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Any suggestion where should I have to start? Is itcertkeys good enough to pass exam and what is the latest update question? thanks in advance for help.
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Question 1. Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct answers.) A. Libraries B. TDB files C. Configuration files D. Binaries E. winbindd_privileged directory Answer: B,C Question 2. How is VFS (Virtual File System) support enabled in Samba? A. Samba does not support VFS. B. Compile and load vfs.ko kernel module. C. Compile and load vfs.ko and its dependent smbfs kernel modules. D. Compile and load pvfs.ko kernel module. E. Compile Samba with VFS module support. Answer: E Question 3. Which command from the Samba Suite is used to retrieve information on the mapping between NetBIOS names and IP addresses? A. NMBLOOKUP Answer: A Question 4. Which of the following commands will mount a remote Samba share when the user is Winuser and the password is somepass? A. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare B. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass \\SERVER\share /media/sambashare C. mount -t smbfs -o Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare D. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare Answer: A Question 5. After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they receive an Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely cause of this? A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password. B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server. C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet. D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser. Answer: B Question 6. Which node type will use only NetBIOS broadcast requests using UDP broadcast? A. b-node (type 0x01) B. p-node (type 0x02) C. m-node (type 0x04) D. h-node (type 0x08) Answer: A Question 7. Which port must be open in a firewall to allow access to rdesktop? A. 3389 Answer: A Question 8. Which port is used for "NetBIOS-less" SMB traffic? A. 445 Answer: A Question 9. A ______ server stores NetBIOS names and IP addresses of SMB/CIFS clients. A. WINS Answer: A Question 10. By default, Windows XP requires that passwords on your Samba server: A. Do not exceed 32 characters. B. Contain both numbers and letters. C. Are encrypted. D. Are changed every 30 days. Answer: C
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Question 1. Examine the following options, which access list will permit HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10? A. access-list 101 permittcp host 192.168.1.10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030 B. access-list 101permit tcp any eq 3030 C. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www D. access-list 101permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1.255 eq 3030 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.15 eq www Answer: D Question 2. DRAG DROP Drag three proper statements about the IPsec protocol on the above to the list on the below. Answer: Question 3. In a brute-force attack, what percentage of the keyspace must an attacker generally search through until he or she finds the key that decrypts the data? A. Roughly 50 percent B. Roughly 66 percent C. Roughly 75 percent D. Roughly 10 percent Answer: A Question 4. The information of Cisco Router and Security Device Manager(SDM) is shown below: Within the "sdm-permit" policy map, what is the action assigned to the traffic class "class default"? A. inspect B. drop C. police D. pass Answer: B Question 5. DRAG DROP On the basis of the description of SSL-based VPN, place the correct descriptions in the proper locations. Answer: Question 6. Which description is correct based on the exhibit and partial configuration? A. All traffic destined for network 172.16.150.0 will be denied due to the implicitdeny all. B. All traffic from network 10.0.0.0 will be permitted. C. Access-list 101 will prevent address spoofing from interface E0. D. This ACL will prevent any host on the Internet from spoofing the inside network address as the source address for packets coming into the router from the Internet. Answer: C Question 7. For the following items ,which one can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1? A. pre-shared key B. integrity check value C. XAUTH D. Diffie-Hellman Nonce Answer: A Question 8. Which description about asymmetric encryption algorithms is correct? A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data. B. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data. C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data. D. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data. Answer: C Question 9. For the following items, which management topology keeps management traffic isolated from production traffic? A. OTP B. OOB C. SAFE D. MARS Answer: B Question 10. You work as a network engineer, do you know an IPsec tunnel is negotiated within the protection of which type of tunnel? A. L2F tunnel B. L2TP tunnel C. GRE tunnel D. ISAKMP tunnel Answer: D
