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Hi All Have anyone latest dumps of 642-521 upgrade.... Regards, Wasif
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Question 1.
Which two key tasks belong to Acceptance Testing? (Choose two.)
A. Get Acceptance from the Customer for the Design and Project Plan
B. Coordinate Required Customer Involvement
C. Proof of Concept
D. Stage Equipment
E. Tune Policies Further if Needed
Answer: B, E
Question 2.
What describes the Business Requirements Development service component in the prepare phase?
A. meetings with different customer stakeholders to gather the customer's requirements for the
security solution
B. a process by which the partner can determine if the security solution that is being proposed
matches the customer's security requirements
C. the creation of a topology map for the solution and the identification of products and services
that will be required to implement the solution
D. a process that identifies the customer's security reporting requirements
E. the creation of a model network that replicates the proposed security solution
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which task is conducted as part of developing a detailed design for IPS or IDS?
A. Identify SQL Server Requirements
B. Define Sensor Maintenance Procedures
C. Review LAN/WAN Configurations
D. Define Configuration Database Design
Answer: B
Question 4.
Your boss at ITCertKeys, Mrs. ITCertKeys, is curious about flow of events for a CSA policies and groups implementation.
What is the correct order?
Answer:
Question 5.
Which task is performed during the development of a detailed design for CSA?
A. Determine CSA Feature and Function Design Specifications
B. Define Policies and Groups
C. Review and Generate an IP Addressing Scheme
D. Determine Network Availability/Redundancy Specifications
Answer: B
Question 6.
Which service component should be executed before Change Management?
A. Operations Design
B. Operations Setup
C. Operation Assessment
D. Escalation Process
Answer: B
Question 7.
What is the first activity that is conducted in an IPS mode implementation?
A. Fine Tune the Custom Policy
B. Tune for False Positives
C. Create a Rule from a Query
D. Install the Sensor, Schedule a Network Outage Prior to the Installation
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which two tasks are parts of the (CSA) Security System Installation? (Choose two.)
A. Identify a Set of Systems That Will Be Protected in a Pilot Implementation Based upon
Guidelines
B. Determine CSA Feature and Function Design Specifications
C. Identify SQL Server Requirements
D. Ensure Specified CSA Network Connectivity Requirements Are Met
Answer: A, D
Question 9.
Which resource is most often used during the Detailed Design Development: Feature/Functionality Design Development?
A. Site Survey
B. Acceptance Test Plan
C. Product Configuration Checklist
D. System Readiness Assessment Report
E. Business Requirements Document
Answer: C
Question 10.
For a security solution, which task is associated with the Business Requirements Development service component in the prepare phase?
A. Review Security Alerts and Notification Requirements
B. Document Current Topology, Hardware and Software
C. Document System Level Functionality
D. Analyze the Security Solution Integration Requirements with Existing Legacy Platforms
E. Assess Technical Requirements for the Proposed Security Solution
Answer: C
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Question 1. Which of the following statements about a riser card is true? A. It is used to connect a computer in a network. B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors. C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards. D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards. Answer: D Explanation: Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards. With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the expansion cards connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards. Question 2. Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)? A. E-book reader B. Memory card reader C. Smart card reader D. Barcode reader Answer: B Explanation: A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader. Question 3. Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Biometrics B. Encryption C. Password D. Token Answer: A, C, D Explanation: The following can be used to accomplish authentication. 1. Password 2. Biometrics 3. Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication server. What is biometrics? Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication. Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication. Question 4. Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SMPS B. Floppy drive C. Monitor D. Keyboard. Answer: A, C Explanation: A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect. Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal electric shocks. Question 5. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. USB B. DB-25 C. PS/2 D. DB-9 Answer: A, C Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. What is USB? Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1. Answer options D and B are incorrect. The DB-9 and DB-25 port types on the computer are used as serial ports. A DB-9 male type port has 9 pins, whereas a DB-25 male type port has 25 pins. What is a serial port? Serial port is the primary means for connecting modems and mouse to a computer. There are two types of serial port connectors, 9-pin and 25-pin. The word serial refers to the data is sent in series, one bit at a time, over a single wire. This design is significantly slower than sending 8 bits at a time via a parallel channel, but serial signals can travel much farther without degradation. Question 6. Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Hot plugging B. Hibernate mode C. Standby mode D. Safe mode Answer: B, C Explanation: The Hibernate mode and Standby mode are features related to power management. Hibernate mode is a power saving feature for computers. In hibernate mode, the current state of a computer is saved to the hard disk, and the computer shuts down. A user will have to power on the computer to restore the previous settings. When a computer resumes from hibernate mode, it reads the saved settings from the disk and restores the system state as it was before it entered hibernate mode. By default, hibernate mode is disabled. If a computer is not ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled, users will have to enter hibernate mode manually. Users cannot set the computer to automatically hibernate after a certain time. With ACPI-enabled and APM-enabled computers, users are able to set hibernate mode automatically. The standby mode is a power saving feature for computers. In this mode, a computer does not shut down completely. The computer goes to low power state and, as a result, it consumes less power. When the computer resumes from the standby mode, full power is restored to its devices. During the standby mode, if the power supply is disconnected or interrupted, data might be lost. The standby mode is available automatically on ACPI-enabled or APM-enabled computers. Users do not need to enable this mode manually. This mode is not available in non-ACPI and non-APM based computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Hot plugging is a feature in which a device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. Answer option D is incorrect. Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. Question 7. Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. SVGA B. Active Matrix C. Passive Matrix D. X-Matrix Answer: B, C Explanation: Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors. LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect. SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix. Question 8. Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio? A. DVI B. S-Video C. SVGA D. HDMI Answer: D Explanation: HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and alldigital audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multichannel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources, such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B. Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals. One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using SVideo, the device sending the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High- Definition_Multimedia_Interface" Question 9. You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion card should you use? A. MCA B. PCMCIA C. PCI D. AGP Answer: B Explanation: PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a legacy graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot. Reference. http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm Question 10. Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to protect a computer from new viruses? A. Definition B. Modules C. Service pack D. Hotfix Answer: A Explanation: Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file contains information about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them. Answer option D is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are generally related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer option C is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements. Answer option B is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file. Reference. "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Computer_virus"
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Question 1. When surfing the internet, which layer of the OSI Model will result in a session time-out? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 4 C. Layer 5 D. Layer 6 Answer: C Question 2. A customer complains that when there is a phone call at home, the wireless on his notebook computer will lost connection. What is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The cordless phones are plugged into the RJ-11 jack B. The cordless phones are plugged into same outlet as the router C. The cordless phones are2.4Ghz which interferes with wireless D. The cordless phones are5.8Ghz which interferes with wireless Answer: C Question 3. If you want to use a 100BASE-T network to connect two servers and five workstations, which physical topology will you use? A. Star B. Bus C. Ring D. FDDI Answer: A Question 4. In an RJ-11 connector, how many wire pairs can be used at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: A Question 5. Which term best describes a server that can be configured to block connections according to the static address of a computer? A. Kerberos B. RADIUS C. IP address filtering D. MAC address filtering Answer: C Question 6. How many wires can be fit into RJ-11 connector at most? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 Answer: B Question 7. CAT 5 cable is a twisted pair (4 pairs) high signal integrity cable type. In a main distribution frame (MDF), which is the highest transmission speed for a CAT5 network cable? A. 1Mbps. B. 10Mbps. C. 100Mbps. D. 1000Mbps. Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following operates at a maximum of 16 Mbps? A. 10GBase-SR B. 10Base-T C. Token Ring D. FDDI Answer: C Question 9. Which network device connects to a Telco T1 line at the boundary point? A. Modem B. ISDN adapter C. NIC D. CSU / DSU Answer: D Question 10. Which network component transmits packets through a wireless network? A. WAP B. NIC C. CSU / DSU D. WEP Answer: A
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Question 1. Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA? A. Private key B. Symmetric key C. Recovery key D. Public key Answer: D Explanation: Question 2. Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server? A. XTACACS B. TACACS C. RADIUS D. TACACS+ Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Where are revoked certificates stored? A. Recovery agent B. Registration C. Key escrow D. CRL Answer: D Explanation: Question 4. DRPs should contain which of the following? A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel B. Hierarchical list of critical systems C. Hierarchical access control lists D. Identification of single points of failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent: A. password sharing. B. escalation of privileges. C. implicit deny. D. administrative account lockout. Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised? A. Full disk encryption B. Common access card C. Strong password complexity D. Biometric authentication Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host enumeration by sweep devices? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. IPv4 D. ICMP Answer: D Explanation: Question 8. Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack? A. Memory addressing B. Directory traversal C. Initial vector D. Session cookies Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended recipient can decrypt the ciphertext? A. Private B. Escrow C. Public D. Preshared Answer: C Explanation: Question 10. Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports? A. VLAN separation B. Access control C. Loop protection D. DMZ Answer: C Explanation:
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Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following are TRUE about the activity diagram?
Exhibit:
A. Alerting management of a conflict and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
B. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done simultaneously.
C. A CourseSection can be added to the CourseCatalog with just department approval.
D. Getting departmental approval and getting building approval can be done in any order.
Answer: B, D
Question 2.
Which one of the following OOAD artifacts would be MOST useful in helping to plan the content of iterations in a project plan?
A. CRC cards.
B. Collaboration diagrams.
C. Use cases.
D. State diagrams.
Answer: C
Question 3.
