books B. Both sets of books will use Oracle General Ledger. Set of Books A has three companies with the same calendar and chart of accounts as Set of Books B. Set of Books A has USD as its currency. Set of Books B has four companies with the same chart of accounts and calendar as Set of Books A. Set of Books B has GPD as its currency. Select the consolidation method. A. Interface Data Transformer B. Global Intercompany System C. Oracle Financial Analyzer D. Financial Statement Generator Answer: D Question 8. You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at ITCertKeys.coms site. ITCertKeys.com is based in the US but has a global presence in many countries worldwide, and has transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation team decides that GL multi currency setup will be part of the implementation. The GL accountant approaches you to discuss multiple reporting currencies (MRC); he wants to implement MRC and link the primary set of books with the reporting set of books. Additionally, he says that the primary and reporting sets of books all have different calendars but share the same chart of accounts. What response do you provide? A. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar and chart of accounts. B. There is no problem in satisfying this requirement. C. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same currency and chart of accounts. D. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar, currency and chart of accounts. Answer: A Question 9. ITCertKeys.com is a $2 million company operating from the U.S., and has one set of books. It is spinning off from its parent company and will be operating as an independent company. It is considering implementing Oracle Financials but wants the product to work exactly in the same way as its legacy systems from its parent company. What considerations should be presented to ABC in order for it to make a well-informed decision? (Choose all that apply.) A. Patching is simplified on a non-customized Oracle implementation. B. Adding customizations to replicate the legacy system could increase cost of future upgrades. C. Integration issues between modules are reduced when there are no customizations. D. No information can be interfaced from the legacy system to the product. Answer: A, B, C Question 10. Identify the two setups that control the defaulting of Tax Information on a journal entry. (Choose two.) A. Set of Books B. Journal categories C. Account Answer: A, C
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Question 1. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris, Minsk, and Athens. The CIO of ITCertKeys.com has sent a manager named Andy Reid to work in the office of Paris. Andy Reid has taken with him the Windows XP Professional Full PaITKaged Product (FPP). Accompanying the FPP is a Microsoft Select License for the installation of Windows XP Professional. At Paris Andy Reid wants install Windows XP Professional on a laptop. Andy Reid uses the installation media in the Product Fulfillment kit with the Microsoft Select License for the installation. Andy Reid then contacts you to state his problem "a screen requires the input of a product license key". Andy Reid wants to know which product key he should use. What should you tell him? A. The FPP product key B. The VLK product key C. A product key that is acquired by the security Web site. D. Use the product key printed on a stiITKer at the bottom of the laptop. Answer: B Explanation: If you want to license Windows XP Professional, you should use the Volume Product License Key (VLK). Incorrect answer: A: The FPP is used to install media which is provided in an FPP. C: If you make use of the security website, you or Andy Reid will violate the Microsoft License agreement. D: The Windows XP Professional product key which is on the laptop is intended only for the installation of Windows XP Professional on the system to which the stiITKer is attached. Question 2. You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Rory Allen complains that he is unable to join the ITCertKeys.com domain with his Windows XP computer. You tell Rory Allen to ping a domain controller in ITCertKeys.com, which was successful. What should you tell him to do next? A. Rory Allen should verify the domain mode. B. Rory Allen should verify the operating system version. C. Rory Allen should verify the hardware compatibility. D. Rory Allen should verify the network connectivity. Answer: B Explanation: The Windows XP Professional can join a Windows Server 2003 domain, not the Windows XP Home Edition. This is the difference if the two operating systems. Incorrect answer: A: It is not needed to make sure of the domain mode because Windows XP Professional cam interoperate with Windows Server 2003. C, D: The hardware compatibility or the network connectivity his not the problem. It states in the scenario that Rory Allen did ping the domain which was successful. Question 3. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Mia Hamm works in the Sales department. Due to volume of work, Mia Hamm needs her computer every minute. One morning Mia Hamm came to you and said that she needs the latest versions of the security patches from Microsoft. Mia Hamm wants the update to be installed without intervention from her. What should you tell Mia Hamm to do? A. Use Software Update Services (SUS). B. Use the Windows Update. C. Use Automatic Updates. D. Use Windows Unattended Installation. Answer: C Explanation: Mia Hamm should use the Automatic Updates. She can schedule the update to run after hours. Incorrect answer: A: SUS uses a local Windows Update Server. The question doesn't say ITCertKeys.com has a SUS server. B: If Mia Hamm is going to use Windows Updates, she has to manually download and install the updates. D: The Unattended Installation will allow her to install