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Passed the exam today.
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Question 1.
A developer wants to create a business interface for both local and remote usage. For performance reasons the remote interface should NOT be called by a client in the same JVM.
Which statement is required to accomplish this, assuming there is no deployment descriptor?
A. The business methods are defined in one interface which must be annotated with both @Local
and @Remote.
B. The business methods are defined twice in one interface. One method is annotated with
@Local and the other is annotated with @Remote.
C. The business methods are defined in a common interface by two other interfaces which are
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. The bean implements the super interface.
D. The business methods are defined in a common interface. It is extended by two interfaces,
annotated with @Local and @Remote respectively. Both interfaces are implemented by the
bean class.
Answer: D
Question 2.
A developer is creating an entity which is mapped to a table that has a primary key constraint defined on two character columns and would like to use mapping defaults as much as possible to simplify the code.
Which two mapping options can be chosen? (Choose two.)
A. Use an @Id property that constructs a private field as a concatenation of two columns.
B. Use a separate class to map those two columns and use an @IdClass annotation to denote
the primary key field or property in the entity.
C. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and use an @EmbeddedId
annotation to denote a single primary key field or property in the entity.
D. Use a separate @Embeddable class to map those two columns and add two fields or
properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that correspond to the fields or properties in the
embeddable class.
E. Use a separate class to map those two columns. Specify that class using @IdClass annotation
on the entity class. Add two fields or properties to the entity, each marked as @Id, that
correspond to the fields or properties in that separate class.
Answer: C, E
Question 3.
A developer maps the abstract entity class Account with concrete entity sub-classes CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount using the single table per class hierarchy strategy.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Instances of CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount are stored in the same table.
B. All columns that correspond to fields declared in Account must be defined as null able in the
database.
C. The fields declared in Account are stored in a different table than the ones declared in
CreditCardAccount and SavingsAccount.
D. All columns that correspond to fields declared in CreditCardAccount or SavingsAccount must
be defined as null able in the database.
Answer: A, D
Question 4.
A developer writes an enterprise application and packages it into an .ear file. The application contains two persistence units defined at the .ear level with persistence unit names FooPU and BarPU. The application also contains an ejb-jar with one stateless session bean.
Which code, when added to the stateless session bean class, injects an EntityManagerFactory at runtime?
A. @PersistenceUnit
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
B. @PersistenceContext
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
C. @PersistenceUnit(unitName="BarPU")
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
D. @Resource(name="BarPU", type=EntityManagerFactory.class)
private EntityManagerFactory emf;
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which two are true about EJB 3.0 exception classes? (Choose two.)
A. The javax.ejb.NoSuchEJBException is an application exception.
B. The javax.ejb.EJBException extends java.lang.RuntimeException.
C. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRequiredException is an application exception.
D. An application exception must NOT be a subclass of java.rmi.RemoteException.
E. The javax.ejb.EJBTransactionRolledbackException is an application exception.
F. Any subclass of java.lang.RuntimeException is always considered a system exception.
Answer: B, D
Question 6.
Which statement about the combination of mapping defaults, annotations, and XML descriptors is correct?
A. All mapping annotations must always be processed by the persistence provider.
B. Some annotations, like the @Entity annotation, must always be processed by the persistence
provider.
C. The mapping information for an entity class specified by annotations and in XML descriptors
must be distinct.
D. If multiple entity listeners are defined, the order in which they are invoked can be defined or
overwritten in the XML descriptor.
Answer: D
Question 7.
An Application Assembler is given the following stateless session bean:
10. @Stateless public class MyBean implements MyInt {
11. @RolesAllowed("SECRET")
12. public void methodA(int x) {}
13. public void methodA(String y) {}
14. public void methodB(String z) {}
15. }
A deployment descriptor is also supplied, a portion of which reads as follows:
20.
21. AGENT
22.
23. MyBean
24. methodA
25.
26.
Which statement is true?
A. A client in any role will be able to access any of the methods.
B. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access any of the methods.
C. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access any of the methods.