An Interaction Diagram should be associated with:
A. a Use Case.
B. a State Transition Diagram.
C. an Activity Diagram.
D. a CRC card.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question. A Course Section can be added to, deleted from and retrieved from a Course Schedule.
What is the BEST way to model the relationship between a Course Schedule and a Course Section?
Exhibit:
A. CourseSchedule is defined as a subclass of a Collection type and inherits the adding, deleting and retrieving capabilities for CourseSections.
B. CourseSchedule delegates the management of CourseSections to Student.
C. CourseSchedule delegates the adding, deleting and retrieving of the CourseSections to a collection it holds.
D. CourseSection has a number attribute by which it can identify the CourseSchedule to which it belongs.
Answer: C
Question 5.
When considering OOAD artifacts and the resulting software, how far should one be able to trace specific user requirements?
A. Interaction diagrams
B. Use cases
C. Class diagrams
D. Public methods
E. Private methods
Answer: D
Question 6.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Which of the following is the BEST list of candidate interaction diagrams to directly or indirectly support the use case?
Exhibit:
A. Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, Cancel an order, View a
portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
B. Manage accounts, Handle deposits and withdrawals, Trade stocks, View a portfolio, Get a quote, View a quote.
C. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit, Withdraw funds, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Log on, Log off, View a quote.
D. Open an account, Close an account, Receive a deposit by wire, Receive a deposit by check, Buy a stock, Sell a stock, View a portfolio, Successful log on, Failed log on, Log off, View a quote.
Answer: A
Question 7.
Refer to the exhibits to answer the question.
Which of the following statements are TRUE with respect to the Event Planning class diagram? A Facility:
Exhibit:
Exhibit:
A. can get to a particular Seat by type of Seat.
B. may find a Seat when accessing by number.
C. may get multiple Seats back when accessing by price.
D. can access Seats by price or by Seat number.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
The following are the requirements for a Report-generation module in an application:
1. When new data is generated, the user-interface should be refreshed automatically to reflect the latest values
2. Multiple view types are possible
Which of the following Model and View interactions BEST satisfies the above requirements?
A. Combine the view and model layers into a single entity so that the interactions are localized and notifications are instantaneous.
B. Establish subscribe/notify mechanism between view and model, with the model updating the view based upon the view type.
C. Establish a subscribe/notify mechanism between the view and model layers so that the views get notified of the change.
D. Develop intelligence within the model so that it decides which views are to be refreshed based on the view type.
Answer: C
Question 9.
The developer should be able to trace a class' public operations back to its:
A. public attributes.
B. associations.
C. states.
D. responsibilities.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit to answer the question.
Suppose there is a new requirement to keep track of which instructors teach what courses and sections as well as students' evaluations of the instructor. A new Instructor class has just been added.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for handling the information and processing requirements?
Exhibit:
A. Add an association class called TeachingAssignment between CourseSection and Instructor. Add the new attributes and methods in TeachingAssignment.
B. Add the new attributes and methods in Instructor.
C. Add the new attributes and methods in CourseSection.
D. Add an association relationship between CourseSection and Instructor. Add some new attributes and methods in CourseSection and some in Instructor.
Answer: A
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Question 1. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 in the forest. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived. You install and configure Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service. You need to configure the components that will be archived. Which component or components should be archived? (Choose all that apply.) A. IM communications between internal users B. IM communications between internal users and federated partners C. audio and video communications between internal users D. audio and video communications between internal users and federated partners E. file transfers between internal users F. file transfers between internal users and federated partners Answer: A, B Question 2. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. A user named Susan changes her last name. Susan's last name is changed in Active Directory. However, her new last name is not found by using the Find feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. You discover that you can find Susan by searching on her previous last name. You need to ensure that users can immediately find Susan by searching on her new last name. What should you do? A. Restart the Address Book Service (ABS). B. Run the Replmon.exe tool to force Active Directory replication. C. Run the Abserver.exe tool with the syncnow parameter on the Address Book Service (ABS) server. Instruct all users to sign out of Office Communicator and then sign in again. D. Run the Gpudate.exe tool with the sync parameter on the server running Live Communications Server 2005. Then restart the server. Answer: C Question 3. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 on a server named Server1 in the forest. Server1 is configured to communicate over TCP. Your company wants to support an additional Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) namespace. You create a DNS SRV record for the new namespace. You need to allow all users to sign in to Server1 by using the new SIP namespace. What should you do? A. Change all users' e-mail addresses to use the new namespace. B. Add the new namespace to the list of supported SIP domains. C. Add the new namespace to the list of User Principal Name suffixes. D. Add the new namespace to the Host Authorization list. Answer: B Question 4. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with multiple front-end servers in the forest. Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy runs on a server named Server2. Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service runs on a server named Server3. Server3 runs Microsoft SQL Server 2000 with Service Pack 4. The company's written security policy states that all instant messaging (IM) communications must be archived for auditing purposes. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived. What should you do? A. Install Microsoft SQL Desktop Engine (MSDE) on all front-end servers. B. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on Server2. Enable and configure the archiving agent on Server2. C. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on all front-end servers. Enable and configure the archiving agent on all front-end servers. D. Install Microsoft Message Queuing (MSMQ) on one front-end server. Enable and configure the archiving agent on that front-end server. Answer: C Question 5. Your company's network is configured as shown in the exhibit. Live Communications Server 2005 is deployed in the forest. Users in na.contoso.com can locate users in na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Microsoft Office Communicator 2005. Users in asia.contoso.com cannot locate users in asia.contoso.com and research.asia.contoso.com by using the Search for a contact feature of Office Communicator. You need to ensure that users in each domain can use the Search for a contact feature to locate users in all domains. You want to ensure that no additional rights are granted. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose two.) A. On contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command to add na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com. B. On na.contoso.com and sales.na.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add asia.contoso.com. C. On na.contoso.com and asia.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add contoso.com. D. On research.asia.contoso.com and research.contoso.com, run the DomainAdd command with the usersonly parameter to add na.contoso.com. Answer: B, D Question 6. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You are preparing to perform routine maintenance on one of the servers in the Enterprise pool. You need to ensure that services are not disrupted for users homed on the Enterprise pool. What should you do? A. Stop the Live Communications Server service on the front-end server that requires maintenance. B. Stop the MSSQLSERVER service on the back-end database server for Live Communications Server 2005. C. Create a new Enterprise pool. Move all users to the new pool. D. Back up the existing Enterprise pool. Create a new Enterprise pool. Restore all users to the new pool. Answer: A Question 7. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory domain named fabrikam.com. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the domain. The Address Book Service (ABS) is published to a network file share. You need to provide the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 clients with the location of the ABS files. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.) A. Create an SRV record for _ABSInsideURL._TCP.fabrikam.com. B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that specifies the location of the ABS files. Link the GPO to the fabrikam.com domain object. C. Configure the Enterprise pool to specify the location of the ABS files. D. Configure the Office Communicator client on each user's computer to point to the ABS server as the sign-in server. Answer: B, C Question 8. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. You discover that IM communications for users in the accounting department are not being archived. You confirm that IM communications for users in other departments are being archived. You need to ensure that all IM communications are archived. What should you do? A. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard. Select the Configure Archiving option. Select Use Default Archiving Settings. B. Associate the front-end servers of the Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool with a new Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service. C. Run the Move Live Communications Users Wizard. Move the accounting users to a different pool that is configured for archiving. D. Run the Delegation of Control Wizard on the organizational unit (OU) holding the domain object. Grant the accounting users Read-Write permissions on the Live Communications Server 2005, Archiving service computer objects. Answer: A Question 9. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy a Live Communications Server 2005, Enterprise pool in the forest. You configure Live Communications Server 2005 to archive all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that all IM communications must be archived. IM communications that are sent by the users in the finance and legal departments must include the full IM communication. IM communications that are sent by users in the sales and marketing departments require only the usage data. All user accounts are stored in organizational units (OUs) for their respective department. You need to ensure that the archiving requirements are met. What should you do? A. Edit the Global Properties archiving settings. Select the Do not archive message body check box. B. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Archive Without Message Content option. C. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Finance and Legal OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option. D. Run the Configure Live Communications Users Wizard on the Sales and Marketing OUs. Select the Configure Archiving check box. Select the Use Default Archiving Settings option. Answer: B Question 10. Your company's network consists of one Active Directory forest. You deploy Live Communications Server 2005 and Live Communications Server 2005, Access Proxy in the forest. Archiving is configured to store all instant messaging (IM) communications. The company's written security policy states that internal users must be notified, upon initiation of each IM session, that the communication will be archived. You need to ensure that the Microsoft Office Communicator 2005 client is configured to meet this requirement. What should you do? A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Warning Text GPO setting and enter the appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to the domain object. B. On the Access Proxy, select the Enable archiving disclaimer notification to federated users check box. C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) to enable the Interactive logon: Message text for users attempting to log on GPO setting and enter the appropriate notification text. Link the GPO to the domain object. D. Create a new tab for the Office Communicator client that connects to the company's internal Web site that defines the company's archiving policy. Answer: A
