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Can someone please tell me where I can find the best dump for 642-511.
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Question 1. What is the default role on a Cisco mesh access point? Select the best response. A. root access point B. mesh access point C. root bridge access point D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 2. Which AP combinations can support MAP or RAP roles in a mesh network using version 5.2? Select the best response. A. AP1252, AP1510, AP1522, AP1524 B. AP1232, AP1522, AP1524, AP1242 C. AP1131, AP1522, AP1242, AP1524 D. AP1252, AP 1522, AP1524, AP1242 Answer: C Question 3. Where is Ethernet bridged traffic terminated in a mesh network? Select the best response. A. WLC B. WGB C. MAP D. RAP Answer: D Question 4. Which two frequencies can be used for backhaul in a mesh solution using version 5.2? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s). 2 A. 2.4 GHz B. 4.2 GHz C. 4.9 GHz D. 5.8 GHz Answer: C, D Question 5. What is the Cisco recommendation for maximum hop count and VLANs per sector in a mesh deployment? Select the best response. A. 4 hops, 10 VLANs B. 4 hops, 16 VLANs C. 5 hops, 10 VLANs D. 6 hops, 16 VLANs Answer: B Question 6. What is the first step to initially establish a mesh network? Select the best response. A. Configure the bridge group name. B. Enter the MAC address of the mesh access point on the Cisco WLC. C. Enable Ethernet bridging D. Enable VLAN tagging. Answer: B Question 7. AWPP utilizes which three parameters to determine the optimal path? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s). A. best parent selection B. bridge group name C. ease value D. hop count E. parent selection F. signal-to-noise ratio Answer: C, D, F Question 8. What is the radio role of an AP1410? Select the best response. A. repeater B. root bridge C. root bridge with clients D. workgroup bridge Answer: B Question 9. Which radio role is available on the AP1310 but not on the AP1242? Select the best response. A. install mode B. non-root bridge C. repeater D. root bridge Answer: A Question 10. The Cisco recommended best practice for RSSI-based device tracking states that the tracked devices must be reliably detected by a minimum of how many APs? Select the best response. A. one B. two C. three D. four Answer: C
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Question 1. When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records? A. Title 18, Section 1030 B. Title 18, Section 2703(d) C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90 D. Title 18, Section 2703(f) Answer: D Question 2. Item 2If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer? A. Asheepdip coordinates several honeypots B. Asheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot C. Asheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking. D. Asheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack Answer: C Question 3. In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you find it until the case is closed or goes to court? A. rules of evidence B. law of probability C. chain of custody D. policy of separation Answer: C Question 4. How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file? A. 128 B. 64 C. 32 D. 16 Answer: C Question 5. CORRECT TEXT To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS** Answer: number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector Answer: number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector Answer: Pending Question 6. You are using DriveSpy, a forensic tool and want to copy 150 sectors where the starting sector is 1709 on the primary hard drive. Which of the following formats correctly specifies these sectors? A. 0:1000, 150 B. 0:1709, 150 C. 1:1709, 150 D. 0:1709-1858 Answer: B Question 7. A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772 =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........ =+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773 UDP TTL: 43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer Overflow C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773 D. The attacker has installed a backdoor Answer: A Question 8. The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on: A. OS/2 B. BSD Unix C. Linux D. Microsoft Windows Answer: B Question 9. Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first? A. engage in damage control B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury D. qualify you as an expert witness Answer: D Question 10. You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to acquire digital evidence from this network? A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image file D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file Answer: C
