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I passed today and use only itcertkeys latest update.
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Question 1.
Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)
A. The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using "maintenance" at
the console login.
B. The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the
userid and password.
C. The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as
the userid and password.
D. The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin
as the userid and password.
E. The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default
as the userid and password.
Answer: A, D
Question 2.
Which two are valid ways to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Primary or a Secondary Node in a cluster of FirePass Controllers? (Choose two.)
A. Admin console / Application Access option is present.
B. Admin console / Network Access option is present.
C. Admin console / Clustering option is present.
D. Admin console / Clustering option absent.
E. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.
Answer: A, E
Question 3.
What answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?
NAPT - disabled, Client machine IP Address - 216.34.94.17 VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24 FirePass Interface Addresses – External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 - The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.
A. 216.34.94.17 -- 205.229.151.10
B. 104.21.47.12 -- 205.229.151.10
C. 104.21.47.12 -- 104.21.47.12
D. 216.34.94.17 -- 104.21.47.12
E. 216.34.94.17 -- 216.34.94.17
F. 205.229.151.10 -- 205.229.151.10
Answer: D
Question 4.
Which three are valid options for EndPoint security checks? (Choose three.)
A. file present
B. client network access speed
C. client MAC address
D. McAfee Antivirus running certain version of Scan Engine
E. processes present
Answer: A, D, E
Question 5.
Which five types of connections to application servers can be supported by the FirePass Application Access feature set? (Choose five.)
A. email access to Windows Exchange Server
B. X-windows access to Windows Server
C. Terminal Server access to Windows Terminal Server
D. X-windows access to Unix host
E. Terminal Server access to Citrix Server
F. ssh access to mainframe
G. ssh access to Unix host
Answer: A, C, D, E, G
Question 6.
Which two statements are true about Clustering on FirePass? (Choose two.)
A. The boxes are synched from Master to Secondary automatically every 10 to 30 seconds.
B. The boxes are synched from Master to Secondary manually by an Administrator.
C. If using failover pairs, the Standby Secondary boxes get their configuration from their Active
failover partner.
D. The boxes are synched from Secondary to Master automatically every 10 to 30 seconds.
E. The boxes are synched from Secondary to Master manually by an Administrator.
F. If using failover pairs, the Standby Secondary boxes get their configuration directly from the
Master box.
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
Which two settings can be configured by Group for a Network Access connection? (Choose two.)
A. Split Tunneling
B. FQDN for attached client machine
C. NAPT
D. Gateway
E. IP Address pool for client source addresses
Answer: A, E
Question 8.
Which two statements are true about the IP Address Pool for Network Access? (Choose two.)
A. Only one IP Address pool may be configured on the FirePass Controller.
B. The IP Address range for the pool must not include any of the configured FirePass interface
addresses.
C. The IP Address range for the pool must include one of the configured FirePass interface
addresses.
D. Different user groups may be configured to use different IP Address pools.
E. The IP Address range for the pool must include all of the configured FirePass interface
addresses.
Answer: B, D
Question 9.
Which three are valid Terminal Server configurations on FirePass? (Choose three.)
A. TN3270 connection for Mainframe
B. AppTunnel connection for Windows Terminal Server
C. Portal Access (no client download) connection for Citrix Server
D. Terminal Server connection for Citrix Metaframe
E. Web Application connection for Windows Terminal Server
F. Terminal Server connection for VNC
Answer: B, D, F
Question 10.
Which FirePass Admin navigation screen is correct for installing either a Client SSL Certificates or a Client Revocation List?
A. Device Management / Maintenance / Security / Certificates
B. Device Management / Security / CRL
C. Device Management / Install / Certificates
D. Device Management / Install / CRL
E. Device Management / Maintenance / Security / CRL
F. Device Management / Security / Certificates
Answer: F
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Question 1. The definitions on the left to the appropriate terms on the right Answer: Question 2. What will happen if you try to run a Cisco Security MARS query that will take a long time to complete? A. After submitting the query, the Cisco Security MARS GUI screen will be locked up until the query is completed. B. The query will be automatically saved as a rule. C. The query will be automatically saved as a report. D. You will be prompted to "Submit Batch" to run the query in batch mode. Answer: D Question 3. The Cisco Security MARS appliance supports which protocol for data archiving and restoring? A. NFS B. TFTP C. FTP D. Secure FTP E. SSH Answer: A Question 4. What is a benefit of using the dollar variable (as in $TARGET01) when creating queries in Cisco Security MARS? A. The dollar variable enables multiple queries to reference the same common 5-tuple information using a variable. B. The dollar variable ensures that the probes and attacks that are reported are happening to the same host. C. The dollar variable allows matching of any unknown reporting device. D. The dollar variable allows matching of any event type groups. E. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different reports. F. The dollar variable enables the same query to be applied to different cases. Answer: B Question 5. A Cisco Security MARS appliance cannot access certain devices through the default gateway. Troubleshooting has determined that this is a Cisco Security MARS configuration issue. Which additional Cisco Security MARS configuration will be required to correct this issue? A. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to enable a dynamic routing protocol B. use the Cisco Security MARS CLI to add a static route C. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI to configure multiple default gateways D. use the Cisco Security MARS GUI or CLI to configure multiple default gateways Answer: B Question 6. What are three ways to add devices to the Cisco Security MARS appliance? (Choose three.) A. import the devices from CiscoWorks B. import the devices from Cisco Security Manager C. load the devices from seed files D. use SNMP auto discovery E. use CDP to automatically discover the neighboring devices F. manually add the devices, one at a time Answer: C, D, F Question 7. Which action enables the Cisco Security MARS appliance to ignore false-positive events by either dropping the events completely, or by just logging them to the database? A. creating system inspection rules using the drop operation B. creating drop rules C. inactivating the rules D. inactivating the events E. deleting the false-positive events from the Incidents page F. deleting the false-positive events from the Event Management page Answer: Pending Question 8. Which three statements are true about Cisco Security MARS rules? (Choose three.) A. There are three types of rules. B. Rules can be saved as reports. C. Rules can be deleted. D. Rules trigger incidents. E. Rules can be defined using a seed file. F. Rules can be created using a query. Answer: B Question 9. Which of the following alert actions can be transmitted to a user as notification that a Cisco Security MARS rule has fired, and that an incident has been logged? (Choose two.) A. Distributed Threat Mitigation B. Short Message Service C. SNMP trap D. XML notification E. syslog F. OPSEC-LEA (clear and encrypted) Answer: A, D, F Question 10. To configure a Microsoft Windows IIS server to publish logs to the Cisco Security MARS, which log agent is installed and configured on the Microsoft Windows IIS server? A. pnLog agent B. Cisco Security MARS agent C. SNARE D. None. Cisco Security MARS is an agentless device. Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Exhibit: Which bridge or bridges in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: A, B Question 2. Which of the following would be used to apply the same policies to a group of BGP neighbors? A. route-reflector group B. Community group C. Confederation group D. Peer group Answer: D Question 3. Exhibit: Which port or ports in the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. R&D 20 D. HR e10 E. HR e11 F. HR e20 G. Distribution_2 e10 H. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: C,H Question 4. Exhibit: Which bridge in the exhibit will be a Non-Designated Bridge? A. R&D B. HR C. Distribution_1 D. Distribution_2 Answer: D Question 5. Exhibit: Which port or ports the exhibit will be blocked? A. R&D e3 B. R&D e1 C. HR e10 D. HR e11 E. Distribution_2 e10 F. Distribution_2 e1 Answer: A, D Question 6. Router ITCertKeys A has three iBGP peers: Router ITCertKeys 1 Router ITCertKeys 2 and Router ITCertKeys 3. Routers ITCertKeys 1, ITCertKeys 2, and ITCertKeys 3 are advertising the same destination networks. Router ITCertKeys 1 announces routes with the default local preference. Router ITCertKeys 2 announces the same routes with a local preference of 200. Router ITCertKeys 3 announces the same routes with a local preference of 1. Which path does Router ITCertKeys A take? A. Router ITCertKeys 1 B. Router ITCertKeys 2 C. Router ITCertKeys 3 D. not applicable, because local preference only applies to ebgp peers E. not applicable, because local preference only applies to local router Answer: C Question 7. A change in a route state, from up to down or down to up is called? A. route dampen B. port flap C. route flap D. port dampen Answer: C Question 8. What cli command shows the flap dampening statistics? A. show ip bgp summary B. show ip bgp neighborflap-summary C. show ip bgp neighbor flap-statistics D. show ip bgp neighbor route-flap Answer: C Question 9. What is the BGP4 state called when the router is waiting to start the BGP4 process? A. Admin B. Connect C. Active D. Idle E. Confirm F. Established Answer: D Question 10. Exhibit: What does the * in the status field of network 204.17.220.0/24 indicate? A. This is the best route to use B. This route is currently dampened and is unusable C. Has a history of flapping and is unreachable now D. Has a history of flapping but is currently usable Answer: D Question 11. Which of the following are advantages of Peer Groups? Choose all that apply. A. Allows resetting neighbor sessions on a Peer Group basis B. Simplifies neighbor configuration C. Route updates from one EBGP neighbor in a peer group can be passed to other EBGP neighbors in the same peer group D. Conserves memory Answer: A, B, D
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Question 1. Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.) A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page. B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page. C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page. D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page. Answer: B, C Question 2. Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check server connectivity? A. Events log B. System log C. User Access log D. Admin Access log Answer: A Question 3. Which statement is correct about defining an Intranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client? A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy. B. You must know the exact model number of the Intranet Enforcer. C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy. D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Intranet Enforcer will belong. Answer: A Question 4. Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Intranet Controller? A. VLAN ID B. Hostname C. Domain name D. Administrative timeout Answer: C Question 5. What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy? A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies C. to allow or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Intranet Controller Answer: B Question 6. What is true about the operation of the Intranet Enforcer? A. It assigns users a set of roles. B. It allows access based on auth table entries. C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements. D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources. Answer: B Question 7. On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Intranet Controller overwrite when the user accesses the Intranet Controller? (Choose three.) A. SSID B. login name C. MAC address D. wired adapters E. encryption method Answer: A, D, E Question 8. What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints? A. Intranet Enforcer firmware B. Intranet Controller rollback software C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP) D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP) Answer: D Question 9. Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.) A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement. B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query. C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter. D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries. E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link. Answer: A, B, E Question 10. A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and must choose a deployment method that everyone can use. Which deployment method allows for multiple platforms? A. IPsec enforcement B. 802.1X enforcement C. Source IP enforcement D. Odyssey Access Client Answer: C