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Question 1, Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.) A. spam protection B. outbreak intelligence C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning D. email encryption E. DDoS protection Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 2. Which option is a feature of Cisco ScanSafe technology? A. spam protection B. consistent cloud-based policy C. DDoS protection D. RSA Email DLP Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.) A. man-in-the-middle attack B. trojan horse attack C. pharming attack D. denial of service attack E. day zero attack Answer: B, E Explanation: Question 4. Under which higher-level policy is a VPN security policy categorized? A. application policy B. DLP policy C. remote access policy D. compliance policy E. corporate WAN policy Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. Refer to the exhibit. What does the option secret 5 in the username global configuration mode command indicate about the user password? A. It is hashed using SHA. B. It is encrypted using DH group 5. C. It is hashed using MD5. D. It is encrypted using the service password-encryption command. E. It is hashed using a proprietary Cisco hashing algorithm. F. It is encrypted using a proprietary Cisco encryption algorithm. Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. What does level 5 in this enable secret global configuration mode command indicate? A. router#enable secret level 5 password B. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5. C. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA. D. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption. E. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5. F. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5. Answer: E Explanation: Question 7. Which Cisco management tool provides the ability to centrally provision all aspects of device configuration across the Cisco family of security products? A. Cisco Configuration Professional B. Security Device Manager C. Cisco Security Manager D. Cisco Secure Management Server Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. Which option is the correct representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:150C:0000:0000:41B1:45A3:041D? A. 2001::150c::41b1:45a3:041d B. 2001:0:150c:0::41b1:45a3:04d1 C. 2001:150c::41b1:45a3::41d D. 2001:0:150c::41b1:45a3:41d Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Which three options are common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three.) A. authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections B. authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty ports C. implementing PKI to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates D. tracking Cisco NetFlow accounting statistics E. securing the router by locking down all unused services F. performing router commands authorization using TACACS+ Answer: A, B, F Explanation: Question 10. When AAA login authentication is configured on Cisco routers, which two authentication methods should be used as the final method to ensure that the administrator can still log in to the router in case the external AAA server fails? (Choose two.) A. group RADIUS B. group TACACS+ C. local D. krb5 E. enable F. if-authenticated Answer: C, E Explanation:
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Question 1. Given the IP address 172.16.170.15 255.255.224.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address? (Choose three.) A. subnet = 172.16.160.0/19 B. subnet = 172.16.170.0/19 C. subnet = 172.16.192.0/19 D. host IP address range = 172.16.160.1 to 172.16.191.254 E. host IP address range = 172.16.170.1 to 172.16.170.254 F. host IP address range = 172.16.160.1 to 172.16.223.254 G. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.170.255 H. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.191.255 I. subnet broadcast IP address = 172.16.223.255 Answer: A, D, H Explanation: Question 2. Refer to the exhibit. Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A. 1 collision domain B. 2 collision domains C. 4 collision domains D. 7 collision domains E. 1 broadcast domain F. 2 broadcast domains G. 4 broadcast domains H. 7 broadcast domains Answer: D, F Explanation: Question 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two options are the number of broadcast domains and collision domains shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.) A. 2 collision domains B. 4 collision domains C. 5 collision domains D. 8 collision domains E. 2 broadcast domains F. 4 broadcast domains G. 5 broadcast domains H. 8 broadcast domains Answer: C, E Explanation: Question 4. Which three IP addresses are valid for hosts that belong to the 10.152.0.0/13 subnet? (Choose three.) A. 10.152.0.0/13 B. 10.153.0.1/13 C. 10.158.255.255/13 D. 10.159.255.254/13 E. 10.160.0.1/13 F. 10.161.0.1/13 Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 5. Which type of IPv6 address does the ff00::/8 prefix denote? A. local loopback B. global unicast C. unique link local D. link local unicast E. multicast F. anycast Answer: E Explanation: Question 6. With IPv6, for which purpose are router solicitation and router advertisement used? A. routing protocol updates B. routing protocol neighbor peerings C. router and prefix discovery D. Layer 3 to Layer 2 address resolution (similar to IPv4 ARP) Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Which statement about IPv6 global unicast addresses is true? A. The first 3 bits is 001. B. The first 4 bits is 0011. C. The first 4 bits is 1111. D. The first 16 bits is FE80 in hex. E. The first 16 bits is FF00 in hex. F. The first 16 bits is 2002 in hex. G. The first 16 bits is 3FFE in hex. Answer: A Explanation: Question 8. Given the IP address 10.106.170.145 255.248.0.0, which three options are the subnet that this IP address belongs to, the host IP address range on this subnet, and the subnet broadcast IP address? A. subnet = 10.104.0.0/13 B. subnet = 10.106.0.0/13 C. subnet = 10.112.0.0/13 D. host IP address range = 10.104.0.1 to 10.111.255.254 E. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.106.255.254 F. host IP address range = 10.106.0.1 to 10.119.255.254 G. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.106.255.255 H. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.111.255.255 I. subnet broadcast IP address = 10.119.255.255 Answer: A, D, H Explanation: Question 9. Refer to the exhibit. Robert is sending an instant message to Mary. The message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. Which four options are the MAC and IP source and destination addresses that will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router2 to Router1? (Choose four.) A. source MAC = 0000.00a1.2222 B. source MAC = 0000.000c.0123 C. destination MAC = 0000.00a1.3333 D. destination MAC = 0000.000c.0124 E. source IP 10.1.2.2 F. source IP 10.1.1.253 G. destination IP = 10.1.3.3 H. destination IP = 10.1.1.254 Answer: B, D, E, G Explanation: Question 10. Which Layer 2 WAN protocol uses DLCI as the virtual circuit identifier? A. ATM B. PPP C. Frame Relay D. Packet over SONET E. Metro Ethernet Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1. Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.) A. repeater B. bridge C. switch D. router E. hub Answer: A, E Explanation: Question 2. Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.) A. repeater B. bridge C. switch D. router E. hub Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 3. Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.) A. bus B. token passing bus C. star D. extended star E. ring Answer: C, D Explanation: Question 4. Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs? A. repeater B. bridge C. switch D. router E. hub Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? (Choose two.) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 7. Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams? A. datagram B. routing C. network D. data link E. transport F. transmission G. session Answer: E Explanation: Question 8. Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.) A. PDUs B. bits C. sequences D. segments E. packets F. frames Answer: B, D, F Explanation: Question 9. Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.) A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 F. 7 Answer: D, E Explanation: Question 10. Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer? (Choose two.) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 G. 7 Answer: A, B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.) A. complexity B. scalability C. ease of management D. resilience Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 2. Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.) A. repeater B. high-speed packet switching C. access control D. services layer E. QoS marking Answer: C, D Explanation: Question 3. Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.) A. core B. aggregation C. access D. distribution E. services Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in FabricPath? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches B. Cisco Nexus 1000V C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series directors Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 5. Which item best describes the STP requirements for Cisco FabricPath? A. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN. B. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath Border interface. C. MST must be configured on every Cisco FabricPath VLAN. D. MST must be configured on every Cisco FPBI. E. STP is required only to resolve border link failures. F. STP is not required on Cisco FabricPath interfaces. Answer: F Explanation: Question 6. Which three are features of Cisco OTV? (Choose three.) A. control plane-based MAC learning B. dynamic encapsulation C. MAC address learning based on flooding D. pseudo wires and tunnels E. complex dual-homing F. native automated multihoming Answer: A, B, F Explanation: Question 7. Which is a key characteristic of virtual device contexts? A. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into a single physical switch B. allowing logical switches to be aggregated into multiple physical switches C. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to a single virtual switch D. allowing physical switches to be partitioned to multiple virtual switches Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.) A. few devices to manage B. deterministic latency C. lower oversubscription D. fewer ISLs E. easy to analyze and tune performance F. cost-effective for large SANs Answer: B, E, F Explanation: Question 9. Which two Cisco Nexus switches are capable of Layer 3 switching? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7010 B. Cisco Nexus 5020 C. Cisco Nexus 5548 D. Cisco Nexus 2248 E. Cisco Nexus 2232 Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 10. Which command pings from the Cisco Nexus 5548 interface mgmt 0 to host 10.10.1.1? A. ping -m 10.10.1.1 B. ping 10.10.1.1 -m C. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf management D. ping 10.10.1.1 vrf default Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1.