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Question 1. What field in the Message Record contains the pattern that is matched against the Event Console Messages? A. Description Field B. Message ID C. Sequence Number D. Token Number Answer: B Question 2. Workload Management can submit jobs to: A. Servers that have Workload Agent installed B. Servers that have Workload Agent installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload Manager C. Any Unicenter Server D. Servers that have Workload Server installed and are defined as Stations by the Workload Agent Answer: B Question 3. SNMP relies on which transport from the TCP/IP protocol suite? A. FTP B. HTTP C. TCP D. UDP Answer: D Question 4. The Unicenter 2D and 3D Maps visually represent system, database, and application resources. They are in which component of the WorldView Layer? A. Common Object Repository B. Real World Interface C. WorldView Application Programming Interface D. WorldView Gateway Answer: B Question 5. What Unicenter NSM Classic tool is used to customize Classes in the COR? A. Nodeview B. Class Wizard C. DSM Wizard D. Object View Answer: B Question 6. Communication between the SNMP Administrator and Agents is routed through which component? A. Common Object Repository B. Distributed Services Bus C. Distributed State Machine D. Finite State Machine Answer: B Question 7. What must be installed before WorldView that includes a local repository? A. Agent components B. DSM components C. Microsoft SQL Client D. Microsoft SQL Server Answer: D Question 8. What are the three conceptual layers within Unicenter NSM? (Choose three.) A. Agent Technology Layer B. Application Management Layer C. Manager Layer D. Internet Control Layer E. Network Management Layer F. WorldView Layer Answer: A, C, F Question 9. When installing Microsoft SQL Server in a Unicenter NSM environment, what network protocol must be installed for a routed environment? A. Banyan VINES B. Named Pipe only C. NWLink IPX/SPX D. TCP/IP Sockets Answer: D Question 10. CCI provides communication between which Unicenter NSM components? A. Agent Technologies Components B. Enterprise Management Components C. Unicenter Agents D. WorldView Gateway and the Common Object Repository Answer: B
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Question 1. CORRECT TEXT Which file holds information about the IRQ channels in use: Answer: /proc/interrupts Explanation: /proc/interrupts holds IRQ channels. /proc/ioports holds I/O memory addresses. /proc/dma holds DMA channels. Question 2. CORRECT TEXT Which file holds information about the I/O addresses in use: Answer: /proc/ioports Explanation: /proc/interrupts holds IRQ channels. /proc/ioports holds I/O memory addresses. /proc/dma holds DMA channels. Question 3. CORRECT TEXT What is the IO Address of the second serial port Answer: 02f8 Answer: 02F8 Answer: 02F8h Answer: 02f8h Answer: 2f8 Answer: 2F8 Answer: 2f8h Answer: 2F8h Question 4. COM2 normally uses what I/O port and IRQ combination? A. 03F8 4 B. 02F8 3 C. 03E8 4 D. 02E8 3 Answer: B Explanation: COM 1 uses an IRQ of 4 and a memory address of 03F8. COM 2 is assigned to IRQ 3 and a memory address of 02F8. Question 5. CORRECT TEXT What is the IRQ of COM2? Answer: 3 Explanation: COM 1 uses an IRQ of 4 and a memory address of 03F8. COM 2 is assigned to IRQ 3 and a memory address of 02F8. Question 6. You suspect that a new ethernet card might be conflicting with another device. Which file should you check within the /proc tree to learn which IRQs are being used by which kernel drives? Answer: /proc/interrupts Explanation: The Linux /proc Directory is a Virtual Filesystem provided by linux kernel. /proc contains files and directories