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Question 1. A ScreenOS firewall has the correct interfaces addressed and active. A policy is written allowing interzone FTP traffic from a directly connected client. But the traffic does not cross the firewall from the client to the server. What is the most likely problem with the firewall? A. The ScreenOS firewall has no physical connection to the FTP server. B. The ALG option on the ScreenOS firewall has not been enabled for FTP traffic. C. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP servers' subnet. D. The ScreenOS firewall does not have a route defined to the FTP clients subnet. Answer: C Question 2. In the exhibit: Why is the packet dropped? A. interface down B. route not configured C. policy not configured D. denied by policy 1005 Answer: C Question 3. Which three options allow proper configuration of NAT-dst? (Choose three.) A. the default address book entry of "any" in the internal zone B. the default address book entry of "any" in the external zone C. a secondary address on one of the interfaces in the internal zone D. an address book entry for the address to be translated in the internal zone E. a static route to the appropriate subnet using a private interface as the outbound interface Answer: C, D, E Question 4. Which two statements are true in regards to a ScreenOS firewall in transparent mode? (Choose two.) A. VPNs can terminate to the VLAN1 interface IP address. B. Static routes must be configured if multiple virtual routers are going to be used. C. It can be installed in a network without the requirement to reconfigure IP addressing schemes. D. You must use the console port to manage the device as you cannot manage the device using an Ethernet port. Answer: A, C Question 5. What are three major concerns when sending private data over a public medium? (Choose three.) A. integrity B. authority C. capacity D. confidentiality E. authentication Answer: A, D, E Question 6. By default, from which hardware component is the startup copy of the ScreenOS loaded? A. NVRAM B. TFTP server C. internal flash D. PCMCIA card Answer: C Question 7. Which three must a policy contain? (Choose three.) A. action B. service C. address D. application E. policy name Answer: A, B, C Question 8. What is the default mode for an interface in the trust zone? A. NAT B. route C. Layer 2 D. Layer 3 E. transparent Answer: A Question 9. Which command is used to verify IKE Phase 1 is complete? A. get sa active B. get ike active C. get ike cookie D. get flow active Answer: C Question 10. When managing a ScreenOS device using the WebUI and performing an image upgrade, from which hardware component will the ScreenOS image be loaded? A. TFTP server B. PC local disk C. internal flash D. Compact Flash Card Answer: B
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Question 1. You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries. How do you proceed? A. Enable split tunneling. B. Disable split tunneling. C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor. D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor. Answer: D Question 2. Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.) A. NIS B. ACE C. SAML D. LDAP E. SiteMinder Answer: A, B, D Question 3. You create a set of role mapping rules. You select "Merge settings for all assigned roles." The second role mapping rule has the "Stop processing rules when this rule matches" option selected. A user logs in that matches the first three rules. What happens? A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the configuration. B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging follows the standard merging criteria. C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE's built-in permissive merging rules. D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined by the second role. Answer: C Question 4. When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback addresses are assigned correctly? A. HOSTS file B. ARP cache C. LMHOSTS file D. local route table Answer: A Question 5. What is Cache Cleaner used for? A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions Answer: B Question 6. Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from different source IP addresses within the same user session? A. roaming session B. persistent session C. persistent password caching D. browser request follow-through Answer: A Question 7. Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.) A. Web Proxy Policies B. Web Proxy Servers C. Web Cache Policies D. Web Passthrough Proxy Answer: A, B Question 8. Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.) A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC. B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection. C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections. D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections. Answer: C, D Question 9. You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.) A. Certificate B. User Attribute C. RSA Attributes D. Group Membership Answer: A, B Question 10. Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network? A. behind the Internet firewall B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside Answer: A
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Question 1.
One of your ITCertKeys.com co-workers, Tim, is working to define and develop Financial Statement Generator reports where the budget amounts and actual amounts would display on the report per period. Tim comes to you and says that he has defined an FSG report according to the client's requirements; the actual amounts are correctly shown, but the problem is that budget amounts are not showing up on the report.
What is your response?
A. Budget status is Frozen.
B. The budget name needs to be associated with the row set through control values.
C. There is some issue with the assignment of accounts to the budget organization.
D. The first fiscal year of the budget was never opened.
E. The last fiscal year of the budget is Closed.
Answer: B
Question 2.
Jason, the corporate controller of ITCertKeys.com where you are implementing Oracle General Ledger, Accounts Payable, an Accounts Receivable, is very excited about the Global Intercompany System (GIS). He wrote some notes from a conversation with his accounting manager about GIS. He wants you to validate which points he has written down about GIS are true. Identify Jason's three correct points. (Choose three.)
A. GIS enables intercompany transactions to be approved after transfer from AP and AR.
B. Unlike intercompany accounting within the same set of books, GIS only works between sets of books but not within the same set of books.
C. Intercompany journals are created automatically as soon as they are approved.
D. You can set up GIS so that the sender's transactions do not need to be approved by the receiver.
E. If a sender approves the transaction but the receiver rejects it, the transaction is recalled.
F. Each company that uses GIS must be set up as a subsidiary that is associated with a balancing segment value.
G. You can optionally send notifications to a defined user or responsibility when an intercompany transaction is initiated.
