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Question 1.
How do end users connect to an Optical Ethernet network?
A. through a DS1 interface
B. through a DS3 interface
C. through an optical SONET interface
D. through a variety of Ethernet interfaces
Answer: D
Question 2.
What is a 3G cellular technology?
A. Advanced Mobile Phone Service (AMPS)
B. Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)
C. General Packet Radio Service (GPRS)
D. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)
E. Universal Mobile Telecommunications Service (UMTS)
Answer: E
Question 3.
When is Multi protocol Label Switching (MPLS) local recovery chosen over MPLS
global recovery?
A. When faster recovery is sought.
B. When too few Label Switch Paths (LSPs) are setup.
C. When insufficient bandwidth is available in the network.
D. When the network is NOT very meshed (small degree of connectivity).
Answer: A
Question 4.
What technology allows a SONET ring to act like the backplane of an Ethernet switch?
A. TDI
B. STS
C. RPR
D. VLAN
Answer: C
Question 5.
Which tasks must be performed by NAT devices to support H.323 over UDP? (Choose two.)
A. recalculation of the H.323 Security code
B. recalculation of the transport layer checksum
C. alteration of IP addresses embedded in the H.323 packet
D. H.323 Gatekeeper tasks (i.e. NAT must also be H.323 Gatekeeper)
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
Which is a difference between basic NAT and NAPT?
A. NAPT creates dynamic bindings but basic NAT does NOT.
B. NAPT supports full cone operation but basic NAT does NOT.
C. Basic NAT does stateful packet inspection and NAPT does NOT.
D. Basic NAT has a one-to-one mapping of IP addresses and NAPT supports a many-to-one
mapping.
Answer: D
Question 7.
Which protocols are used to detect the failures that impact Label Switch Path (LSP) traffic?
A. RSVP-TE Hello and ITU-T Y1711
B. OSPF-TE keep-alive and ATM PNNI
C. RSVP-TE Hello and OSPF keep-alive
D. ITU-T Y1711 and OSPF-TE keep-alive
Answer: A
Question 8.
The FRF.11 specification is associated with which aspect of real-time networking?
A. Frame Relay QoS
B. Frame Fragmentation
C. Frame Relay Voice
D. Frame Relay Service Category
Answer: C
Question 9.
A customer currently is running a SONET UPSR network and would like to upgrade to RPR.
How does RPR improve bandwidth efficiency over SONET UPSR?
A. RPR uses VLANS
B. RPR has Spatial reuse
C. RPR is connectionless
D. RPR uses Ethernet Headers
Answer: B
Question 10.
Which is the correct definition of STP as applied to an Ethernet switch?
A. Signal Transfer Point
B. Simple Timing Protocol
C. Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Switch Transaction Protocol
Answer: C
Question 11.
What is the length of an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Answer: C
Question 12.
Which operations on IP packets are NOT performed by NAT? (Choose two.)
A. changing IPSec payload
B. changing the transport protocol
C. changing embedded IP addresses
D. changing the destination IP address
E. changing the destination Port Number
Answer: A, B
Question 13.
Which ATM adaptation layer must use Constant Bit Rate (CBR)?
A. AAL1
B. AAL2
C. AAL3/4
D. AAL5
Answer: A
Question 14.
Which is a characteristic of Data over GPRS cellular?
A. ATM-based
B. NOT switched
C. circuit switched
D. packet switched
Answer: D
Question 15.
What is "Cable Labs"?
A. a commercial corporation
B. a government funded body
C. an international standards body
D. an industry consortium funded by the cable operators
Answer: D
Question 16.
What does Mobile IP (IP Mobility Support) refer to?
A. Wireless LAN capability
B. the ability to access IP from a cellular telephone
C. the ability to roam seamlessly between cells on a cellular telephone
D. the ability for a host to correctly send data grams to a client when that client moves between
different IP subnets
Answer: D
Question 17.
Which is the correct description of the Dijkstra Algorithm?
A. The algorithm calculates the shortest path between two points in a network.
B. The algorithm builds an IP forwarding table based on destination addresses.
C. The algorithm prioritizes paths between any two points in a network according to distance.
D. The algorithm creates a (mathematical) graph of interconnections between network nodes.
Answer: A
Question 18.
The convergence time for STP is within which range?