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Question 1. You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to generate daily and monthly reports. ISA1 publishes the reports to a folder named IsaReports. You generate custom reports to indicate user activity during the weekends of the last three months. The reports for the last five weekends display correct data. However, reports for previous weekends cannot be displayed. Only monthly activity summary reports are available for previous months. You need to provide custom reports that show the actual activity for all the weekends during the last three months. What should you do? A. Configure the Microsoft Data Engine (MSDE) database log files to be saved for 130 days. Restore the MSDE database log files from backup for the last three months. B. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Restore the log summary files from backup for the last three months. C. Delete the log summary files. Configure daily reports to be saved for 130 days. Disable and then re-enable log summary reports. D. In the IsaReports folder, create a new folder for each of the weekends. Copy the respective daily report files for each day of a weekend into their corresponding folders. Answer: A Question 2. You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 has two network adapters. Access rules allow users on the Internal network to have HTTP access to the Internet. You add a third network adapter to ISA1 and connect the third network adapter to a perimeter network. You place a Web server named WebServer2 on this perimeter network segment. WebServer2 must be accessible to computers on the Internal network. You create a computer object for WebServer2 and then create an access rule that allows Internal network clients HTTP access to WebServer2. Users are not required to authenticate with ISA1 to access WebServer2. Users report that they cannot access information on WebServer2. When they attempt to access the Web site, they receive the following error message: Error Code 10060: Connection timeout. Background: There was a time out before the page could be retrieved. This might indicate that the network is congested or that the website is experiencing technical difficulties. You need to ensure that users on the Internal network can access information on WebServer2. First, you verify that WebServer2 is operational. What should you do next? A. Create a network rule that sets a route relationship between the Internal network and the perimeter network. B. Create a server publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network. C. Create a Web publishing rule that publishes WebServer2 to the Internal network. D. Create an access rule that allows WebServer2 access to the Internal network. Answer: A Question 3. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. The IP address bound to the external network adapter of ISA1 is 192.168.100.141. You run the netstat Cna command on ISA1. The relevant portion of the output is shown in the following table. You need to be able to quickly verify whether ISA1 is allowing traffic to TCP port 139. What should you do? A. From a remote computer, run the pathping command to query ISA1. B. From a remote computer, use a port scanner to query ISA1. C. On ISA1, use the Portqry.exe tool to query ISA1. D. On ISA1, use the Netdiag.exe tool to query ISA1. Answer: B Question 4. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 Desktop Engine (MSDE 2000) database logging is enabled on ISA1. ISA1 is configured with 512 MB of RAM and a single 60-GB hard disk. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You need to identify the source of the slow performance. Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Memory\Pages/sec B. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes C. MSSQL$MSFW:Databases(*)\Transactions/sec D. MSSQL$MSFW:MemoryManager\Target Server Memory (KB) E. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length F. Physical Disk\Split IO/sec Answer: A, E Question 5. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 provides Internet access for all users on the companys network. All computers on the network are configured as SecureNAT clients. You create an access rule on ISA1 that allows all users access to all protocols on the External network. You view the Firewall log and the Web Proxy filter log on ISA1 and notice that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are not displayed. You need to ensure that the URLs of Web sites visited by company users are displayed in the ISA1 log files. What should you do? A. Configure all network computers as Web Proxy clients. B. Configure all network computers as Firewall clients. C. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for Web requests. D. Configure ISA1 to require authentication for all protocols. Answer: D Question 6. You are the administrator of an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to publish two Web sites named www.fabrikam.com and www.contoso.com. Both Web sites are located on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server1. The IP address of Server1 is 10.0.0.2. The Web publishing rules are configured as shown in the following display. Both the www.fabrikam.com/info and www.contoso.com/info virtual directories point to a common file share. The default log view does not allow you to easily distinguish between requests for www.fabrikam.com/info and requests for www.contoso.com/info. A sample of the log with the relevant entries is shown in the following table. You need to ensure that the log viewer displays the fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) for the Web site requests. In addition, you need to filter the log viewer to display only the requests for both the www.contoso.com/info and the www.fabrikam.com/info virtual subdirectories. What should you do? A. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to 10.0.0.2. Configure each Web publishing rule to use the FQDN of its respective Web site on the To tab. In the log viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text string info. B. On ISA1, configure two Hosts file entries that resolve both FQDNs to the external IP address of ISA1. Configure each Web publishing rule so that requests appear to come from the original client computer. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. In the log viewer, add to the default log filter expression a condition where the URL contains the text string info. C. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 1. Configure the second condition so that the Rule equals Web Publish 2. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. D. In the log viewer, add two conditions to the default log filter expression. Configure the first condition so that Server contains Fabrikam. Configure the second condition so that Server contains Contoso. In the log viewer, add a column to display the destination host name. Answer: B Question 7. You install ISA Server 2006 on a computer that has three network adapters. One of the network adapters is connected to the Internet, one is connected to the Internal network, and one is connected to a perimeter network. The perimeter network adapter and the internal network adapter are connected to private address networks. You configure ISA Server by applying the 3-Leg Perimeter network template. You run the 3-Leg Perimeter Network Template wizard. You then make the following changes to the firewall policy: • Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the Internet. • Create an access rule to allow all traffic between the Internal network and the perimeter network. • Create an access rule to allow SMTP traffic from an SMTP server on the perimeter network to a Microsoft Exchange Server computer on the Internal network. • Create a server publishing rule to allow SMTP traffic from the External network to the SMTP server on the perimeter network. Users report that they cannot receive e-mail messages from users outside of the Internal network. You need to allow users to receive e-mail messages from other users on the Internet. You do not want to create a server publishing rule. What should you do? A. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network and the Internal network to Route. B. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, perimeter network, and External network to Route. C. Change the network rule that controls the route relationship between the perimeter network and the External network to NAT. D. Change all network rules that control the route relationships between the Internal network, perimeter network, and External network to NAT. Answer: A Question 8. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is configured to provide forward Web caching for users on the Internal network. During periods of peak usage, users report that it takes longer than usual for Web pages to appear. You suspect that insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance of ISA1. You need to verify whether insufficient memory is the source of the slow performance. Which two System Monitor performance counters should you add? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Memory\Pages/sec B. Process(W3Prefch)\Pool Nonpaged Bytes C. ISA Server Cache\Memory Usage Ratio Percent (%) D. Physical Disk\Avg. Disk Queue Length E. ISA Server Cache\Disk Write Rate (writes/sec) F. Memory\Pool Nonpaged Bytes Answer: A, C Question 9. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1. ISA1 is connected to the Internet. VPN access is configured to ISA1. RADIUS is configured as the only type of authentication for VPN connections. All remote users can connect to ISA1 by using a VPN connection. All internal users can connect to the Internet. You are replacing ISA1 with a new ISA Server computer named ISA2. You export the network-level node configuration settings on ISA1 to a file named ISAconfig.xml. You import the ISAconfig.xml file on ISA2. You replace ISA1 with ISA2 on the network. Remote VPN users report that they cannot authenticate to gain access to the network. Internal network users report that they cannot connect to the Internet. You need to configure ISA2 to allow incoming and outgoing access for company users. What should you do? A. Export the system policy configuration settings on ISA1 to an .xml file. Import the .xml file on ISA2. B. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2. C. Export the array configuration settings on ISA1. Include user permission settings in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2. D. Export the VPN Clients configuration on ISA1. Include confidential information in the exported configuration file. Import the file on ISA2. Answer: B Question 10. Your network contains an ISA Server 2006 computer named ISA1, which runs Windows Server 2003. ISA1 has three network adapters. Each adapter is connected to one of the following: Internal network, perimeter network, and Internet. All administrative hosts exist in the Internal network. You create a file named C:\Alerts\NetworkAlert.cmd. The NetworkAlert.cmd uses net.exe to send the following message to all administrative computers: Problem with network connectivity on ISA1. You enable the default Network configuration changed alert. You add a custom alert named Network Connectivity. The properties of the Network Connectivity alert are configured as shown in the Alert Events exhibit and the Alert Actions exhibit. You test the Network Connectivity alert by disabling the ISA1 network adapter that is connected to the perimeter network. You see the corresponding alert in both the Alerts view and the application log of Event Viewer. However, the message is not received on any of the administrative computers. You need to ensure that the administrative computers receive the text message when the Network Connectivity alert is triggered. You also need to be able to test the alert by disabling the perimeter network adapter on ISA1. What should you do? A. Disable the default Network configuration changed alert. B. Enable and start the messenger service and the alert service on ISA1 and on your administrative computer. C. On ISA1, configure the DisableDHCPMediaSense entry with a value of 1. D. Configure the Network Connectivity alert actions to run NetworkAlert.cmd by using an account that has the Log on as a batch job right. Answer: A
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Question 1. You have an application in Source Control. You create a branch from a development baseline. Development activity on the branch is isolated from the baseline. You need to synchronize the baseline and the branch by merging them on a regular basis. Which four actions should you perform? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.) Answer: Question 2. You migrate two projects named MyWebApp and MyWindowsApp from a Microsoft Visual SourceSafe (VSS) database to two folders named ConvertedWebApp and ConvertedWindowsApp respectively on Team Foundation Server (TFS). You create a file named settings.xml to use during the migration process. You need to configure the settings.xml file. Which XML fragment should you use? A.B. C. D. Answer: C Question 3. You have a folder named $/MyProj/Dev in Source Control. The $/MyProj/Dev folder maps to a workspace named MyDev. The MyDev workspace maps to a local folder named C:\Dev. There is another folder in Source Control named $/MyProj/Apps. You create a folder named C:\Dev\Apps on the hard disk. You try to create a workspace named MyDevClean by mapping the $/MyProj/Apps folder to the C:\Dev\Apps folder. The creation of the MyDevClean workspace fails. You need to modify the settings to successfully create the MyDevClean workspace. What should you do? A. Change the status of the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to Active. B. Change the status of the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to Cloaked. C. Change the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to another local folder. D. Change the mapping of the MyDevClean workspace to another folder on source control. Answer: C Question 4. You have a source control folder named Dev that is branched into a source control folder named Q A. Active development continues on the Dev branch. You check in two files into the Dev branch for a hotfix. The Quality Assurance department tests all hotfixes from the QA branch. You need to transfer only the hotfix from the Dev branch into the QA branch. What should you do? A. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Date. B. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Label. C. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Changeset. D. Merge the Dev branch into the QA branch by Latest Version. Answer: C Question 5. You apply a label named 6.4 to a source control folder for the build of your application. The developers on your team have started work on version 7.0 for the build and have checked incode. A developer checked in version 6.4 related updates after the label was applied. You need to include the 6.4 related updates that were missed in your label. What should you do? A. Apply a label named 6.4 to the latest version of the project. B. Apply a label named 6.4 to a specific changeset of the project. C. Apply a label named 6.4 to the workspace version of the project. D. Apply a label named 6.4 to the version of the project as on current date. Answer: B Question 6. Your application will be built by four teams working simultaneously. Each team must be able to build and deploy the application independently and merge code by using labels. You need to design a strategy to meet the requirements. Which strategy should you use? A. Permit each team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches. B. Create one branch for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches. C. Create three branches of the original source code for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort and merge the branches. D. Create three copies of the original source code for three teams. Permit the fourth team to work on the original source code. Synchronize the development effort, check out target, and get the latest version from the original source code. Answer: C Question 7. You check out a file named MyClass.cs. You make modifications to the file. You need to provide a hotfix that includes the MyClass.cs file. You also need to ensure that the modifications made to the MyClass.cs file are not included in the hotfix. What should you do? A. Run the tf checkin MyClass.cs command from the command-line after shelving the file without preserving changes locally. B. Run the tf checkin MyClass.cs command from the command-line and resolve conflicts by using the Merge tool. C. Run the tf checkin /validate MyClass.cs command from the command-line after shelving the file without preserving changes locally. D. Run the tf checkin /validate MyClass.cs command from the command-line and resolve conflicts by using the Merge tool. Answer: A Question 8. You have a project in Source Control in a folder named $/MyProject. The project has a subfolder named Images. A developer on your team is unable to get files from the $/MyProject folder. You need to ensure that the developer can get the files from the $/MyProject folder but not from the Images subfolder. What should you do? A. Remove the folder mapping for the $/MyProject folder. Add a folder mapping to $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Cloaked. B. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Active. Add a folder mapping to $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Cloaked. C. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Active. Add a folder mapping to $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Active. D. Change the setting of the $/MyProject folder to Cloaked. Add a folder mapping to $/MyProject/Images. Set the status to Active. Answer: B Question 9. Your company decides to integrate a task named Audit into a new development process methodology. To integrate the Audit task, you create a process template that contains the following structure: You need to ensure that the Audit task in the process template is present before the Build task and the Test task load. What should you do? A. Add a dependency element to the group elements for the Test task and the Build task that links the taskList element of the Audit group. B. Add a dependency element to the group elements for the Test task and the Build task that links the groupid attribute of the Audit group. C. Modify the process template to combine the Test task and the Build Task into one group element. Ensure that the first taskList element links the Audit.xml file to the filename attribute of the element. D. Modify the process template to use one group element. Ensure that the first taskList element links the Audit.xml file to the filename attribute of the element. Answer: B Question 10. All Team Foundation Server (TFS) projects use the MSF for Agile Software Development process template. Your company decides to create a custom process template that is based on an internal set of standards and practices. You need to install the new template on your TFS server. What should you do? A. Use the witimport command to import the process template. B. Use the TFSFieldMapping command to import the process template. C. Use the New Team Project Wizard to select the process template. D. Use the Process Template Manager dialog box in Team Explorer to import the process template. Answer: D Auditing Process template
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Question 1.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application stores real-time order information for small businesses. The number of orders ranges from a minimum of 0 to a maximum of 5000. You need to ensure that the application achieves optimum performance for any number of orders within the specified range.
Which class should you choose?
A. OrderedDictionary
B. HybridDictionary
C. ListDictionary
D. Hashtable
Answer: B
Question 2.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You are required to create custom data types that derive from a system type.
The system type must satisfy the following requirements:
Ensure the type safety of collections during compilation.
Improve the code readability of the application.
Minimize the potential for run-time errors.
You need to identify the system type that meets the outlined requirements.
Which system type should you choose?
