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Question 1.
Why should you have a copy of the database control files?
A. They contain the database file structure.
B. They contain the database access information.
C. They enable automatic recovery of the database.
D. They enable you to access the archived database log files.
Answer: A
Question 2.
What is the name of the service responsible for the storage management of Microsoft Exchange?
A. MSES Manager
B. Site Replication
C. Information Store
D. Key Management
Answer: C
Question 3.
What is a limitation when using an Oracle database for an SAP R/3 integration in HP Data Protector Software?
A. No backup specification templates are available.
B. Use of the recovery catalog is not recommended.
C. Zero Downtime Backup is not supported on the primary database.
D. A maximum of three instances is supported for the SAP R/3 integration.
Answer: A
Question 4.
What are functions of the omnisap.exe program in SAP R/3 integrations with HP Data Protector Software? (Select two.)
A. starts the SAP R/3 backup utilities
B. configures the SAP R/3 integration
C. controls backup or restore streams
D. exports appropriate environment variables
E. creates the omnisap share on the SAP/R3 server
Answer: A, D
Question 5.
What can you use to back up the SAP/R3 binaries for disaster recovery in an HP Data Protector Software integration with an Oracle database?
A. RMAN
B. SAP/R3 SAPDR tool
C. SAP/R3 BRBACKUP utility
D. HP Data Protector Software UMA
Answer: C
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Question 1 Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certpaper.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Identify the HBA and F port in the SAN Core/Edge exhibit. A. 7 and 1 B. 7 and 5 C. 4 and 5 D. 6 and 3 Answer: B Question 2. What is a benefit of tracking changes to the source and target devices after a point in time replica is created? A. Reduces the Recovery Time Objective for restart operations from the target B. Speeds up the re-synchronization of the source and target C. Speeds up the initial synchronization of the source and target D. Reduces the Recovery Point Objective for restart operations from the target Answer: B Question 3. What does a cache dirty bit flag? A. Changed data not yet written to disk B. Data read from disk but not accessed by the host C. Changed data written to disk D. Data requested by host but not yet fetched Answer: A Question 4. Which remote replication solution has the lowest bandwidth requirement? A. Log shipping over IP networks B. Array based synchronous replication C. Asynchronous ordered writes D. Host based LVM Mirroring Answer: A Question 5. An application uses ten 9 GB Devices. A pointer based replica of the application is required every 4 hours. Each replica will be kept for 24 hours. The data changes by 10% every 4 hours. How many replica devices are required? A. 10 B. 90 C. 6 D. 60 Answer: D Question 6. What is a remote replication solution on EMC Symmetrix Arrays? A. SnapView B. EMCTimeFinder/Mirror C. SRDF/S D. MirrorView/A Answer: C Question 7. What is a benefit of a NAS Solution? A. Introduces block level I/O to the networked environment B. Enables the ability to share data across platforms C. Improved network bandwidth D. Improved network performance Answer: B Question 8. What is a logical component of a storage environment? A. Storage array B. Bus C. Memory D. Application Answer: D Question 9. Which statement describes the iSCSI protocol? A. SCSI over ATA B. SCSI over IP SCSI over IP C. IP over SCSI D. ATA over SCSI Answer: B Question 10. Exhibit: You work as a network administrator at Certpaper.com. You study the exhibit carefully. In the environment shown in the exhibit, the storage devices are RAID-1 protected. Which two components are Single Points of Failure? A. Switch andStorage Array Port B. Host and Switch C. Storage Array Port and Storage Device D. HBA and Host Answer: A Question 11. What is the basic unit of storage in a CAS implementation? A. Frame B. Object C. File D. Block Answer: B Question 12. What is a SAN availability management task? A. Configuring redundant fabrics B. Replicating logical volumes C. LUN masking D. Monitoring port status Answer: A
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