A. 50-100 milliseconds
B. 0.5-1 second
C. 1-3 seconds
D. 35-45 seconds
Answer: D
Question 19.
Which statement is true about checksums in a IPv6 header?
A. It is carried in an extension header when it is needed.
B. It has to be extended to cover the whole packet to improve the robustness of the protocol.
C. All transport protocols for IPv6 have to carry a checksum which protects all the fields in the
IPv6 header.
D. It does NOT carry a checksum because the link and transport layer checksums provide
adequate protection for the packet.
Answer: D
Question 20.
In a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) network, which three functions are provided by the subscriber aggregation platform? (Choose three.)
A. dynamic service selection via PPPoE
B. routing of data packets
C. Bayesian filtering for spam blocking
D. termination of DSLAM data trunks
E. voice services via GR-303
Answer: A, B, D
Question 21.
What type of network topology does RPR employ?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Linear
D. Point-to-Point
Answer: A
Question 22.
How many links can be shared using MLT?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: C
Question 23.
In a Multi protocol Label Switching (MPLS) network, what is a "loose explicit route"?
A. Only some of the hops are pre-defined.
B. Every hop calculates the next hop to the LSP destination.
C. All nodes of the Label Switch Path (LSP) route are pre-defined.
D. The LSP does NOT have a backup path.
Answer: A
Question 24.
What is the minimum Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) allowed for an IPv6 link (i.e., what is the largest size packet that is guaranteed to be transmitted un fragmented across an IPv6 network)?
A. 512 octets
B. 1280 octets
C. 1500 octets
D. 8192 octets
Answer: B
Question 25.
How does a compression codec reduce the amount of data needed to store or transmit a digital signal?
A. by chunking the signal into frames
B. by encoding only the active speech and skipping any silence
C. by removing redundant information from the digital representation
D. by reducing the amount of data by least a factor of 10 compared to linear encoding
Answer: C
Question 26.
Other than PCM codecs, which are the most common type of codecs used for telecom voice?
A. CELP codecs
B. sub-band codecs
C. wideband codecs
D. variable bit-rate codecs
Answer: A
Question 27.
When is a compression method described as "lossy"?
A. When there will be gaps in the decoded signal.
B. When the method can NOT run fast enough to be used for real-time processes.
C. When it is NOT possible to restore the original digital signal from the compressed signal.
D. When there will be an obvious difference between the original and the compressed signal.
Answer: C
Question 28.
The largest gap in running speech that can be repaired by packet loss concealment is in which range?
A. 6 - 8 ms
B. 60 - 80 ms
C. 600 - 800 ms
D. 6 - 8 sec
Answer: B
Question 29.
Where in the service development & deployment process should one begin to address QoE?
A. at the verification stage, before the equipment is shipped to customers
B. when defining design intent of the service offering, the network elements, and the complete
solution
C. once the network is up and running and the operational kinks are worked out, QoE can be
optimized
D. as the network is being deployed, to optimize provisioning and tuning for the types and
proportions of traffic it will carry
Answer: B
Question 30.
Which are the four main performance issues for voice Quality of Experience associated with Voice over IP?
A. delay, codec quality, echo, muting
B. delay, packet loss, codec quality, echo
C. delay, echo, codec quality, call set-up time
D. codec quality, packet loss, echo, low listening level
Answer: B
Question 31.
Assuming that the treatment for exceeding metering rates is to drop packets, which is the correct policing action for a single rate polices?
A. Packets are passed up to EIR, all others are dropped.
B. Packets are passed up to the CIR; all others are dropped.
C. Packets are passed up to the Burst Rate, all others are dropped.
D. Packets are always passed up to the CIR, and may be passed up to the EIR if bandwidth is
available.
Answer: B
Question 32.
When designing a VoIP system, identify the parameters that are under the control of the equipment designer, the network designer, or the network manager. (Choose five.)
A. codec selection
B. packet size selection
C. jitter buffer waiting time
D. propagation delay over distance
E. delay through legacy equipment
F. use of packet loss concealment
G. deployment of echo cancellers at each interface to TDM
Answer: A, B, C, F, G
Question 33.
Which is the best definition of the function of a policer as it relates to a router?
