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Question 1.
What are the MOST effective tools to analyze ISHO failures?
A. OSS applications, drive test tool (UE) and planning system.
B. Drive test tool (UE), protocol analyzer and OSS applications.
C. Drive test tool (UE), scanner and OSS applications.
D. OSS applications, scanner and protocol analyzer.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. SHO reporting decision does happen separately for CS and PS traffic.
B. Cell selection parameters are separated for CS and PS traffic.
C. GSM-UMTS cell re-selections and handovers are separated for CS and PS traffic.
D. SHO averaging windows are separated for CS and PS traffic.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Location Area?
A. 1 - 65.535.
B. 1 - 1.023.
C. 0 - 256.
D. 0 - 1.024.
Answer: A
Question 4.
In URAPCH state the location of an UE known on UTRAN Registration area level. In this sub-state, which action will the UE NOT perform?
A. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging and
notification messages sent by the RAN.
B. Initiates a cell update procedure due to periodic cell update after timer T305 has expired in UE.
C. Initiates a URA updating procedure on URA change.
D. Listens to the BCH transport channel of the serving cell for the decoding of system information
messages.
Answer: B
Question 5.
The secondary CCPCH:
A. data rate can be low or high depending on the mobiles camping on the cell.
B. carries one common control channel (BCCH).
C. is always on air.
D. carries 2 different common transport channels (FACH and PCH).
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which one of the following statements relating to inter frequency handover (IFHO) is TRUE?
A. IFHO is UE evaluated and hard handover.
B. IFHO is UE evaluated and soft handover.
C. IFHO is network evaluated and hard handover.
D. IFHO is network evaluated and soft handover.
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the processing gain for 128 kbps service?
A. 14.8 dB.
B. 15.2 dB.
C. 22.6 dB.
D. 18.0 dB.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The paging process can be defined for CS and PS CN at the level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. carrier and site.
C. carrier and cell.
D. site and RNC.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following parameters may be used to encourage a UE to handover onto a co-channel indoor solution?
A. Penalty time
B. Event 1e CPICH Ec/Io threshold.
C. HCS priority.
D. CPICH Ec/Io measurement offset.
Answer: D
Question 10.
A radio network planning tool would be associated with which one of the following tasks, phases or outputs?
A. Monte Carlo Simulation.
B. Tentative number of RNCs.
C. Hardware channel calculation.
D. Installation.
Answer: A
Question 11.
Call success rate calculations should be done at what level?
A. Cell.
B. Cluster.
C. Site.
D. MSC.
Answer: B
Question 12.
If the compressed mode is NOT activated:
A. WCDMA inter frequency handovers are slow.
B. GSM-WCDMA inter system handovers are not working.
C. WCDMA-GSM inter system handovers are not working.
D. WCDMA-GSM inter system handovers are slow.
Answer: C
Question 13.
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT when the CPICH pilot power is too low in one cell?
A. CPICH pilot power has no effect on Soft handovers.
B. Soft handovers are delayed.
C. Soft handovers are happening earlier.
D. Soft handovers are not working.
Answer: C
Question 14.
For what purpose are the raw counters usually used?
A. To monitor system level performance
B. To monitor end user performance
C. To record the throughput
D. To troubleshoot cell specific issues
Answer: D
Question 15.
For the CELLFACH state, which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The UE is enabled to transmit uplink control messages and may also be able to transmit small
data packets on the RACH.
B. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging and
notification messages sent by the RAN.
C. A cell update procedure is used to report to the RNC, when the UE executes cell re-selection.
D. The location of the UE is known on cell level in RNC.
Answer: B
Question 16.
The Radio Bearer Setup message:
A. is sent in uplink.
B. is sent in downlink.
C. can replace the RRC Connection Setup to speed up the call set-up.
D. is the downlink answer to the Radio Bearer Request.
Answer: B
Question 17.
If the coverage area of the site with 12.2 kbps voice services and 141.9 dB path loss is 17.5 km2, what is the cell radius assuming that the site has 3 sectors (k factor for site area is 2.2)?
A. 2.2 km.
B. 2.8 km.
C. 3.3 km.
D. 1.6 km.
Answer: B
Question 18.
For the use of a shared antenna line between GSM and WCDMA, what is needed?
A. Diplexer or triplexer.
B. Same output power both GSM and WCDMA.
C. Coupler or splitter.
D. One shared BTS for GSM and WCDMA.
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which one of the following channels does NOT have an influence on DL coverage?