Answer: D, F, G
Question 3.
One of ITCertKeys.com's clients wants the ability to report with Financial Statements Generator (FSG) and perform account inquiry at the summary (business unit) level of its Cost Center segment. A business unit is a group of cost centers and a business unit manager typically has several cost centers under his or her responsibility.
Which option will meet the client's requirements?
A. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers, and Summary Accounts. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts.
B. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the Rollup Groups.
C. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Create Summary Accounts based on the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
D. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Rollup Groups for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values.
E. Define parent cost centers and a hierarchy of parent-child cost centers. Define Summary Accounts for the parent cost centers. Create FSG based on the parent cost center values or Summary Accounts.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which report would provide information about the processing type (parallel or sequential) that may be defined for reports?
A. Report Detail Listing
B. Content Set Summary Listing
C. Row Set Summary Listing
Answer: B
Question 5.
After you determine your needs and organize your summary account structure, which General Ledger tools can you use to define parent-child values and rollup groups?
A. Analyzer Hierarchies, Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided
Applications Desktop Integrator is installed).
B. Mass Maintenance, Analyzer Hierarchies, or Account Hierarchy Manager
C. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Manager
D. Mass Maintenance or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed).
E. Account Hierarchy Manager or Account Hierarchy Editor (provided Applications Desktop Integrator is installed).
Answer: E
Question 6.
The Consolidation Workbench enables you to _____, _____, and _____. (Choose three.)
A. access the State Controller
B. create consolidations sets, which launch multiple consolidations in a single step
C. create multilevel hierarchies, which you can view using the graphical Consolidation Hierarchy
Viewer
D. change the chart of accounts
Answer: A, B, C
Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com wants to define a consolidation process for its enterprise. It has two sets of books: Set of Books A and Set of Books B. Both sets of books will use Oracle General Ledger. Set of Books A has three companies with the same calendar and chart of accounts as Set of Books B. Set of Books A has USD as its currency. Set of Books B has four companies with the same chart of accounts and calendar as Set of Books A. Set of Books B has GPD as its currency.
Select the consolidation method.
A. Interface Data Transformer
B. Global Intercompany System
C. Oracle Financial Analyzer
D. Financial Statement Generator
Answer: D
Question 8.
You are implementing Oracle General Ledger at ITCertKeys.coms site. ITCertKeys.com is based in the US but has a global presence in many countries worldwide, and has transactions in multiple currencies. The implementation team decides that GL multi currency setup will be part of the implementation. The GL accountant approaches you to discuss multiple reporting currencies (MRC); he wants to implement MRC and link the primary set of books with the reporting set of books. Additionally, he says that the primary and reporting sets of books all have different calendars but share the same chart of accounts.
What response do you provide?
A. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar and chart of accounts.
B. There is no problem in satisfying this requirement.
C. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same currency and chart of accounts.
D. The primary and reporting set of books must share the same calendar, currency and chart of accounts.
Answer: A
Question 9.
ITCertKeys.com is a $2 million company operating from the U.S., and has one set of books. It is spinning off from its parent company and will be operating as an independent company. It is considering implementing Oracle Financials but wants the product to work exactly in the same way as its legacy systems from its parent company.
What considerations should be presented to ABC in order for it to make a well-informed decision? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Patching is simplified on a non-customized Oracle implementation.
B. Adding customizations to replicate the legacy system could increase cost of future upgrades.
C. Integration issues between modules are reduced when there are no customizations.
D. No information can be interfaced from the legacy system to the product.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 10.
Identify the two setups that control the defaulting of Tax Information on a journal entry. (Choose two.)
A. Set of Books
B. Journal categories
C. Account
Answer: A, C
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Question 1.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com has headquarters in London and branch offices in Paris, Minsk, and Athens. The CIO of ITCertKeys.com has sent a manager named Andy Reid to work in the office of Paris. Andy Reid has taken with him the Windows XP Professional Full PaITKaged Product (FPP). Accompanying the FPP is a Microsoft Select License for the installation of Windows XP Professional.
At Paris Andy Reid wants install Windows XP Professional on a laptop. Andy Reid uses the installation media in the Product Fulfillment kit with the Microsoft Select License for the installation. Andy Reid then contacts you to state his problem "a screen requires the input of a product license key". Andy Reid wants to know which product key he should use.
What should you tell him?
A. The FPP product key
B. The VLK product key
C. A product key that is acquired by the security Web site.
D. Use the product key printed on a stiITKer at the bottom of the laptop.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you want to license Windows XP Professional, you should use the Volume Product License Key (VLK).
Incorrect answer:
A: The FPP is used to install media which is provided in an FPP.
C: If you make use of the security website, you or Andy Reid will violate the Microsoft License agreement.
D: The Windows XP Professional product key which is on the laptop is intended only for the installation of Windows XP Professional on the system to which the stiITKer is attached.
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Rory Allen complains that he is unable to join the ITCertKeys.com domain with his Windows XP computer. You tell Rory Allen to ping a domain controller in ITCertKeys.com, which was successful.
What should you tell him to do next?