Windows XP Professional without doing anything. It is not used to download and install updates every day. Question 4. You work as the administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,300 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Accounting. Due to the growth of the Sales department, ITCertKeys.com will hire another 100 employees over the next month. The CIO acquires 100 new Windows XP Professional computers which will be added to the ITCertKeys.com network. Amy Walsh is a new employee in the Sales department. You install Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS271 for Amy Walsh. You need to ensure that Amy Walsh can use her ITCertKeys -WS271 for at least three years. You also want to send Microsoft information about ITCertKeys.com. What should you do? A. Register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271. B. Activate and register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271 during the installation process. C. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press F8 during the boot process. D. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press DEL or F2 during the boot process. Answer: B Explanation: If you register the computer, Microsoft will have information about the company and if you activate the operating system, it will continue after 30 days. Incorrect Answers: A: Registering will not allow the computer to stop with Windows XP Professional. You need to activate the operating system. C: If you press F8 when the operating system is rebooting, it will display the Boot Menu with options such as Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Network support etc. D: If you press the DEL of F2 key, it will display the CMOS setup program. Question 5. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department and a Marketing department. The Marketing department is in Chicago and the Sales department is in Dallas. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Amy Wilson works in the Sales department. She wants to install Windows XP Professional on a system in the Dallas office without the risk of infection of a worm or virus before the completion of the installation. Amy Wilson also wants File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks to be disabled. What should Amy Wilson do? A. In the Setup Wizard, use the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box. B. In the Setup Wizard, use the Typical settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box. C. In the Setup program, use the Advance Options on the Install Options page. D. Disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable. Answer: A Explanation: In the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box, Amy Wilson can disable the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks. This setting is usually enabled by default. Incorrect answer: B: If she uses the Typical setting, the option will be enabled. C: You only use the Advance Options on the Install Options page to identify the location of the setup files; select disk partitions; etc. D: There is no need to disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable, the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks will be installed by default. Question 6. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth tries to install is Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS277. ITCertKeys -WS277 is currently running Microsoft Windows 98. When Andy Booth inserts the Windows XP Professional CD into the CD-ROM drive and reboots ITCertKeys -WS277, Windows 98 loads instead of the Windows XP Professional setup program. Andy Booth wants to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS277 will load the Windows XP Professional setup program. What should Andy Booth do? A. Create a MS-DOS with the Add or Remove Programs, boot the computer with the disk and change to the CD-ROM drive and run winnt32.exe. B. Remove the drive with the Windows 98 files in the System utility. C. Create the installation disks with WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe, and boot from the disk. D. Enter the BIOS setup program and change the boot order for the CD-ROM drive to be cheITKed first. Answer: D Explanation: Andy Booth should change the starting order so that the computer cheITKs the CD-ROM first. When a computer starts, it will cheITK for the startup files on the hard drive. By changing it to cheITK the CD-ROM first, it will then find the Windows XP's startup files. Incorrect Answers: A: If he creates a MS-DOS disk, he should use the winnt.exe and not the winnt32.exe. B: You cannot configure the boot order with the System utility. C: WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe is used to install the correct drivers for a Windows XP installation. It is not used to create an installation disk. Question 7. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 50 employees over the next 3 months. The new employees will be assigned to the Sales department. The company has purchased 50 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees. You are required to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers. All the hardware on the new client computers appears on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). You install Windows XP Professional on one of the new client computers named ITCertKeys -WS102. However, once the installation is complete ITCertKeys -WS102 fails to start and you receive a "STOP INACCESSIBLE BOOT DEVICE" error message. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS102 can start properly. What should you do? A. In the system BIOS, disable UDMA for the primary hard disk. B. Use the Recovery Console and run the Fixboot and Fixmbr commands. C. In the system BIOS, disable all PIO modes for the primary hard disk. D. In the system BIOS, disable the virus scanning software. Answer: B Explanation: FIXBOOT is used to write a new boot sector onto the computer's system partition and FIXMBR is used to repair the MBR of the computer's boot partition. Incorrect answer: A, C: UDMA and PIO are automatically set at boot time. This will have no effect on the booting of the system. D: To disable the virus scanning option will not interfere during the installation. It will have no effect on the booting of the system. Reference: Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 657 Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9 Question 8. You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Research, Marketing, and Accounting. Amy Walsh is the manager of the Research department. She currently uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS129. ITCertKeys.com purchases a new computer named ITCertKeys -WS200 for Amy Walsh. ITCertKeys -WS200 has two hard drives that are connected to an ISA SCSI adapter and an IDE CD-ROM drive. You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS200. You decide to install Windows XP Professional from the Windows XP Professional installation CD. You configure ITCertKeys -WS200 to boot from the CD-ROM and attempt to install Windows XP Professional. However, the installation fails and you receive an error message stating that Setup cannot locate any hard disks on ITCertKeys -WS200. You need to ensure that you can install Windows XP Professional successfully on ITCertKeys -WS200. What should you do? A. During the installation, provide the SCSI adapter driver when prompted. B. In the system BIOS, assign an IRQ for a PCI video adapter. C. Replace the multi syntax with scsi syntax in the Boot.ini file. D. Ensure that the SCSI bus is properly terminated. Answer: A Explanation: The Windows XP Professional installation does not recognize the SCSI adapter. You should restart Setup and press F6 when prompted. You then should press S and provide the SCSI adapter driver on a floppy disk. Incorrect answer: B: Windows Plug and Play would assign the video card an available IRQ. C: According to the scenario the set up has failed immediately. TheBoot.ini is created when it is close to the first reboot. D: This could potentially be a cause of the problem; however, it is far more likely to be a driver issue. If the bus wasn't properly terminated, you would get an error during the POST process before the installation starts. Reference: Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 106 Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 4 Question 9. You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com includes a Finance department. ITCertKeys.com has just acquired a new computer for an employee named Andy Reid. You set the BIOS for the following boot sequence: CD-ROM, Floppy disk drive and Hard disk. You then boot the computer from the Windows XP Professional installation CD-ROM. When you reboot he computer after the Windows XP installation, you insert a CD-ROM and install TechNet with the Minimum setup option. There after you insert a floppy disk and install the latest video driver. When the computer again reboots it displays the following error message: Non-system disk or disk error. Replace and press any key to continue. You need to start the computer with the least amount of administrative effort. What should you do? A. Remove the floppy disk and press SPACEBAR. B. Start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver. C. Remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR. D. Set the CD-ROM as the last device in the boot order. Answer: A Explanation: You should remove a floppy disk and then press the SPACEBAR. If it is not a bootable disk then the computer will show an error message. Incorrect answer: B: It is not needed to start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver. With a floppy disk in a floppy disk drive, you will not be able to restart in Safe Mode. C: It is not needed to remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR. Th4e drive will determine that the CD-ROM is not bootable. D: There is no need to change the boot sequence because the CD-ROM is not bootable. Question 10. You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com is in the process of upgrading the client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to use cloning to deploy Windows XP Professional to the client computers in the Marketing Department. You install a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS240 in your test lab and install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS240. You then install the required applications on ITCertKeys -WS240 and configure the computer. After ensuring that ITCertKeys -WS240 performs as expected, you log onto the computer as the local Administrator. However, when you attempt to run sysprep.exe at the command prompt, sysprep.exe does not execute. What is the most probable cause of this problem? A. The disk drive on ITCertKeys -WS240 has multiple partitions. Sysprep can only clone a single partition. B. The sysprep files are not in the systemdrive\sysprep directory. C. To run the sysprep utility, you must be a member of the Domain Admins group. D. The partitions on ITCertKeys -WS240 are formatted with FAT32. Answer: B Explanation: For Sysprep.exe to run you need the following files Sysprep.exe, Setupcl.exe and Sysprep.inf on a floppy disk or in the systemdrive\sysprep directory. Incorrect answer: A: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system. C: Not only the Domain Admins group has that privilege, but the administrator account has also sufficient privileges to run Sysprep.exe. D: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system. Reference: Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 62 Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
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