D. A client in the role "AGENT" will be able to access methodB and methodA(String), but not
methodA(int).
E. A client in the role "SECRET" will be able to access methodA(int) and methodB, but NOT
methodA(String).
Answer: B
Question 8.
A User entity is in a one-to-many relationship with a Book entity. A developer writes a query to delete users that have a first name of 'Fred' or 'Ginger', and writes the following Java Persistence query language statement:
DELETE FROM User u WHERE u.name IN ('Fred', 'Ginger')
If the query fails with a PersistenceException, what can be the cause?
A. The syntax of the query is NOT correct.
B. The query causes a foreign key integrity constraint to be violated.
C. The database does NOT have any users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger'.
D. The entities corresponding to the users with the name 'Fred' or 'Ginger' are already being
managed by the persistence context.
Answer: B
Question 9.
A Java EE 5 application contains a session bean which uses a security role USER. A group called people is defined in an LDAP server.
Which two define appropriate EJB role responsibilities? (Choose two.)
A. The deployer defines and configures the LDAP realm.
B. The system administrator defines and configures the LDAP realm.
C. The deployer maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
D. The system administrator maps the application role USER to the LDAP group people.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. All types of enterprise beans can be transaction-aware.
B. Typically, fine-grained objects, such as an employee record, should be remotely accessible.
C. The client view of any given enterprise bean will be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers
without the need to recompile the bean.
D. As long as a given enterprise bean is NOT recompiled, its security attributes are guaranteed to
be consistent across all EJB 3.0 containers in which it is deployed.
Answer: A, C
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Question 1. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com has upgraded to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager. You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing the creation of global conditions in Configuration Manager. Which of the following suitably describes global conditions in Configuration Manager? A. Global conditions allow you to upgrade or replace existing applications using a supersedence relationship. B. Global conditions are rules that represent business or technical conditions that can be used to specify how an application is provided and deployed to client devices. C. Global conditions are a method of associating a user with one or more specified devices. D. Global conditions allow virtual applications that you have deployed to share the same file system and registry on client computers. Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. ABC.com’s developers have recently created a new application. You then deployed the application using the Available option from the Purpose drop-down list. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to using this option? (Choose all that apply.) A. If the application is deployed to a user, the user sees the published application in the Application Catalog and can request it on demand. B. The application is deployed automatically, in relation to the configured schedule. C. If the application is deployed to a device, the user will see it in the Software Center and can install it on demand. D. The administrator must approve any user requests for the application before it can be installed. Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 3. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing the use of Endpoint Protection in Configuration Manager. Which of the following are TURE with regards to making use of Endpoint Protection in Configuration Manager? (Choose all that apply.) A. You are allowed to configure antimalware policies and Windows Firewall settings for selected groups of computers via custom antimalware policies and client settings. B. You are only allowed to use Windows Update to download the latest antimalware definition Files to keep client workstations up-to-date. C. You are allowed to make use of Configuration Manager software updates to download the most recent antimalware definition files to keep client workstations up-to-date. D. You are not allowed to send email notifications to administrative users to inform them when malware is detected on client workstations. Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 4. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. You are applying updates to operating system images while they are in the Configuration Manager library. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to making use of this update solution? (Choose all that apply.) A. The risk of vulnerabilities during operating system deployments is diminished. B. The risk of vulnerabilities during operating system deployments is reduced. C. The overall operating system deployment to the end user is diminished. D. The overall operating system deployment to the end user is reduced. E. The administrative effort for maintaining your operating system images is diminished. F. The administrative effort for maintaining your operating system images is reduced. Answer: B, D, F Explanation: Question 5. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. All workstations on the ABC.com network have a 32-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise installed. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. ABC.com has an image of the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise, which is deployed to new workstations when necessary. You want to make sure that this image is kept up-to-date. Which of the following is TRUE when updating boot images? (Choose all that apply.) A. You can add device drivers to a boot without importing and enabling them in the device driver catalog. B. The boot image does not change any of the associated packages that the boot image references. C. You must update the distribution points that contain a version of the boot image subsequent to you making changes to a boot image. D. You can schedule an update of the distribution point. Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 6. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. You have been instructed to assign a fellow administrator, named Andy Reid, a security role that allows him to define and monitor security policies. Which of the following is the security role that should be assigned to Andy Reid? A. Asset Manager. B. Endpoint Protection Manager. C. Compliance Settings Manager. D. Infrastructure Administrator. Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. You are running a training exercise for ABC.com’s administrators. You are currently discussing Heartbeat Discovery. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Heartbeat Discovery? (Choose all that apply.) A. It is the only discovery method that provides details about the client installation status. B. The client computer must be able to contact its assigned update point to send the Heartbeat Discovery record. C. You are unable to manually initiate a Heartbeat Discovery cycle on a client. D. You are able to manually initiate a Heartbeat Discovery cycle on a client. Answer: A, D Explanation: Question 8. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. ABC.com’s hierarchy includes a Central Administration site and a primary site. You are currently analyzing the Despool.log files. Which of the following describes a reason for this? A. To view files that transfer via file-based replication between sites. B. To view details about site-to-site job and package replication. C. To view the activities of database replication between sites in the hierarchy. D. To view the replication of files between the site server components and the Scheduler component. Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of two active directory forests named eu.ABC.com and us.ABC.com. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager has been deployed in the us.ABC.com forest. You have employed a logon script for deploying the Configuration Manager client to workstations in the us.ABC.com forest. You are then instructed to automatically deploy the Configuration Manager client to workstations in the eu.ABC.com forest. You start by configuring a Client Push Installation account, and enabling the Client Push installation option. Which of the following actions should you take NEXT? A. You should consider enabling the Active Directory System Discovery option. B. You should consider enabling the Database Discovery option. C. You should consider enabling the Site Discovery option. D. You should consider enabling the Domain Discovery option. Answer: A Explanation: Question 10. You work as a senior administrator at ABC.com. The ABC.com network consists of a single domain named ABC.com. ABC.com makes use of System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in their environment. ABC.com’s hierarchy only includes a primary site. Have installed the Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point. Which of the following describes a reason for installing the Application Catalog web service point? A. To provide the Application Catalog website with software data from the Software Library. B. To provide users with a list of available software. C. To allow mobile devices to connect to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager servers and receive policy and configuration settings. D. To validate a statement of health using a sequential series of checks. Answer: A Explanation:
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Question 1. After connecting to a codec via WebGUI, you are prompted for a username and password. Which username password combination is used on the codec by default? A. Cisco, Cisco B. admin, Cisco C. Cisco, Cisco D. admin, cisco Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Which statement is correct when discussing the Cisco TelePresence System 1300? A. The system is designed to support meetings of six to eight participants B. The system features three 65-inch screens, three cameras, microphones, and speakers C. Voice-enabled switching is performed by the codec to select the active speaker in the room and capture the video for the remote side D. The power and Ethernet outlets must be positioned directly behind the unit Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. When using Auto-Collaborate, what two actions need to be done to display the laptop content after connecting the cable? (Choose two.) A. Press the Auto-Collaborate softkey B. Initiate Auto-Collaborate on the codec’s GUI C. Set the laptop resolution to 1024x768 D. Set your laptop resolution to 1024x720 E. Use function key on the laptop to send signal to external display Answer: C, E Explanation: Question 4. During your RRA assessment of a potential Cisco TelePresence System 1300 room you notice: • The HVAC diffuser has noticeable noise (measured at48 1dB) which sounds like rushing air What three recommendations should be made to the customer? (Choose three.) A. The customer should turn the fan level down on the HVAC system to insure the fan noise is minimized in the Cisco TelePresence room B. The customer should contact an HVAC specialist to review and recommend an appropriate solution C. The customer should not worry about the HVAC fan noise because the Cisco TelePresence System uses a noise suppression algorithm designed to identify HVAC fan noise and minimize those frequencies D. The customer should replace the diffusers with a diffuser that is rated with a noise criterion of 10 or greater E. The customer should replace the ducting directly above the room with acoustically treated ducting to remove the sound of rushing airflow Answer: B, D, E Explanation: Question 5. In the Cisco TelePresence administration WebGUI, the camera Auto Adjust can be used to check which setting? A. life size B. zoom and focus C. white color balance D. HDMI input threshold Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. What is the leveling process for the Cisco TelePresence System 1000 frame? A. With only one display, there is no need to level the frame before attaching it to the wall B. Attach the frame to the wall and level the frame by raising or lowering the feet. C. Place a level on the middle and upper crossbars and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the frame is horizontally level D. Place a level on the side of the frame and adjust the feet as necessary to ensure that the Frame is vertically level Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. Refer to the exhibit. Identify the port number where the Audio Video expansion box should connect. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 9 F. 10 G. 11 H. 12 I. 13 Answer: H Explanation: Question 8. Which statement is correct when tuning the cameras by using the WebGUI of the Cisco TelePresence codec? A. If there is a noticeable flicker on the screen, the 50 Hz Flicker Reduction button will eliminate the flicker and increase the image resolution. B. If the user is 4 to 5 feet (1.2 to 1.5 m) away from the display, click the 4 feet radio button for the Focus Distance radio choice. If the user is farther than 5 feet (1.5 m) away, click the 6 feet choice. C. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance choices. D. Auto Color Balance can produce the best results when the colors of the walls in your room are white or gray. Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which three statements are correct when tuning the camera on a Cisco TelePresence CTS-1xxx system? (Choose three.) A. Target placement should match the green and red boxes on the screen, respectively B. Place the large target three feet behind the small target. C. Place the large target five feet behind the small target D. Tune the camera so that the red and green bars line up as closely as possible E. Perform auto-adjust to optimize focus and sharpness Answer: A, C, D Explanation: Question 10. Which two statements are correct when calibrating the Cisco Telepresence cameras? (Choose two) A. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Disable radio button fur the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance B. If the Auto Adjust test to automatically adjust lighting and color balance fails, you may need to add more light C. If the room uses fixed artificial lighting, click the Enable- radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance D. If the room uses outside lighting, click the Disable radio button for the Camera Auto Brightness and Camera Auto Color Balance Answer: A, B Explanation:
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Question 1. An instructor has just finished the lesson on a topic that is essential to understanding the next topic of the course. Most of the learners are looking at the instructor with blank expressions. When the instructor asks questions to see if the learners understand the concept, most learners look away. Which of the following is the BEST next step for the instructor to take, given the learners' reactions? A. Hand out a set of written questions designed to evaluate individual comprehension of the concept. B. Give the learners a short study break to review any notes they might have taken during the presentation. C. Continue with the next phase of the lesson and refer back periodically to the concept. D. Review the main points of the concept and use examples that aid in stimulating discussion. Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. The trainer's goal is to get the most participation from learners regarding choices that must be made about the next step in training. The trainer realizes that there are several different ways to solve a particular problem and wants learners to agree on the best method. Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for accomplishing this goal? A. Lecture B. Discussion C. Hands-on activities D. Independent reading Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. On the second day of a five-day class, it becomes apparent that the trainer will finish the materials by the middle of the fourth day. The client requires the students to attend a full five days of training on the topic. In order to meet the client's requirement, the trainer should: A. extend the lunch break by 30 minutes each day and add an additional afternoon break to stretch the timeout B. contact the client after class on the second day to inform them of the status and get approval for ending theclass early C. prepare additional materials after the second day and submit them to the client for approval in order to meetthe five-days-of-training requirement D. inform the class of the estimated early finish and ask them for suggestions on how to fill in the remaining dayand a half of training time Answer: C Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to optimize group participation? A. Calling on learners and asking each a question B. Handing out sets of written questions C. Asking aquestionof the group in general and waiting for a response D. Making a statement and then asking whether the learners have any questions Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. For this question, decide whether the action makes it likely or unlikely that the trainer will achieve the goal. Select the BEST statement of the reason that the action is likely or unlikely to accomplish the goal. GOAL: To respond in a manner helpful to the rest of the class to a learner who asks relevant questions but asks them frequently. ACTION: Restate the question, if necessary, to clarify it and then direct the Question to the class. A. LIKELY, because the strategy will engage the other learners in answering the questions and will aid theirunderstanding B. LIKELY, because the class will exert pressure on the learner to stop interrupting the lesson C. UNLIKELY, because the instructor will be perceived as not knowing the answer D. UNLIKELY, because adult learners prefer to be given direct responses Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. A trainer is teaching a course in which it appears that the learners differ greatly in what they expect from the course. Which of the following actions should the trainer take to ensure that instruction is effective for this class? A. Deliver course material exactly as the trainer's manual specifies. B. Poll the learners regarding what should be included and eliminated. C. Have the learners with the highest expectations about the course modify their expectations to fit those of thegroup. D. Adjust the course materials and agenda to meet the needs of the learners. Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Learners complained on evaluation questionnaires that the instructor did not always possess sufficient expertise about course material. Which of the following audiences is MOST likely to need this information? A. The company that pays to have its employees trained B. The person who schedules trainers C. The instructional designer D. The other instructors who teach the same course Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. A trainer, who has completed a training class, determines that the materials were inadequate for students to meet the learning objectives. The training materials were created by the training center using technical journals and other vendor manuals. Which of the following actions should the trainer take? A. Ask to meet with the curriculum developers to see if they want help developing materials for the next class. B. Ask the training center to send supplementary materials to the students in the class. C. Report the inadequacy and ask the training center staff to contact the curriculum developer to makecorrections. D. Provide the curriculum developer with a specific list of corrections and changes to use for the next course. Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. An experienced instructor has just completed an instructional assignment that the instructor judges to have been unsuccessful. The instructor believes that the difficulty experienced was due in part to the scheduling of the course, which conflicted with the work schedules of many of the learners. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing for the instructor to do in this situation? A. Inform the learners' supervisors that the planning for the course was inadequate. B. Downplay the significance of learner comments since the course was not successful. C. Report observations along with comments from the learners to the training manager. D. Try to obtain the learners' work schedules to support the instructor's judgment about the cause of the problem. Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. To minimize bias in assessing learner attainment of course objectives, a trainer must do which of the following? A. Measure each learner's progress from the individual's starting point. B. Measure each learner from a choice of standards based on individual learning styles. C. Measure all learners against the same pre-established standard. D. Measure all learners by using evaluation techniques that are unobtrusive. Answer: C
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Question 1. Which of the following is an example of a false negative? A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware. C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application. D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times. Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving each day. Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of administrative overhead? A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network. B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client. D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in. Answer: A Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending information? A. LDAP B. TACACS+ C. ACLs D. RADIUS Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP? A. X-Mas attack B. Fraggle attack C. Vishing D. Man-in-the-middle attack Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 25 Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication? A. Something you are, something you have B. Something you have, something you know C. Something you are near to, something you have D. Something you have, someone you know Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system? A. Token issuing system B. Security assertion server C. Authentication agent D. Ticket granting server Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this? A. Sandbox B. White box C. Black box D. Gray box Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use? A. Active fingerprinting B. Passive finger printing C. Protocol analyzing D. Network enumerating Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers? A. SCP B. SSH C. Telnet D. SFTP Answer: B Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following provides the BEST security and accountability for a Data Center? A. Entry logging B. Combination locks C. Card keys D. Dead bolts Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following slots, if available, would offer the highest bandwidth? A. AGP B. PCI-E x16 C. PCI-X D. PCI Answer: B Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following are the FIRST actions to take when an administrator is troubleshooting a server? (Select TWO) A. Make one change at a time and test/confirm the change has resolved the problem. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Replicate the problem. D. Determine if a common element is causing multiple problems. E. Identify any changes to the server. Answer: C, E Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following server types performs the same function as the LMHOSTS file? A. DNS B. DHCP C. WINS D. FTP Answer: C Explanation: Question 5. NO: 5 Which of the following software directly interacts with the hardware and handles hardware resource requests from virtual machines? A. Guest OS B. Virtual Center C. VT D. Hypervisor Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following must occur when installing SCSI devices into the server? A. Terminate the back end of the chain. B. Set the jumper to device ID 0. C. Terminate both ends of the chain. D. Set the jumper to cable select. Answer: C Explanation: Question 7. A server has six drives of equal size attached to a RAID controller. Which of the following fault tolerant RAID levels would allow the maximum amount of data to be stored? A. RAID 1 +0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 0 D. RAID 1 Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following RAID levels can withstand the simultaneous loss of two physical drives in an array? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 3 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is the BEST place to find the latest BIOS upgrade of the server system board? A. Third-party vendor B. BIOS manufacture website C. Operating system manufacture website D. Server’s manufacture website Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following technologies was created to reduce cost, increase cable length, and uses 3.3v across the line? A. Wide-Ultra2 SCSI-3 B. High-Voltage Differential C. Low-Voltage Differential D. Fibre Channel Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1.
Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Question 2.
The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A, C, E
Explanation:
Question 3.
What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Question 4.
You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s.
Under which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 5.
Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to be changed.
How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics
simultaneously to avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid segmentation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 6.
A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration.
How would you configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
Question 7.
Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 9.
An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached storage.
Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 10.
A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics.
Which could be the the cause of the segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B
Explanation:
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Question 1. Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company’s LAN. This upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements, bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning process? A. Conduct a vulnerability scan B. Establish a network baseline C. Conduct traffic analysis D. Conduct a risk assessment Answer: B Explanation: Question 2. Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity. Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity? A. Behavioral Based IDS B. Signature Based IDS C. Behavioral Based IPS D. Signature Based IPS Answer: D Explanation: Question 3. Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network? A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider. B. Create a list of requirements and constraints. C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar. D. Choose the correct operating system version. Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. A username and PIN B. A username and password C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card D. A username, password, and key fob number Answer: D Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial cable? A. RJ-11 B. BNC C. LC D. DB-9 Answer: D Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP address provided through DHCP? A. DNS suffixes B. Leases C. Static IP addressing D. Reservations Answer: B Explanation: Question 7. Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count. B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost. D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected. Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish this? A. MAC filtering B. SSL VPN C. PPPoE D. WPA Enterprise Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one network device and not the rest of the network? A. Bus B. Peer-to-peer C. Ring D. Star Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with Internet access. Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address? A. QoS B. POP3 C. PAT D. SMTP Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1. Which of the following would help a new administrator quickly determine if a network had a VLAN for its publicly accessible servers? A. Baselines B. Regulations C. Logical network diagrams D. Wiring schematics Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Keyword and blacklist filtering would be handled at which level in a network? A. Layer 2 managed switch B. DHCP server C. Hardware firewall D. Bridge Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. A common technique used to prevent the unauthorized network devices from sending traffic across a network is port. A. spanning B. address translation C. mirroring D. authentication Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. When installing two 802.11g access points in the same building, which of the following channels will MOST likely be used to minimize interference? A. 5 and 6 B. 1 and 6 C. 6 and 10 D. 2 and 6 Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which of the following devices transmits timed broadcasts onto an active network? A. Bridge B. Unmanaged switch C. DHCP client D. Firewall Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. Users are unable to stay connected to the company's wireless network. Several times throughout the day the users' signals are dropped and they are forced to reconnect to the network. A technician determines the network cabling that supplies the WAP has been run inside with several power lines. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the network issue? A. A short B. Open pairs C. ESD D. EMI Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following describes the location where an administrator would terminate a bundle of CAT5e cables? A. Switch B. Smart jack C. Router D. Patch panel Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following can be an STP cable? A. RG-6 B. CAT5e C. Fiber D. RG-59 Answer: B Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following is used to identify active hosts along with their network addresses? A. Port scan B. Ping sweep C. IDS D. NIPS Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. A section of the building has been having intermittent connectivity problems lately. An action plan and solution has been created. Which of the following steps would an administrator perform NEXT? A. Document the solution and process. B. Establish the most probable cause. C. Implement and test the solution. D. Identify additional symptoms and problems Answer: C Explanation:
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