A. Rory Allen should verify the domain mode.
B. Rory Allen should verify the operating system version.
C. Rory Allen should verify the hardware compatibility.
D. Rory Allen should verify the network connectivity.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional can join a Windows Server 2003 domain, not the Windows XP Home Edition. This is the difference if the two operating systems.
Incorrect answer:
A: It is not needed to make sure of the domain mode because Windows XP Professional cam interoperate with Windows Server 2003.
C, D: The hardware compatibility or the network connectivity his not the problem. It states in the scenario that Rory Allen did ping the domain which was successful.
Question 3.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Mia Hamm works in the Sales department. Due to volume of work, Mia Hamm needs her computer every minute. One morning Mia Hamm came to you and said that she needs the latest versions of the security patches from Microsoft. Mia Hamm wants the update to be installed without intervention from her.
What should you tell Mia Hamm to do?
A. Use Software Update Services (SUS).
B. Use the Windows Update.
C. Use Automatic Updates.
D. Use Windows Unattended Installation.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mia Hamm should use the Automatic Updates. She can schedule the update to run after hours.
Incorrect answer:
A: SUS uses a local Windows Update Server. The question doesn't say ITCertKeys.com has a SUS server.
B: If Mia Hamm is going to use Windows Updates, she has to manually download and install the updates.
D: The Unattended Installation will allow her to install Windows XP Professional without doing anything. It is not used to download and install updates every day.
Question 4.
You work as the administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,300 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Accounting. Due to the growth of the Sales department, ITCertKeys.com will hire another 100 employees over the next month.
The CIO acquires 100 new Windows XP Professional computers which will be added to the ITCertKeys.com network. Amy Walsh is a new employee in the Sales department. You install Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS271 for Amy Walsh. You need to ensure that Amy Walsh can use her ITCertKeys -WS271 for at least three years. You also want to send Microsoft information about ITCertKeys.com.
What should you do?
A. Register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271.
B. Activate and register the operating system on ITCertKeys -WS271 during the installation process.
C. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press F8 during the boot process.
D. Reboot on ITCertKeys -WS271 after installation and press DEL or F2 during the boot process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you register the computer, Microsoft will have information about the company and if you activate the operating system, it will continue after 30 days.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Registering will not allow the computer to stop with Windows XP Professional. You need to activate the operating system.
C: If you press F8 when the operating system is rebooting, it will display the Boot Menu with options such as Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Network support etc.
D: If you press the DEL of F2 key, it will display the CMOS setup program.
Question 5.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. ITCertKeys.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. ITCertKeys.com consists of a Sales department and a Marketing department. The Marketing department is in Chicago and the Sales department is in Dallas. A ITCertKeys.com employee named Amy Wilson works in the Sales department. She wants to install Windows XP Professional on a system in the Dallas office without the risk of infection of a worm or virus before the completion of the installation. Amy Wilson also wants File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks to be disabled.
What should Amy Wilson do?
A. In the Setup Wizard, use the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
B. In the Setup Wizard, use the Typical settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box.
C. In the Setup program, use the Advance Options on the Install Options page.
D. Disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the Custom settings option of the Networking Settings dialog box, Amy Wilson can disable the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks. This setting is usually enabled by default.
Incorrect answer:
B: If she uses the Typical setting, the option will be enabled.
C: You only use the Advance Options on the Install Options page to identify the location of the setup files; select disk partitions; etc.
D: There is no need to disconnect the Network Interface Card (NIC) from the Ethernet cable, the File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks will be installed by default.
Question 6.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth tries to install is Windows XP Professional on a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS277. ITCertKeys -WS277 is currently running Microsoft Windows 98. When Andy Booth inserts the Windows XP Professional CD into the CD-ROM drive and reboots ITCertKeys -WS277, Windows 98 loads instead of the Windows XP Professional setup program. Andy Booth wants to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS277 will load the Windows XP Professional setup program.
What should Andy Booth do?
A. Create a MS-DOS with the Add or Remove Programs, boot the computer with the disk and
change to the CD-ROM drive and run winnt32.exe.
B. Remove the drive with the Windows 98 files in the System utility.
C. Create the installation disks with WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe, and boot from the disk.
D. Enter the BIOS setup program and change the boot order for the CD-ROM drive to be cheITKed first.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Andy Booth should change the starting order so that the computer cheITKs the CD-ROM first. When a computer starts, it will cheITK for the startup files on the hard drive. By changing it to cheITK the CD-ROM first, it will then find the Windows XP's startup files.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If he creates a MS-DOS disk, he should use the winnt.exe and not the winnt32.exe.
B: You cannot configure the boot order with the System utility.
C: WinXP_EN_PRO_BF.exe is used to install the correct drivers for a Windows XP installation. It is not used to create an installation disk.
Question 7.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains ten Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,200 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Sales, Marketing, and Finance. ITCertKeys.com intends to hire another 50 employees over the next 3 months. The new employees will be assigned to the Sales department. The company has purchased 50 new client computers that will be issued to the new employees.
You are required to install Windows XP Professional as well as a standard set of applications on the new client computers. All the hardware on the new client computers appears on the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). You install Windows XP Professional on one of the new client computers named ITCertKeys -WS102. However, once the installation is complete ITCertKeys -WS102 fails to start and you receive a "STOP INACCESSIBLE BOOT DEVICE" error message. You need to ensure that ITCertKeys -WS102 can start properly.