A. A policer applies policies to the admission of flows.
B. A policer verifies the Class of Service marking of each packet.
C. A policer meters packets and may re-mark them or drop them.
D. A policer filters packets and marks them with a Class of Service.
Answer: C
Question 34.
In a VoIP network, which will occur when increasing the amount of speech data in each packet?
A. an increase in bandwidth efficiency while reducing jitter
B. an increase in bandwidth efficiency at the expense of delay
C. an increase in bandwidth efficiency at the expense of lost packets
D. an increase in bandwidth efficiency without affecting other parameters
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Consider the following customer attributes and choose the correct IP telephony call processing model:
- a large campus that spans two PSAP areas
- a single group of buildings connected via fiber optics
- data VPNs that support multiple contractors and suppliers
- a fully developed three-tier network hierarchy
- connectivity to two different service providers for Internet access
A. single-site call processing
B. centralized call processing
C. hybrid call processing
D. distributed call processing
Answer: A
Question 2.
What information is relevant to choosing an IP telephony centralized call processing model?
A. multiple PRIs to the PSTN
B. a campus of six buildings connected via an ATM backbone
C. three small regional sales offices located in the three Western time zones
D. centralized order processing, shipping, and billing for all customer products
E. connectivity to a single service provider that hosts the company web site and provides for
Internet access
F. a single six-story building with an IDF on each floor and an MDF in the computer room on the
second floor
Answer: C
Question 3.
In a TDM PBXto Cisco Unified Communications Manager migration, which three things must be verified from the LAN perspective before IP telephony can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. the type of wiring in the office
B. the number of PSTN connections needed
C. the number of public IP addresses available
D. the amount of rack space in the equipment rack
E. the amount of power that is available to support new LAN switches
Answer: A, D, E
Question 4.
DRAG DROP
The intranet will have three VLAN types to support voice and data traffic; one type for voice, one type for data, and one type for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How should inter-VLAN connectivity by deployed? Drag and drop the type of connectivity to each type of connection. Types of connections may be used more than once.
Answer:
Question 5.
Ajax wants to ensure that their employees are safe and that they comply with the law.
What are four general E911 responsibilities of an enterprise telephony system? (Choose four.)
A. Enable PSAP call-back.
B. initiate the update of ALI records.
C. Provide a detailed map of all ERLs.
D. Allow conferencing with internal security personnel.
E. Route calls to the appropriate point (on-net or off-net).
F. Deliver appropriate calling party number digits to LEC
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question 6.
What are two conferencing guidelines for a single-site deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Use hardware conferencing only for small deployments
B. If available, configure DSPs for flex-mode when there are multiple codec types in use.
C. Group any conferencing resources into MRGLs based on their location, to manage Call
Admission Control.
D. Make certain that Meet-Me and Ad-Hoc conference resources each account for a minimum of
5% of the user base.
Answer: B, D
Question 7.
Ajax needs to provide technical support outside of normal operating hours. They would like to deploy a small test call center to develop the skills necessary to provide phone, chat, and e-mail support. Ajax wants to start with five agents.
Which two connection types would be applicable for use with the planned contact center? (Choose two.)
A. PRI
B. CAS DC. ESM
D. QSIG
E. POTS
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
Indicate whether T1s orE1s are available in your area. (Note: If both are available, choose the one with which you are most familiar.)
A. T1
B. E1
Answer: NO CORRECT ANSWER
Question 9.
You have decided to use the MGCP signaling protocol for the PSTN gateway at Ajax.
Which option is true regarding the use of a gatekeeper in their network?
A. One may be used for CAC.
B. One could be used for address resolution.
C. One may be deployed for both CAC and address resolution.
D. A gatekeeper is not applicable in this situation.
Answer: D
Question 10.
Ajax has contacted its LEC to obtain an additional range of DIDs. Their current DID range is 555-6000 through 555-6999. The LEC can provide them with an additional range of numbers, 556-6000 through 556-6999. The LEC is currently sending four digits inbound, so the two DID ranges overlap.
What two things can be done to resolve this solution? (Choose two.)
A. Ask the LEC to send five digits.
B. Change internal calls to five-digit dialing.
C. Move to a six-digit dial plan to provide more dialing granularity for all extension numbers.
D. Contact an alternative carrier to see if it can provide a DID range that does not overlap with the
current range.
Answer: A, B
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