that let system administrators and programmers access system information. The file /proc/interrupts file contains information on interrupts and IRQs. First Ethernet card device name is eth0, second Ethernet card device name is eth1 ..., to identify that dev will conflict or not , see the contains of file. Already eth0 is appeared or not? Here is the output of /proc/interrupts CPU0 0: 380893 XT-PIC timer 1: 843 XT-PIC i8042 2: 0 XT-PIC cascade 5: 0 XT-PIC uhci_hcd 8: 1 XT-PIC rtc 11: 48 XT-PIC Intel 82801AA-ICH, eth0 14: 6086 XT-PIC ide0 NMI: 0 ERR: 0 For a multi-processor machine, this _le may look slightly different: CPU0 CPU1 0: 1366814704 0 XT-PIC timer 1: 128 340 IO-APIC-edge keyboard 2: 0 0 XT-PIC cascade 8: 0 1 IO-APIC-edge rtc 12: 5323 5793 IO-APIC-edge PS/2 Mouse 13: 1 0 XT-PIC fpu 16: 11184294 15940594 IO-APIC-level Intel EtherExpress Pro 10/100 Ethernet 20: 8450043 11120093 IO-APIC-level megaraid 30: 10432 10722 IO-APIC-level aic7xxx 31: 23 22 IO-APIC-level aic7xxx NMI: 0 ERR: 0 Appeared Number of CPU, Number of Ethernet card. Question 7. The command cat /proc/dma will show you what? A. Whether DMA is enabled B. Which DMA channels are in use C. Which DMA mode is in use D. General information about DMA on the machine Answer: A Explanation: /proc/dma This file contains a list of the registered ISA direct memory access (DMA) channels in use. A sample /proc/dma files looks like the following: 4: cascade It shows whether DMA is enabled or not. Question 8. In the BIOS, what setting should you disable so that your devices have the best chance of being recognized on boot-up? A. AGP Fast Write B. PnPOS C. ACPI Support D. Power Management/APM Answer: C Explanation: ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) is an open industry specification co-developed by Hewlett-Packard, Intel, Microsoft, Phoenix, and Toshiba. ACPI establishes industry-standard interfaces enabling OS-directed configuration, power management, and thermal management of mobile, desktop, and server platforms. Question 9. To set up a connection to your ISP via your modem, what should you do (choose all that apply): A. configure the dialer B. configure the PPP settings C. configure the pppd daemon D. configure the PPTP settings Answer: A, B, C Explanation: As described in Debian's support document, there are actually two parts to setting up a connection to your ISP. You have to configure the dialer (the chat program), and the PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) settings (the pppd daemon). PPP is the protocol that modems use to communicate over a serial link. (PPP is a powerful protocol that is also often used when connecting distant routers over dedicated leased lines.) Question 10. The modem speed setting of _________ may be too high only if your computer doesn't have a 16550 UART chip. A. 115200 B. 56700 C. 38400 D. 28800 Answer: A Explanation: As described in Debian's support document, the speed setting of 115200 may be too high only if you have a 486 computer that doesn't have a 16550 UART chip. If you're using a 486 and not sure of the UART, play it safe and set the speed to 56700 instead. Exit the ee editor saving the file.
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Question 1. What command would load the module msdos.o and all its dependancies? A. modinfo -a msdos B. lsmod -a msdos C. modprobe msdos D. insmod -d msdos Answer: C Explanation: modprobe command is used to load or unload the modules as well as it's dependencies from the kernel. To Load the module: modprobe modulename To unload the module modprobe -r modulename Question 2. What command will unload a kernel module? A. rmmod B. unmod C. delmod D. modprobe E. unloadmod Answer: A Explanation: rmmod is the simple program, which remove the modules from the kernel. To unload module from kernel. rmmod modulename or modprobe modulename Question 3. CORRECT TEXT The _____ command will list the currently loaded kernel modules. Answer: lsmod Explanation: lsmod command displays all modules loaded by kernel as well as modules status on current session. See the sample output of lsmod command Module Size Used by i915 81349 2 md5 4033 1 ipv6 232705 10 parport_pc 24705 1 lp 12077 0 parport 37129 2 parport_pc,lp