What should you do?
A. In the system BIOS, disable UDMA for the primary hard disk.
B. Use the Recovery Console and run the Fixboot and Fixmbr commands.
C. In the system BIOS, disable all PIO modes for the primary hard disk.
D. In the system BIOS, disable the virus scanning software.
Answer: B
Explanation:
FIXBOOT is used to write a new boot sector onto the computer's system partition and FIXMBR is used to repair the MBR of the computer's boot partition.
Incorrect answer:
A, C: UDMA and PIO are automatically set at boot time. This will have no effect on the booting of the system.
D: To disable the virus scanning option will not interfere during the installation. It will have no effect on the booting of the system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 657
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 9
Question 8.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com consists of three departments, named Research, Marketing, and Accounting. Amy Walsh is the manager of the Research department. She currently uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS129. ITCertKeys.com purchases a new computer named ITCertKeys -WS200 for Amy Walsh. ITCertKeys -WS200 has two hard drives that are connected to an ISA SCSI adapter and an IDE CD-ROM drive.
You have been instructed to install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS200. You decide to install Windows XP Professional from the Windows XP Professional installation CD. You configure ITCertKeys -WS200 to boot from the CD-ROM and attempt to install Windows XP Professional. However, the installation fails and you receive an error message stating that Setup cannot locate any hard disks on ITCertKeys -WS200. You need to ensure that you can install Windows XP Professional successfully on ITCertKeys -WS200.
What should you do?
A. During the installation, provide the SCSI adapter driver when prompted.
B. In the system BIOS, assign an IRQ for a PCI video adapter.
C. Replace the multi syntax with scsi syntax in the Boot.ini file.
D. Ensure that the SCSI bus is properly terminated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Windows XP Professional installation does not recognize the SCSI adapter. You should restart Setup and press F6 when prompted. You then should press S and provide the SCSI adapter driver on a floppy disk.
Incorrect answer:
B: Windows Plug and Play would assign the video card an available IRQ.
C: According to the scenario the set up has failed immediately. TheBoot.ini is created when it is close to the first reboot.
D: This could potentially be a cause of the problem; however, it is far more likely to be a driver issue. If the bus wasn't properly terminated, you would get an error during the POST process before the installation starts.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 106
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 4
Question 9.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows 2000 Professional. ITCertKeys.com includes a Finance department. ITCertKeys.com has just acquired a new computer for an employee named Andy Reid. You set the BIOS for the following boot sequence: CD-ROM, Floppy disk drive and Hard disk. You then boot the computer from the Windows XP Professional installation CD-ROM. When you reboot he computer after the Windows XP installation, you insert a CD-ROM and install TechNet with the Minimum setup option. There after you insert a floppy disk and install the latest video driver.
When the computer again reboots it displays the following error message:
Non-system disk or disk error. Replace and press any key to continue. You need to start the computer with the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Remove the floppy disk and press SPACEBAR.
B. Start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver.
C. Remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR.
D. Set the CD-ROM as the last device in the boot order.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should remove a floppy disk and then press the SPACEBAR. If it is not a bootable disk then the computer will show an error message.
Incorrect answer:
B: It is not needed to start in Safe Mode and uninstall the video driver. With a floppy disk in a floppy disk drive, you will not be able to restart in Safe Mode.
C: It is not needed to remove the CD-ROM from the drive and press SPACEBAR. Th4e drive will determine that the CD-ROM is not bootable.
D: There is no need to change the boot sequence because the CD-ROM is not bootable.
Question 10.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains 20 Windows 2000 Server computers and 1,600 Windows 2000 Professional client computers. ITCertKeys.com is in the process of upgrading the client computers to Windows XP Professional. You want to use cloning to deploy Windows XP Professional to the client computers in the Marketing Department. You install a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS240 in your test lab and install Windows XP Professional on ITCertKeys -WS240. You then install the required applications on ITCertKeys -WS240 and configure the computer. After ensuring that ITCertKeys -WS240 performs as expected, you log onto the computer as the local Administrator. However, when you attempt to run sysprep.exe at the command prompt, sysprep.exe does not execute.
What is the most probable cause of this problem?
A. The disk drive on ITCertKeys -WS240 has multiple partitions. Sysprep can only clone a single partition.
B. The sysprep files are not in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
C. To run the sysprep utility, you must be a member of the Domain Admins group.
D. The partitions on ITCertKeys -WS240 are formatted with FAT32.
Answer: B
Explanation:
For Sysprep.exe to run you need the following files Sysprep.exe, Setupcl.exe and Sysprep.inf on a floppy disk or in the systemdrive\sysprep directory.
Incorrect answer:
A: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
C: Not only the Domain Admins group has that privilege, but the administrator account has also sufficient privileges to run Sysprep.exe.
D: Sysprep.exe can work on any Windows file system.
Reference:
Lisa Donald & James Chellis, MCSA/MCSE: Windows XP Professional Study Guide; Third Edition, Sybex Inc., Alameda, 2005, p. 62
Melissa Craft & Don Poulton, Exam Prep 2: Windows XP Professional, Que Publications, Indianapolis, 2005, Chapter 2
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Question 1.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. A ITCertKeys.com user named Kara Lang uses a Windows XP Professional client computer named ITCertKeys -WS273. Kara Lang uses Microsoft Outlook 2002 to send e-mail messages. Kara Lang wants ITCertKeys -WS273 to be configured to view Microsoft Outlook shortcuts on the left side of the Microsoft Outlook window when ever she is busy with e-mail messages.