A. Delegate type
B. Nullable type
C. Generic type
D. Value type
Answer: C
Question 3.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application uses a custom exception class named MyException that transmits stack information. The MyException class is derived from the Exception class. The application contains a method named ThrowException. You write the following code segment.
try { ThrowException(); }
The ThrowException method throws an exception of type MyException.
You need to rethrow the exception. You also need to preserve the stack information of previous exceptions.
Which code segment should you use?
A. catch ( MyException ex) {
throw new Exception( ex.Message );
}
B. finally {
throw new MyException();
}
C. catch {
throw;
}
D. catch (Exception ex) {
throw ex;
}
Answer: C
Question 4.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named InventoryManager. The InventoryManager class uses events to alert subscribers about changes in inventory levels. You need to create delegates in the InventoryManager class to raise events to subscribers.
Which code segment should you use?
A. public event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
public delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
(object source, EventArgs e);
B. private event InventoryChangeEventHandler OnInventoryChange;
private delegate void InventoryChangeEventHandler
(object source, EventArgs e);
C. public event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
public void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
this.OnInventoryChange();
}
D. private event EventHandler OnInventoryChange;
private void InventoryChangeHandler(object source, EventArgs e) {
this.OnInventoryChange();
}
Answer: A
Question 5.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased inventory application. The application must create reports that display inventory part numbers.
You need to write a method named WritePart that displays the part numbers in the following format:
A minimum of three digits to the left of the decimal point
Exactly two digits to the right of the decimal point
Left-aligned output
Which code segment should you use?
A. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
Console.WriteLine
("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.00", ci));
}
B. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
Console.WriteLine
("{0,-30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("000.##", ci));
}
C. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
Console.WriteLine
("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.##", ci));
}
D. public static void WritePart(IFormattable t, CultureInfo ci) {
Console.WriteLine
("{0,30}{1,30}", "Part:", t.ToString("###.00", ci));
}
Answer: A
Question 6.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application. The application uses a StringBuilder class to manipulate text.
You write the following code segment.
StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(100);
After the code segment is executed, the text buffer of the StringBuilder class displays the following text:
Microsoft Corporation, Redmond, WA.
You need to write a code segment to clear the text of the StringBuilder class.
Which code segment should you use?
A. sb.Capacity = 0;
B. sb.Length = 0;
C. sb.Replace(sb.ToString(), "", 0, 100);
D. sb.Remove(0, 100);
Answer: B
Question 7.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application will manage product inventory for retail stores. You are creating a class that will contain a method named Contains. The method will search for the items in the store. The items are of reference types and value types. You need to identify the code that uses the minimum amount of execution time for both reference types and value types.
Which code segment should you use?
A. public bool Contains(T[] array, T value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (EqualityComparer.Default.Equals(array[i], value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
B. public bool Contains(T[] array, object value) {
for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; i++) {
if (array.GetValue(i).Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
C. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj.Equals(value))
return true;
}
return false;
}
D. public bool Contains(IEnumerable array, object value) {
foreach (object obj in array) {
if (obj == value)
return true;
}
return false;
}
Answer: A
Question 8.
You are creating a Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. You create a class named Employee. You also create an Executive class, a Manager class, and a Programmer class. These three classes inherit from the Employee class. You need to create a custom type-safe collection that manages only those classes that are derived from the Employee class.
Which code segment should you choose?
A. class EmployeeCollection < T > : List < T >
B. class Emp l oyeeCollection < T > : ICollection
C. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:class
D. class EmployeeCollection < T > : CollectionBase where T:Employee
Answer: D
Question 9.
You are creating a multithreaded Microsoft Windows Mobilebased application. The application has two separate procedures. Each procedure must run on its own threads. public void ThreadProc1() { }
public void ThreadProc2() { }
ThreadProc1 must complete execution before ThreadProc2 begins execution.
You need to write the code segment to run both procedures.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
thread1.Join();
thread2.Start();
B. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
lock(thread1) {
thread1.Start();
...
}
thread2.Start();
C. Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Monitor.TryEnter(thread1);
thread2.Start();
Monitor.Exit(thread1);Reset Instructions Calculator
D. .Thread thread1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc1));
Thread thread2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(ThreadProc2));
thread1.Start();
...
Interlocked.Exchange(ref thread1, thread2);
thread2.Start();
Answer: A
Question 10.
You are creating a Microsoft .NET Compact Framework application.
You write the following code segment.
public class Target {
public void SetValue(int value) { }
}
You need to write a method named CallSetValue that calls the SetValue method by using late binding.
Which code segment should you use?
A. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
B. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(target, new object[] { value });
}
C. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("Target.SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}
D. public void CallSetValue(int value) {
Target target = new Target();
MethodInfo mi = target.GetType().GetMethod("SetValue");
mi.Invoke(value, null);
}
Answer: A
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