autofs4 23237 0 sunrpc 157093 1 dm_mod 54741 2 button 6481 0 battery 8901 0 ac 4805 0 raid1 19905 1 uhci_hcd 31065 0 ehci_hcd 30917 0 snd_intel8x0 33769 0 snd_ac97_codec 63889 1 snd_intel8x0 snd_pcm_oss 49017 0 snd_mixer_oss 17985 1 snd_pcm_oss snd_pcm 96841 2 snd_intel8x0,snd_pcm_oss snd_timer 29893 1 snd_pcm snd_page_alloc 9673 2 snd_intel8x0,snd_pcm snd_mpu401_uart 8769 1 snd_intel8x0 snd_rawmidi 26597 1 snd_mpu401_uart snd_seq_device 8137 1 snd_rawmidi snd 54949 9 snd_intel8x0,snd_ac97_codec,snd_pcm_oss,snd_mixer_oss,snd_pcm,snd_timer,snd_mpu401_uart,snd_raw soundcore 9889 1 snd 8139too 25921 0 mii 4673 1 8139too floppy 58481 0 ext3 116809 6 jbd 71257 1 ext3 Question 4. CORRECT TEXT You wish to remove a module from the kernel called fat. Assume this module has no dependancies. Type in the simplest command to do this: Answer: rmmod fat Explanation: rmmod command removes the module from the kernel. If there are other dependencies modules then rmmod command can't remove the module. To remove the fat module from the kernel. rmmod fat Question 5. You have just added new modules to your system. What command would you execute to rebuild the modules.dep file? A. depmod --rebuild B. update-dependancies C. depmod -a D. insmod -dependancies Answer: C Explanation: depmod creates a list of module dependencies, by reading each module under /lib/modules/version and determining what symbols it exports, and what symbols it needs. By default this list is written to modules.dep in the same directory. Question 6. Which of the following correctly describe the relationship between depmod and modprobe? A. depmod creates a dependency file for use by modprobe B. modprobe creates a dependency file for use by depmod C. they have no relationship D. they can replace each other Answer: A Explanation: depmod creates a list of module dependencies, by reading each module under /lib/modules/version and determining what symbols it exports, and what symbols it needs. By default this list is written to modules.dep in the same directory. modprobe command is used to load or unload the modules as well as it's dependencies from the kernel. To Load the module: modprobe modulename To unload the module modprobe -r modulename Question 7. The normal use of depmod is to include which of the following lines in one of the files in /etc/rc.d so the correct module dependencies will be available after booting the system? A. /sbin/depmod -a B. /sbin/depmod -p C. /sbin/depmod -r D. /sbin/depmod -c Answer: A Explanation: depmod creates a list of module dependencies, by reading each module under /lib/modules/version and determining what symbols it exports, and what symbols it needs. By default this list is written to modules.dep in the same directory. The normal use of depmod is to include the line /sbin/depmod -a in one of the files in /etc/rc.d so the correct module dependencies will be available after booting the system. Question 8. What command option of depmod allows you to print a list of all unresolved symbols? A. -e B. -l C. -i D. -a Answer: A Explanation: depmod creates a list of module dependencies, by reading each module under /lib/modules/version and determining what symbols it exports, and what symbols it needs. By default this list is written to modules.dep in the same directory. The normal use of depmod is to include the line /sbin/depmod -a in one of the files in /etc/rc.d so the correct module dependencies will be available after booting the system. depmod -e prints a list of all unresolved symbols. Question 9. Which of the following commands loads the module file into the kernel and changes any symbols that are defined on the command line? A. insmod B. depmod C. modprobe D. setmod Answer: A Explanation: insmod is a system administration command. Load the module file into the kernel, changing any symbols that are defined on the command line. If the module file is named file.o or file.mod, the module will be named file. Question 10. What option of the insmod command can you use to force the loading of module even if problems are encountered? A. -f B. -F C. -u D. -r Answer: A Explanation: insmod is a system administration command. -f: Force loading of module, even if some problems are encountered.