Which option should be used on the View menu of Microsoft Outlook?
A. Kara Lang should use the Outlook Bar option.
B. Kara Lang should use the Folder List option.
C. Kara Lang should use the Preview Pane option.
D. Kara Lang should use the Auto Preview option.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Outlook Bar option in the View menu will display Outlook shortcuts on the left side when creating an e-mail message.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Folder List option controls whether the Folder List is displayed in Outlook.
C: The Preview Pane option shows the content of the e-mail messages that will appear at the bottom of the Outlook screen.
D: The Auto Preview option controls what kind of view you want, maybe a small preview of each e-mail message.
Question 2.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. Ally Wagner is the CEO of ITCertKeys.com and uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS272. You have been instructed to add a new personal folder to Microsoft Outlook 2002 for Ally Wagner.
What should you do?
A. In Outlook 2002, select Toolbars from the View menu. Then click the New button.
B. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. On the Outlook Data Files dialog box, click the Close button.
C. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. On the Outlook Data Files dialog box, click the Add button. Then click the OK button twice.
D. In Outlook 2002, select Data File Management from the File menu. Then click the Open Folder button. In the Open Outlook Data File window, click the Outlook data file and then click OK twice.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If Ally Wagner click File, click New, click Outlook data file and then click the OK button twice; it will create a new Outlook personal folder file.
Incorrect Answers :
A: Click View and then click Outlook Bar in the View menu; will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
B: Click File and click Data File Management and then click the Close button, will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
D: Click File, click Open, click Outlook data file and then click the file in the Open Outlook Data File window and click OK twice; will not create a new Outlook personal folder file.
Question 3.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. Andy Reid is the manager of the Finance department at ITCertKeys.com. Andy Reid needs to send a confidential report to members of the board. Andy Reid attempts to encrypt the message to ensure that no unauthorized recipients can read the e-mail. He encrypts a test message and sends it to his secretary. However, the secretary reports that the message was not encrypted. Andy Reid contacts you for assistance. He wants to ensure that he can send encrypted e-mail messages.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain a digital ID from the Exchange Server.
B. Instruct Andy Reid to use NTFS file encryption.
C. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain an encrypted e-mail message from the Exchange Server.
D. Instruct Andy Reid to obtain an encryption algorithm from the Exchange Server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
For Andy Reid to send encrypted e-mail messages, he should get a digital ID from the Exchange server.
Incorrect Answers :
B: NTFS file encryption can be used to encrypt files on an NTFS partition. It cannot be used to encrypt email messages.
C: Obtaining an encrypted e-mail message will not allow Andy Reid to encrypt his own messages.
D: Andy Reid does not need an encryption algorithm to send encrypted messages.
Question 4.
You work as a desktop support technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.
A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth uses a client computer named ITCertKeys -WS270. Andy Booth uses Microsoft Outlook 2003 to send e-mail messages to users on the ITCertKeys.com network. Some of the messages Andy Booth sends contain critical information. Andy Booth wants to ensure that only authorized recipients can read his e-mail messages. He also wants the recipients of his e-mail messages to be warned if the message was tampered with enroute to the recipient's inbox.
What should Andy Booth do?
A. He should create a rule in Microsoft Outlook.
B. He should compress and then encrypt his e-mail messages.
C. He should use Antivirus software to scan all outgoing e-mail messages.
D. He should encrypt and digitally sign his e-mail messages.
E. He should use a firewall.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Andy Booth should use encryption and digital signatures. Encryption is used to encrypt the messages and the digital signatures are used to allow the receiver to read the content.
Incorrect Answers :
A: Rules are applied to incoming e-mail messages. They are not used to secure outgoing messages.
B: A file cannot be compressed and encrypted at the same time.
C: Scanning outgoing e-mail messages for virus does not ensure that only authorized users can read the e-mail.
E: Firewall provides paITKet-filtering for traffic entering a network. It does not secure e-mail messages.
Question 5.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Mia Hamm is a member of the Research department. One morning Mia Hamm complains that the dictionary does not contain several industry-specific words that are used in her Microsoft Word document. Mia Hamm wants Microsoft Word to automatically recognize these words when they are spelled correctly, rather than highlighting them as misspelled words.
What should you do to ensure that Word does not highlight these industry-specific words are misspelled?
A. Right-click the Spelling & Grammar Status icon at the bottom of the Word window.
Select Options from the context menu. Then click the Check Document button.
B. Create a text file that contains the desired words. Open the Options dialog box. Then specify the text file's location in the Tools path on the File Location tab.
C. Open the Options dialog box. Ensure that the Suggest from the main dictionary only check box is selected on the Spelling & Grammar tab.
D. Open the Options dialog box. Create a custom dictionary. Then right-click the desired words in a document and select Add to Dictionary from the context menu.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question tests your knowledge of how Word handles words not found in its main dictionary. There is no way to know this other than to do it. The answer listed is the correct way to do this. Microsoft creates a custom.dic file for you when Word is installed. This is the custom dictionary file.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There is no such icon as "Spelling and Grammar Status." Even if there were, clicking Check Document will only compare the words in the document against the main dictionary file. Since the custom words did not appear in the main dictionary, they will still show up as misspelled.