A. PRACH.
B. BCCH.
C. PCH.
D. SCH.
Answer: A
Question 20.
In the call-setup phase, on which transport channel is the RRC Connection Setup message sent?
A. BCH.
B. RACH.
C. CCCH.
D. FACH.
Answer: D
Question 21.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Routing Area?
A. 0 - 63.
B. 0 - 127.
C. 0 -15.
D. 0 - 255.
Answer: D
Question 22.
In a cell reselection, UE neighbour measurements can be seen:
A. always at the same time for all cells.
B. always at different time for all cells.
C. only for three best cells at the same time.
D. depending on parameter settings of measurements of different cell types.
Answer: D
Question 23.
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, how many traffic hardware channels are needed if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64, 0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384 and knowing that for each connection the following hardware channels apply: 1 for voice, 4 for CS64, 4 for PS64 and 16 for PS384 are needed?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 37
D. 13
Answer: A
Question 24.
For proper cell (re)selection UE needs which one of the following parameter settings?
A. Spreading codes.
B. Location area identifications.
C. Scrambling codes.
D. CPICH TX levels.
Answer: C
Question 25.
Inter-system handover parameter settings at the 3G-coverage border should be evaluated at a level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. site and RNC.
C. cell and site.
D. site and MSC.
Answer: A
Question 26.
Which one of the following statements regarding physical channel and power control pairs is NOT true?
A. S-CCPCH has inner loop power control.
B. PRACH uses open loop power control.
C. FACH and PCH do not have inner loop power control.
D. DCH utilizes fast power control.
Answer: A
Question 27.
Which one of the following belongs to detailed site planning?
A. Max. UE Tx Power on RACH, CPICH Ec/No Offset.
B. Spreading code, PC overhead, Replacement Window.
C. Scrambling code, MHPA gain, ISHO neighbours.
D. Mobile Network Code, Max. Allowed DL Bit rate.
Answer: C
Question 28.
Which group of parameters should be highlighted at the border of multi mode network?
A. ISHO triggering.
B. Inter-frequency handover triggering.
C. Soft handover triggering.
D. Softer handover triggering.
Answer: A
Question 29.
How many radio links on average, per user connected, would be considered a reasonable value for a soft handover overhead in a WCDMA network?
A. 1.7 to 1.8.
B. 1.3 to 1.4.
C. 1.5 to 1.6.
D. 1.9 to 2.
Answer: B
Question 30.
At what level does radio interface synchronization have to be planned?
A. Site.
B. Carrier.
C. Cell.
D. RNC.
Answer: C
Question 31.
During pre-launch optimisation how can coverage problems be indicated in a cell?
A. By having very high throughput [kbit/s] in a cell.
B. By having TX power limitation and high throughput [kbit/s].
C. By achieving TX power limitations of NodeB or UE.
D. By having TX power limitation and low throughput [kbit/s].
Answer: D
Question 32.
Soft handover parameters are set per:
A. RNC.
B. cell.
C. MSC.
D. site.
Answer: B
Question 33.
The output of coverage planning is needed for which one of the following processes?
A. Propagation model tuning.
B. Transmission planning.
C. Loading field measurements.
D. Code planning.
Answer: D
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Question 1. How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet? A. 24 bytes B. 32 bytes C. 48 bytes D. 64 bytes Answer: A Explanation: Question 2. Click the Exhibit button. Based on the exhibit, in which spanning-tree state would the indicated port be? A. listening B. learning C. forwarding D. blocking Answer: C Explanation: Question 3. Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs? A. backbone B. not-so-stubby C. stub D. totally stubby Answer: B Explanation: Question 4. Which two pieces of information are communicated by IS-IS TLVs? (Choose two.) A. network protocols supported B. designated router priority C. authentication key D. PDU Length Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 5. Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received over an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: C Explanation: Question 6. Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix? A. per-flow load balancing B. a floating static route C. per-packet load balancing D. a qualified next hop Answer: A Explanation: Question 7. Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.) A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid. B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message. C. It transports routing information between BGP peers. D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged. Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 8. Which routing-instance type allows the sharing of interface routes and the support features used in source-based routing? A. virtual-router B. vrf C. forwarding D. multi-instance Answer: C Explanation: Question 9. What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D Answer: B Explanation: Question 10. Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF? A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area. B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area. C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route. D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route. Answer: B Explanation:
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