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Question 1.
In order to delete a document routing definition, which of the following privileges is required?
A. Item Delete
B. Client Delete
C. Item Delete Part
D. Client Delete Base Part
Answer: A
Question 2.
Two users, A and B, who belong to the same Access Control List (abACL), attempt to delete an item.
Only user A is able to perform this action.
Which of the following is the most likely reason that user B is unable to delete the item?
A. User B has the Item Delete privilege.
B. User A does not have the Item Delete privilege.
C. abACL (which binds at item level) has Item Delete privilege for user A.
D. User B has Item Delete privilege in their user profile but abACL (which binds at item level) has
Item Delete privilege for user A only.
Answer: D
Question 3.
To fulfill a request for an object from the Resource Manager, a security token is required for which of the following Content Manager clients?
A. The eClient
B. The Client for Windows
C. Both the Client for Windows and the eClient
D. Neither the eClient or the Client for Windows
Answer: C
Question 4.
Which of the following variables in the icmrm.properties file specifies the location of the TSM API options file?
A. DSMI_DIR
B. DSMI_CONFIG
C. TSM_API_OPT
D. DSMI_API_OPT
Answer: B
Question 5.
Which of the following actions is NOT necessary in setting up a primary resource manager RM1 and its replica REP1?
A. Add REP1 server information to RM1.
B. Create collections on both RM1 and REP1.
C. Define both RM1 and REP1 to the same library server.
D. Specify the item types on RM1 to be replicated to REP1.
Answer: D
Question 6.
A user given the System Define SMS Call privilege has the authority to perform which of the following tasks on the resource manager?
A. Create SMS collections only
B. Update SMS collections only
C. Create and update SMS collections only
D. Create, update, and delete SMS collections
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which of the following assignments are available in a Storage System?
A. Error, offline, online, standby
B. Error, offline, online, mirrored
C. Assigned, offline, overflow, unassigned
D. Activated, backup, deactivated, error
Answer: C
Question 8.
What is the minimum unit of measurement for retention of objects in a storage class?
A. Day
B. Hour
C. Week
D. Minute
Answer: A
Question 9.
A collection point provides which of the following functions?
A. Defines the data storage volumes for document routing folders and folder items.
B. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node
after administrator approval.
C. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. The types of documents collected are
specifically determined by the business task. The collected documents are automatically sent
to the next defined work node.
D. Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node
after a folder has collected the required number of documents or sets a notification flag if the
time allotted to wait for the required documents has expired.
Answer: D
Question 10.
In a system that uses DB2 Information Integrator for Content and Workflow, how can a user be deleted from Workflow that has already been deleted in DB2 Information Integrator for Content?
A. Run the EIPUser2WF.bat to delete the users from Workflow.
B. Run the fmcibie utility to delete users and user groups from Workflow.
C. Add the deleted persons to the Delete Persons.fdl file and restart the Workflow service.
D. These users are always synchronized and therefore will never have to delete users directly
from Workflow.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which item type classification does NOT allow text searching on the content of a text document?
A. Item
B. Document
C. Resource
D. Document Part
Answer: A
Question 12.
A solutions integrator has been asked to extract administrative metadata in XML format from DB2 Content Manager in a custom application.
Which of the following approaches is the simplest solution to accomplish this task?
A. Use the DKXML Sys Admin Service service class in the XML Java API.
B. Use the XML Schema Mapping tool to export the XML data to a file.
C. Use the DK Admin Data class to extract the data inside a C++ program.
D. Write a custom administrative user exit to export the XML data to a file.
Answer: A
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Question 1.
The customer activates a VSAN for a new open system environment on the MDS-series switch.
What is the EMC recommended default zoning policy for the VSAN?
A. Deny - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
B. Permit - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
C. Permit - allows all ports in default zone to communicate with on another
D. Deny - prevents all ports in the default zone from communicating
Answer: D
Question 2.
What are two [2] key features of Storage Management Interface (SMI)?
A. Automated discovery system
B. Common interoperable and statically management transport
C. Manually discovery system
D. Common interoperable and extensible management transport
Answer: A, D
Question 3.
The redraw time of the alerts window pane in ControlCenter takes several minutes to complete.
What do you recommend to fix this problem?
A. Edit the Alert Data Collection Policies
B. Edit the Alert Definition
C. Edit the Alert Templates
D. Edit the Alert Data Retention
Answer: D
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
A customer has new DS-4100B switches. They want to turn on reporting levels of severity for messages.
Match the message to the corresponding severity level.
Answer:
Question 5.
Your company is planning to convert seven DS-32B2 standalone fabrics to a single full ISLs?
A. 112
B. 14
C. 84
D. 28
Answer: C
Question 6.
A customer has implemented a DR site 200 km away. They have an extended fabric configured between the SAN directors at each site, using a 62.5 MB/sec network infrastructure. They want to replicate mission critical data with a RPO objective of 60 seconds using SRDF and the existing SAN infrastructure.
What do you recommend to help them meet their objective?
A. They cannot meet these objectives using the existing environment
B. Add additional ISL bandwidth between directors
C. Add extended buffer credit licenses to all directors
D. SRDF/A for data replication
Answer: D
Question 7.
Exhibit:
When reviewing the print out of the trunking log in the exhibit you see the ISL rerouting.
How many ISL connections are between Domain ID 5 and Domain ID 6?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B
Question 8.
A company is replacing some M-series switches with new M-series directors. They will be replacing one for one, and want the least amount of disruption for their AIX and HP-UX boxes by maintaining their D_IDs.
How do they do this?
A. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
B. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Reboot servers
C. Set the different domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Set Persistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on the old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
D. Set the same domain IDs as the old switches on the new directors
Disable Insistent Domain_ID on new directors and turn it off on old switches
Move host and storage ports and merge
Answer: A
Question 9.
Two MDS-series fabrics, Fabric X and Fabric Y will be merged. Fabric X has one switch
A. Fabric Y has three switches B, C and D. The four switches are configured as domain-id preferred. Among the four switches, A has the highest priority and least WWN, C has the lowest priority, and D is the current principle switch in Fabric Y. Assume both fabrics will be merged without any conflicts.
Which switch will be the principle switch after the merge?
A. Switch B
B. Switch A
C. Switch D
D. Switch C
Answer: C
Question 10.
What is a valid FCID for a node connected to a MDS-series director in a fabric consisting of MDS-series, B-series and M-series switches?
A. 0x441111
B. 0x663333
C. 0x552222
D. 0x330000
Answer: B
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