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Question 1. In a high availability scenario, what is the longest expected downtime for a Cisco Agent Desktop failover? A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 60 seconds Answer: D Question 2. CiscoWorks IP Telephony Environment Monitor (ITEM) provides what two serviceability capabilities? (Choose two.) A. Monitoring of Cisco voice elements B. Diagnostic trace tools to analyze connectivity C. Problem alerts for operations personnel D. User Tracking to track IP telephones E. Tool to collect syslog messages from multiple sources Answer: A, C Question 3. Which configuration enables a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server to fail over to a secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager server when the primary server fails? A. Configure LDAP with a secondary profile. B. Configure a second Cisco Unified Communications Manager telephony user with an alternate range of CTI ports. C. Configure the telephony provider with a primary and secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address. D. No special configuration is needed. Answer: C Question 4. What happens if all CTI ports for the configured CTI Port Group are busy when a new call arrives? A. CallManager will forward the call to the directory number configured for forward-on busy for this CTI Route Point in CallManager. B. Caller will receive ringing treatment. C. An exception is raised, but the call is accepted and processed. D. Caller will receive network busy treatment. E. CallManager will forward the caller to the directory number configured in IPCC Express for overflow. Answer: A Question 5. Which agent will be selected when the Resource Selection Criteria is set to circular routing? A. the next available agent, based on the last agent selected and the agent order in the Resources list B. the agent who has been in the Available state for the longest amount of time C. the next available agent with the highest priority, as determined by the agent order in the Resources list D. the agent assigned to the selected Resource Group and is thus qualified to be selected Answer: A Question 6. Which two Customer Response Solution deployment scenarios are valid for Cisco Unified Communications? (Choose two.) A. Contact Center Express communication with ICM via a co-resident PG B. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise CTI-OS toolkit C. IP IVR integrating with the Enterprise version to function as a queue point and self-service platform D. Contact Center Express communicating with ICM via a standalone PG on an expansion server E. Contact Center Express using the Enterprise Outbound option Answer: A, C Question 7. In CRS Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Unified CM Telephony group? A. CRS CTI Route Point B. CTI Ports C. CRS Call Control Group D. Communications Manager Call Control Group Answer: B Question 8. How is the default e-mail address in the E-mail Subsystem Configuration page used? A. It receives all mail sent in the Send E-mail step as a bcc. B. It is used if no e-mail contact is specified in the Create E-mail step. C. It becomes the From address in the Send E-Mail step if no address is specified. D. It automatically receives alarms generated by the Cisco CRS Server. Answer: C Question 9. Where do you enable the CRS engine? A. Cluster Setup page B. Server Setup page C. Publisher Activation page D. Component Activation page Answer: D Question 10. An organization wants to collect an account number from a customer via IVR prompting. Then, using a keystroke macro, they want to pop the account number into the account number field in the agent's CRM desktop application. The keystroke macro will also initiate the CRM desktop application, executing a database lookup from the CRM Database server to retrieve the customer record. Assuming the organization wants the lowest cost solution, what product does this organization need for this capability? A. IPCC Express Premium B. IP IVR C. IPCC Express Standard D. IPCC Express Enhanced E. IPCC Enterprise Answer: D
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Question 1. Which statement is true about the hardware requirements of MPLS? A. Because you do not need to run a routing protocol on P-routers, they require less memory than routers supporting classic IP routing. B. Because of the additional processing and memory requirements needed to build the LFIB, MPLS is only available on high end routers. C. MPLS is available on low end routers, built their use is limited because of the additional processing and memory requirements needed to build the LFIB. D. Because P-routers do not need to carry routes outside the MPLD domain, they require less memory than routers that support the same application using classic IP routing. Answer: C Question 2. If aggregation (summarization) were to be used on a network with ATM LSRs. What would result? A. LSPs would be broken in two. B. There would be extra LFIB entries. C. The size of the LFIB table would increase. D. There would be extra LIB entries Answer: A Question 3. What is true of MPLS TE? A. Only the ingress LSR must see the entire topology of the network. B. Every LSR needs additional information about links in the network, available resources, and constraints. C. Every core router must be able to create an LSP tunnel on demand. D. Both RSVP and CR-LDP are used in conjunction to establish traffic engineering (TE) tunnels and to propagate the labels. Answer: B Question 4. What is a major drawback of using traditional IP routing over an ATM network when connecting multiple sites? A. Each ATM switch in the path has to perform Layer 3 routing lookup. B. ATM virtual circuits have to be established between the different sites. C. There is high ATM management overhead between the ATM switch and the router at each site. D. Each ATM switch has to be manually configured to participate in Layer 3 routing. E. There is high PNNI overhead.