Referring to the topology diagram show in the exhibit,
which three statements are correct regarding the BGP routing updates? (Choose three.)
A. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2, R4, and R7 routers
B. The EBGP routing updates received by R3 from R6 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
C. The EBGP routing updates received by R1 from R5 will be propagated to the R2 and R4 routers
D. The IBGP routing updates received by R3 from R2 will be propagated to the R6 router
E. The IBGP routing updates received by R2 from R1 will be propagated to the R3 router
F. The IBGP routing updates received by R1 from R4 will be propagated to the R5, R7, and R2 routers
Answer: A, B, D
Explanation:
Question 2.
When a BGP route reflector receives an IBGP update from a non-client IBGP peer, the route reflector will then forward the IBGP updates to which other router(s)?
A. To the other clients only
B. To the EBGP peers only
C. To the EBGP peers and other clients only
D. To the EBGP peers and other clients and non-clients
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which two BGP mechanisms are used to prevent routing loops when using a design with redundant route reflectors? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster-list
B. AS-Path
C. Originator ID
D. Community
E. Origin
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which two statements correctly describe the BGP ttl-security feature? (Choose two.)
A. This feature protects the BGP processes from CPU utilization-based attacks from EBGP neighbors which can be multiple hops away
B. This feature prevents IBGP sessions with non-directly connected IBGP neighbors
C. This feature will cause the EBGP updates from the router to be sent using a TTL of 1
D. This feature needs to be configured on each participating BGP router
E. This feature is used together with the ebgp-multihop command
Answer: A, D
Explanation:
Question 5.
When implementing source-based remote-triggered black hole filtering, which two configurations are required on the edge routers that are not the signaling router? (Choose two.)
A. A static route to a prefix that is not used in the network with a next hop set to the Null0 interface
B. A static route pointing to the IP address of the attacker
C. uRPF on all external facing interfaces at the edge routers
D. Redistribution into BGP of the static route that points to the IP address of the attacker
E. A route policy to set the redistributed static routes with the no-export BGP community
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Question 6.
Refer to the topology diagram shown in the exhibit and the partial configurations shown below.
Once the attack from 209.165.201.144/28 to 209.165.202.128/28 has been detected, which additional configurations are required on the P1 IOS-XR router to implement source-based remote-triggered black hole filtering?
!
router bgp 123
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute static route-policy test
!
A. router static
address-family ipv4 unicast
209.165.202.128/28 null0 tag 666
192.0.2.1/32 null0 tag 667
!
route-policy test
if tag is 666 then
set next-hop 192.0.2.1
endif
if tag is 667 then
set community (no-export)
endif
end-policy
!
B. router static
address-family ipv4 unicast
209.165.201.144/28 null0 tag 666
192.0.2.1/32 null0 tag 667
!
route-policy test
if tag is 666 then
set next-hop 192.0.2.1
endif
if tag is 667 then
set community (no-export)
endif
end-policy
!
C. router static
address-family ipv4 unicast
209.165.201.144/28 null0 tag 666
192.0.2.1/32 null0
!
route-policy test
if tag is 666 then
set next-hop 192.0.2.1
set community (no-export)
endif
end-policy
D. router static
address-family ipv4 unicast
209.165.202.128/28 null0 tag 666
192.0.2.1/32 null0
!
route-policy test
if tag is 666 then
set next-hop 192.0.2.1
set community (no-export)
endif
end-policy
!
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
In Cisco IOS-XR, the maximum-prefix command, to control the number of prefixes that can be installed from a BGP neighbor, is configured under which configuration mode?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp)#
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-af)#
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr)#
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr-af)#
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 8.
In Cisco IOS-XR, the ttl-security command is configured under which configuration mode?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config)#
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr)#
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-af)#
E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr-af)#
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
Refer to the exhibit.
Given the partial BGP configuration, which configuration correctly completes the Cisco IOS-XR route reflector configuration where both the 1.1.1.1 and 2.2.2.2 routers are the clients and the 3.3.3.3 router is a non-client IBGP peer?