B: There is no way to specify a custom dictionary from the File Location tab. This tab is for items such as save location, template location, etc. Below is the File Location tab for Office 2003, but office XP is exactly the same:
C: Ensuring that the Check from main dictionary only checkbox is checked is the exact opposite
of what needs to be done. If this box is checked, Word will never check for any documents
outside of the main dictionary, and the industry specific words will always be marked as
incorrect even if a custom dictionary is specified.
Question 6.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Kara Lang is a member of the Research department. Kara Lang complains that when she scrolls through a Microsoft Word document that contains graphics, the graphics display becomes corrupted.
What should you do first to ensure that the graphics do not appear corrupted when Kara Lang scrolls through Word documents?
A. Create a new user profile.
B. Reduce the Display settings to 256 colors.
C. Adjust the mouse pointer acceleration to a lower setting.
D. Adjust the hardware accelerator of the video adapter to a lower setting.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The settings are configured to rely too much on the processor on the graphics card which seems to be a little too weak for the current settings. Adjust graphics hardware acceleration by clicking Start, point to Settings, and then click Control Panel. Double-click Display. On the Settings tab, click Advanced. Click the Troubleshoot tab. Move the Hardware Acceleration slider two notches to the left of Full (the Disable all cursor and advanced drawing accelerations setting). Click OK, and then click OK again.
Question 7.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Rory Allen is a member of the Sales department. Rory Allen complains that Office applications display animated characters when he accesses Help. Rory Allen wants Office to permanently stop displaying the Help character.
What should you instruct Rory Allen do to configure Office so that the character is no longer displayed?
A. Right-click the character and select Hide.
B. Delete the Microsoft Agent DLL file located in the Windows System32 folder.
C. Select Hide the Office Assistant from the Help menu in each Office application.
D. Right-click the character and select Options from the context menu. Then clear the Use the Office Assistant check box.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Office Assistant is a feature included in Microsoft Office starting with Microsoft Office 97, and has been dubbed "Clippy" or "Clippit" after its default animated paperclip representation. However, Clippit is actually the default assistant's official name. Right-clicking on the character and selecting Hide will only remove the assistant temporarily. Manually removing .dll files from the system is never a good way to solve a problem as this could cause more problems. Selecting Hide the Office Assistant from the Help menu is the same action as right-clicking on the assistant and selecting Hide. Clearing the Use the Office Assistant from the Options menu when right-clicking the assistant is the correct way to permanently remove the Office Assistant.
Question 8.
You work as the network administrator at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network consists of a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows Server 2003. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional and Microsoft Office XP. A ITCertKeys.com user named Andy Booth is a member of the Research and Development department. One morning Andy Booth complains that he receives a document containing mechanical drawings for a new design, but the document will not open on his computer.
What should you do to ensure that Andy Booth can open the document?
A. Open the document by using the Windows Photo and Fax Viewer.
B. Open a new Microsoft Paint document. Drag the file into the paint document.
C. Open a new Microsoft Word document. Drag the file into the new Word document.
D. Download and install the Microsoft Visio Viewer from the Microsoft Office Download Center Web Site.
Answer: D
Explanation:
.vsd files are created in Microsoft Visio. Microsoft offers free of charge a Microsoft Visio Viewer that allows anyone to view Visio drawings and diagrams inside their Microsoft Internet Explorer version 5.0 or later Web browser.
Question 9.
HOTSPOT
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Desktop Support team which you are part of. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Ally Wagner has contacted you. Ally Wagner has upgraded her computer from Microsoft Windows 98 to Microsoft Windows XP Professional. Ally Wagner has now a problem; she cannot run the accounting application that she used before the upgrade.
You tell Ally Wagner to run the application in Windows 98 mode, but she does not know how to implement the change. In the exhibit, what should Ally Wagner do?
Answer:
Explanation:
On the application Property dialog box, the Compatibility tab is used to select the operating mode.
Question 10.
You work as a desktop technician at ITCertKeys.com. The ITCertKeys.com network contains a single Active Directory domain named ITCertKeys.com. All servers on the ITCertKeys.com network run Windows 2000 Server and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. ITCertKeys.com contains a Desktop Support team which you are part of. A ITCertKeys.com customer named Kara Lang has contacted you. Kara Lang has upgraded her second computer from Microsoft Windows 98 to Microsoft Windows XP Home. She needs to use a financial application that does not run on Windows XP Home. On her other computer she used to configure the application to run on Windows XP in Windows 98 mode. Kara Lang cannot remember how to invoke the necessary tool.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Kara Lang to open Component Services.
B. Instruct Kara Lang to open Computer Management.
C. Instruct Kara Lang to open the executable's Properties dialog box.
D. Instruct Kara Lang to open the Upgrade Advisor.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The executable's Properties dialog box will allow Kara Lang to choose the operating system for the financing application to run.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Component Services will allow the user to configure software component, not application compatibility settings.
B: The Computer Management will allow the user to configure device drivers, format hard drives etc.
D: The Upgrade Advisor is run before an upgrade.
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