- Answer: B Explanation: Drawbacks of Traditional IP Forwarding IP over ATM 1) Layer 2 devices have no knowledge of Layer 3 routing information - virtual circuits must be manually established. 2) Layer 2 topology may be different from Layer 3 topology, resulting in suboprtimal paths and link use. 3) Even if the two topologies overlap, the hub-and-spoke topology is usually used because of easier management. Question 5. What is true of MPLS TE? A. Only the ingress LSR must see the entire topology of the network. B. Every LSR needs additional information about links in the network, available resources, and constraints. C. Every core router must be able to create an LSP tunnel on demand. D. Both RSVP and CR-LDP are used in conjunction to establish traffic engineering (TE) tunnels and to propagate the labels. Answer: B Question 6. In order for MPLS to be implemented on ATM switches, what requirements must the ATM switch meet? Select two. A. become Layer 3 aware by running a routing protocol B. use MPLS LDP or TDP to distribute and receive MPLS label information C. use BGP to exchange MPLS VPN labels in the data plane D. use RSVP to exchange MPLS traffic-engineering labels in the data plane E. establish a full mesh of Layer 2 ATM virtual circuits between all the ATM switches in the MPLS domain F. use cell-mode MPLS and insert MPLS label in the ATM AAL5 header Answer: A, B Question 7. When running basic MPLS in conjunction with VPNs, how many labels does each packet contain? A. Each packet contains one label that identifies the VPN. B. Each packet contains at least two labels. One label identifies the path to the egress router and one that identifies the VPN. C. Each packet contains at least three labels. One label identifies the ingress router, one identifies the egress router and one identifies the path that will be taken. D. Each packet contains at least three labels. One label identifies the ingress router, one label identifies the path to the egress router, and one identifies the VPN. Answer: B Question 8. On ingress, a label is imposed to a packet. Which process is responsible for this function? A. LDP process. B. Control plane process C. Penultimate hop process. D. Forwarding plane process. Answer: B Question 9. How could you check for potential MTU size issues on the path taken by a PE-to-PE LSP? A. Because MPLS packets are label switched, MTU problems can only be detected by the user applications. B. Use the ping vrf command with packet size set to the largest MTU along the path and DF bit set from the local PE-router to ping the remote PE-router. C. Use the ping vrf command with packet size set to the smallest MTU along the path and DF bit set from the local PE-router to ping the remote PE-router. D. Because MPLS packets are label switched, packets are automatically fragmented and reassembled by the PE-routers. Therefore, there are no potential MTU issues. Answer: B Question 10. Which one of the following is true regarding MPLS independent control label allocations? A. The LSR can always assign a label for a destination prefix, even if it has no downstream label. B. The LSR can assign a label for a destination prefix only if it has already receives a label from the next-hop LSR, otherwise, it must request a label from the next-hop LSR. C. The LSR will assign a label to a destination prefix only when asked for a label by an upstream LSR. D. The label for a destination prefix is allocated and advertised to all LDP peers, regardless of whether the LDP peers are upstream or downstream LSRs for the destination prefix. E. The LSR stores the receives label in its LIB, even when the label is not received from the next-hop LSR. F. The LSR stores only the labels received from the next-hop LSR, all other labels are ignored. Answer: A