A. neighbor 1.1.1.1
remote-as 65123
route-reflector-client
neighbor 2.2.2.2
remote-as 65123
route-reflector-client
neighbor 3.3.3.3
remote-as 65123
B. neighbor 1.1.1.1
address-family ipv4 unicast
remote-as 65123
route-reflector-client
neighbor 2.2.2.2
address-family ipv4 unicast
remote-as 65123
route-reflector-client
neighbor 3.3.3.3
address-family ipv4 unicast
remote-as 65123
C. neighbor 1.1.1.1
remote-as 65123
address-family ipv4 unicast
route-reflector-client
neighbor 2.2.2.2
remote-as 65123
address-family ipv4 unicast
route-reflector-client
neighbor 3.3.3.3
remote-as 65123
D. neighbor 1.1.1.1 remote-as 65123
neighbor 1.1.1.1 route-reflector-client
neighbor 2.2.2.2 remote-as 65123
neighbor 2.2.2.2 route-reflector-client
neighbor 3.3.3.3 remote-as 65123
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which three methods can be used to reduce the full-mesh IBGP requirement in a service provider core network? (Choose three.)
A. implement route reflectors
B. enable multi-protocol BGP sessions between all the PE routers
C. implement confederations
D. implement MPLS (LDP) in the core network on all the PE and P routers
E. enable BGP synchronization
F. disable the IBGP split-horizon rule
Answer: A, C, D
Explanation:
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Question 1. You believe that there may be a problem with the fault-tolerant VLAN. As a first step, which command would you use to find out if any heartbeats have been missed? A. ace/admin# show ft stats B. ace/admin# show ft peer detail C. ace/context# show ft peer detail D. ace/context# show ft group detail Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Which command could be used to view the configuration stored in a checkpoint? A. show checkpoint B. show checkpoint detail C. show checkpoint config D. show config checkpoint detail Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. Where are the checkpoint configuration files stored? A. Slot0 B. NVRAM C. TFTP Server D. a hidden directory in flash Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. To completely remove a real server from service, you should enter the no inservice command in which mode? A. Rserver mode B. privileged mode C. policy-map mode D. global config mode E. severfarm-Rserver mode Answer: A Explanation: Question 5. Which two of these options are configurable as part of the TCP Normalization feature set? (Choose two.) A. clearing reserved bits B. setting illegal flag combinations C. setting port numbers equal to zero D. allow Syn packets that contain data E. setting TCP header length requirements Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 6. An existing DNS name server is being replaced with a Cisco GSS. Which IOS license will be required? A. Cisco Standard license B. Cisco Extended license C. Cisco Name Server license D. Cisco Network Registrar license Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. An active Cisco ACE Module is configured as follows: active Cisco Ace Module has priority level of 150 standby Cisco Ace Module has a priority level of 120 probes are configured with host tracking Two probes fail. What must be done to relinquish the role to the standby Cisco ACE Module? A. configure the probe with a priority level of 10 B. configure the probe with a priority level of 20 C. configure the probe with a priority level of 40 D. take no action; the Cisco ACE Module automatically relinquishes the role of active on failure of a probe Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which three fields can be examined by an extended ACL? (Choose three.) A. TTL value B. ICMP type C. IP address D. HTTP cookie E. HTTP header F. UDP port number Answer: B, C, F Explanation: Question 9. When troubleshooting bridged interfaces, you should start with the show interface VLAN x command. Which two of these should be true of the interface? (Choose two.) A. it is up B. it shows mode : routed C. it has an IP address and mask D. it has an MTU set of 1500 bytes E. it shows Assigned from the Supervisor, up on the Supervisor Answer: A, E Explanation: Question 10. When migrating from a CSS to a Cisco ACE appliance, you should review hardware resources and identify upgrades and configuration changes required for successful migration. What is the benefit of doing this? A. reduces the risks associated with a production migration B. reduces the possibility of expensive, time-consuming rework at a later date C. strengthens the ability of your team to meet aggressive deployment schedules D. reduces the possibility of downtime or other costly disruptions during migration E. helps take advantage of Cisco planning experience and best-in-class methods and procedures Answer: A Explanation:
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thanks buddy
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