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Question 1. Quality of Service (QoS) refers to the capability of a network to provide better service to selected network traffic over various technologies. You are configuring a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to utilize QoS and have configured the platinum queue on the controller. However, the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch to provide the necessary QoS for voice clients on the wireless network? A. Enable 802dot1p B. Config wlan qos wlan-id platinum C. Swithchport priority extend cos 5 D. Mls qos trust dscp Answer: D Question 2. Which properties are of an AP in H-REAP mode? A. Allows some SSID/VLAN traffic to be switched locally while other SSID/VLAN traffic has full LWAPP functionality B. Support Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming C. Can switch client data traffic locally D. Perform client authentication locally when its connection to the controller is lost Answer: A, B, C, D Question 3. Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are? A. UDP 12222 and 12223 B. UDP 16666 and 16667 C. TCP 12124 and 12134 D. TCP 16666 and 16667 Answer: A Question 4. The IEEE 802.11 standards define different encryption mechanisms. Which is the basic of defining the most secure encryption solution in IEEE 802.11 standards? A. WEP B. AES-CCMP C. IPSEC D. TKIP Answer: B Question 5. In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take next? A. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational B. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller Answer: A Question 6. A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network by use of controllers. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during the active user session? (Choose two.) A. On the Cisco WCS B. On the RADIUS Server C. On the Access Point D. On the Client Answer: C, D Question 7. Harry is a network engineer for a company, he is now upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error. Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem? A. Show exlusionlist B. Show database summary C. Show sysinfo D. Show wps summary Answer: B Question 8. Can you tell me when a client will provide an AP with its version of Cisco Compatible Extensions for WLAN devices? A. In an 802.11 association or reassociation request frame B. When the AP sends an unsolicited update embedded in a beacon packet C. Upon successful EAP or dot1x authentication to the AP D. In a Broadcast probe request packet Answer: A Question 9. Wi-Fi Multimedia is a technology maintaining the priority of audio, video and voice applications in a Wi-Fi network so that other applications and traffic are less likely to slow them. A. Definition of the differentiated services filed B. Enhanced Distributed Coordination Function mechanism C. Four Access categories: A label for the common set of Enhanced Distributed Channel Access parameters that are used by a WMM STA to contend for the channel in order to transmit MSDUs with certain priorities D. Unscheduled Service Period. The service period that is started when a WMM STA transmits a trigger frame to the WMM AP Answer: B, C, D Question 10. Before sending a frame over a medium and verifying that the medium is free, which process does a wireless client go through? A. Send an RTS frame, receive a CTS frame, then transmit the frame B. Verify that NAV = 0, then transmit the frame C. Send a CTS frame, receive an RTS frame, then transmit the frame D. Check that NAV = 0, generate a random backoff, verify that the channel is free, verify that slot times = 0, then transmit the frame Answer: D
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Question 1. According to the following exhibit, company 1 contains two autonomous systems (AS1 and AS2) connected via ISP A, which has an AS number of 100. Router B and Router C are advertising an aggregate of X.X.X.0/23 so that AS1 is able to reach the two server farms. The two links from AS2 are not being used efficiently. How can AS2 use both of the links coming into it? Exhibit: A. advertise each X.X.X.0/24 independently from Router B and Router C B. create another link between Router A in AS1 and ISP A C. configure iBGP between Router B and Router C to load-share traffic once it reaches AS2 D. configure two static routes in Router A for X.X.X.0/23 pointing to Router B and Router C Answer: A Question 2. Study the topology provided in this exhibit. Which configuration change will maximize the efficiency of both the routing design and data forwarding plane? Exhibit: A. Configure Router B with a static route for the aggregate to Null0 B. Configure Router A to advertise 10.0.0.0/8 instead of the default route to Router B C. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes in addition to the aggregate D. Configure Router B to advertise the more specific prefixes instead of the aggregate Answer: A Explanation: Null0 is an interface that doesn’t exist. The null0 interface can be used with static routes to route a packet into a black hole of sorts. In other words, if you have traffic that you do not want to reach a particular destination, you can create the static route for that destination with the next-hop interface pointing to null0. Any traffic that enters the Router destined for the network specified in the static route will be sent to the null0 interface and dropped. When working with classless and classful routing, you should crate a static route with the classful variant of the classless route and point it to interface null0. Example: ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 null0 Question 3. Which two reasons are valid for aggregating routing information within a network? (Choose two) A. To reduce the amount of information any specific Router within the network must store and process B. To isolate the impact of DDoS attacks C. To improve optimal routing within the network D. To reduce the impact of topology changes Answer: A, D Explanation: Route aggregation, or route summarization, is the process of advertising a single route for multiple routes. This is useful in limiting the number of routes that will be stored in a routing table, thus cutting down on the amount of memory and processing power required. Question 4. Which three statements are correct about OSPF route summarization? (Choose three.) A. Route summarization can lead to a more stable network. B. A flat addressing scheme is required in order to summarize OSPF routes. C. OSPF type 5 external routes can be summarized only at the ASBRs. D. OSPF internal routes can be summarized only at the ABRs. Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding and Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers. In OSPF environment either we can summarize routes in ASBR or ABR. ASBR can summarize the external routes and ABR can summarize internal routes between Area. Example: Inter-Area Route summarization: Router(Config)#Router ospf 1 Router(Config-Router)#Area area-id range address mask External Route Summarization: Router(Config)#Router ospf 1 Router(Config-Router)#summary-address ip mask Question 5. EIGRP performs route summarization at the interface level with the “ip summaryaddress” command. Which three statements correctly describe EIGRP route summarization? (Choose three) A. By default, EIGRP automatically summarizes internal routes, but only each time a major network boundary is crossed. B. EIGRP route summarization can reduce the query diameter to help prevent SIA problems. C. Summary routes are inserted in the routing table with a next hop of null 0 and a high administrative distance, to prevent black holing of traffic. D. The metric for each summarized route is inherited from the lowest metric of the component routes. Answer: A, B, D Question 6. Why build link state flooding domain boundaries in large-scale networks running OSPF or IS-IS? (Choose two.) A. Doing so provides logical break points at which to troubleshoot individual parts of the network, rather than trying to troubleshoot the whole network at once. B. Doing so limits the extent of SPF and allows the use of PRC for some best path calculations. C. Flooding domain borders block the transmission of external routing information in the network, which improves scaling and convergence times. D. Network administrators can quickly find specific destinations when detailed link state information is sorted by flooding domain in the link state database. Answer: A, B Question 7. Which two options are true about the impact flooding domain boundaries have when built in OSPF? (Choose two) A. They decrease convergence time by reducing the complexity and size of the shortest path trees in the individual areas. B. They isolate network failures within a domain. C. They decrease convergence time by automatically summarizing reachability information transmitted through the network, thereby decreasing the number of routes that must be installed in each Router's routing table. D. They increase convergence time by adding the time required to run two full Shortest Path First computations on the area border Routers. Answer: A, B Question 8. Which two reasons are correct about building a flooding domain boundary in a link-state network? (Choose two.) A. To provide an administrative boundary between portions of the network B. To segregate complex and rapidly changing portions of the network from one another C. To aggregate reachability information D. To increase the size of the Shortest Path First tree Answer: B, C Explanation: Low-speed links and large numbers of spokes may require multiple flooding domains or areas to be supported effectively. You should balance the number of flooding domains on the hub against the number of spokes in each flooding domain. The link speeds and the amount of information being passed through the network determine the right balance. Design for these situations must balance the number of areas and the Router impact of maintaining an LSA database and doing Dijkstra calculations per area against the number of remote Routers in each area Question 9. What are three reasons to summarize link state topology information? (Choose three) A. To reduce the amount of routing information being advertised B. To create boundaries for containing potential network changes and instabilities C. To permit traffic engineering between areas D. To hide detailed topology information Answer: A, B, D Explanation: Route summarization is the consolidation of multiple routes into a single route for better performance. It is also the key of scalability in OSPF because it reduces LSA flooding, Link State Database and routing table sizes, which reduces memory and CPU utilization on the Routers. Question 10. Scalability is provided in the server farm module by which of the following design strategies? A. Redundant servers at the access level B. High port densities at the access level C. Modular block design at the access level D. Up to 10 Gbps of bandwidth at the access level Answer: C
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