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Question 1.
What are the MOST effective tools to analyze ISHO failures?
A. OSS applications, drive test tool (UE) and planning system.
B. Drive test tool (UE), protocol analyzer and OSS applications.
C. Drive test tool (UE), scanner and OSS applications.
D. OSS applications, scanner and protocol analyzer.
Answer: C
Question 2.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. SHO reporting decision does happen separately for CS and PS traffic.
B. Cell selection parameters are separated for CS and PS traffic.
C. GSM-UMTS cell re-selections and handovers are separated for CS and PS traffic.
D. SHO averaging windows are separated for CS and PS traffic.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Location Area?
A. 1 - 65.535.
B. 1 - 1.023.
C. 0 - 256.
D. 0 - 1.024.
Answer: A
Question 4.
In URAPCH state the location of an UE known on UTRAN Registration area level. In this sub-state, which action will the UE NOT perform?
A. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging and
notification messages sent by the RAN.
B. Initiates a cell update procedure due to periodic cell update after timer T305 has expired in UE.
C. Initiates a URA updating procedure on URA change.
D. Listens to the BCH transport channel of the serving cell for the decoding of system information
messages.
Answer: B
Question 5.
The secondary CCPCH:
A. data rate can be low or high depending on the mobiles camping on the cell.
B. carries one common control channel (BCCH).
C. is always on air.
D. carries 2 different common transport channels (FACH and PCH).
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which one of the following statements relating to inter frequency handover (IFHO) is TRUE?
A. IFHO is UE evaluated and hard handover.
B. IFHO is UE evaluated and soft handover.
C. IFHO is network evaluated and hard handover.
D. IFHO is network evaluated and soft handover.
Answer: C
Question 7.
What is the processing gain for 128 kbps service?
A. 14.8 dB.
B. 15.2 dB.
C. 22.6 dB.
D. 18.0 dB.
Answer: A
Question 8.
The paging process can be defined for CS and PS CN at the level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. carrier and site.
C. carrier and cell.
D. site and RNC.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following parameters may be used to encourage a UE to handover onto a co-channel indoor solution?
A. Penalty time
B. Event 1e CPICH Ec/Io threshold.
C. HCS priority.
D. CPICH Ec/Io measurement offset.
Answer: D
Question 10.
A radio network planning tool would be associated with which one of the following tasks, phases or outputs?
A. Monte Carlo Simulation.
B. Tentative number of RNCs.
C. Hardware channel calculation.
D. Installation.
Answer: A
Question 11.
Call success rate calculations should be done at what level?
A. Cell.
B. Cluster.
C. Site.
D. MSC.
Answer: B
Question 12.
If the compressed mode is NOT activated:
A. WCDMA inter frequency handovers are slow.
B. GSM-WCDMA inter system handovers are not working.
C. WCDMA-GSM inter system handovers are not working.
D. WCDMA-GSM inter system handovers are slow.
Answer: C
Question 13.
Which one of the following statements is CORRECT when the CPICH pilot power is too low in one cell?
A. CPICH pilot power has no effect on Soft handovers.
B. Soft handovers are delayed.
C. Soft handovers are happening earlier.
D. Soft handovers are not working.
Answer: C
Question 14.
For what purpose are the raw counters usually used?
A. To monitor system level performance
B. To monitor end user performance
C. To record the throughput
D. To troubleshoot cell specific issues
Answer: D
Question 15.
For the CELLFACH state, which one of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The UE is enabled to transmit uplink control messages and may also be able to transmit small
data packets on the RACH.
B. Listens to the PCH transport channel (via allocated PICH) for the decoding of paging and
notification messages sent by the RAN.
C. A cell update procedure is used to report to the RNC, when the UE executes cell re-selection.
D. The location of the UE is known on cell level in RNC.
Answer: B
Question 16.
The Radio Bearer Setup message:
A. is sent in uplink.
B. is sent in downlink.
C. can replace the RRC Connection Setup to speed up the call set-up.
D. is the downlink answer to the Radio Bearer Request.
Answer: B
Question 17.
If the coverage area of the site with 12.2 kbps voice services and 141.9 dB path loss is 17.5 km2, what is the cell radius assuming that the site has 3 sectors (k factor for site area is 2.2)?
A. 2.2 km.
B. 2.8 km.
C. 3.3 km.
D. 1.6 km.
Answer: B
Question 18.
For the use of a shared antenna line between GSM and WCDMA, what is needed?
A. Diplexer or triplexer.
B. Same output power both GSM and WCDMA.
C. Coupler or splitter.
D. One shared BTS for GSM and WCDMA.
Answer: A
Question 19.
Which one of the following channels does NOT have an influence on DL coverage?
A. PRACH.
B. BCCH.
C. PCH.
D. SCH.
Answer: A
Question 20.
In the call-setup phase, on which transport channel is the RRC Connection Setup message sent?
A. BCH.
B. RACH.
C. CCCH.
D. FACH.
Answer: D
Question 21.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT range for Routing Area?
A. 0 - 63.
B. 0 - 127.
C. 0 -15.
D. 0 - 255.
Answer: D
Question 22.
In a cell reselection, UE neighbour measurements can be seen:
A. always at the same time for all cells.
B. always at different time for all cells.
C. only for three best cells at the same time.
D. depending on parameter settings of measurements of different cell types.
Answer: D
Question 23.
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, how many traffic hardware channels are needed if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64, 0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384 and knowing that for each connection the following hardware channels apply: 1 for voice, 4 for CS64, 4 for PS64 and 16 for PS384 are needed?
A. 24
B. 4
C. 37
D. 13
Answer: A
Question 24.
For proper cell (re)selection UE needs which one of the following parameter settings?
A. Spreading codes.
B. Location area identifications.
C. Scrambling codes.
D. CPICH TX levels.
Answer: C
Question 25.
Inter-system handover parameter settings at the 3G-coverage border should be evaluated at a level of:
A. cell and RNC.
B. site and RNC.
C. cell and site.
D. site and MSC.
Answer: A
Question 26.
Which one of the following statements regarding physical channel and power control pairs is NOT true?
A. S-CCPCH has inner loop power control.
B. PRACH uses open loop power control.
C. FACH and PCH do not have inner loop power control.
D. DCH utilizes fast power control.
Answer: A
Question 27.
Which one of the following belongs to detailed site planning?
A. Max. UE Tx Power on RACH, CPICH Ec/No Offset.
B. Spreading code, PC overhead, Replacement Window.
C. Scrambling code, MHPA gain, ISHO neighbours.
D. Mobile Network Code, Max. Allowed DL Bit rate.
Answer: C
Question 28.
Which group of parameters should be highlighted at the border of multi mode network?
A. ISHO triggering.
B. Inter-frequency handover triggering.
C. Soft handover triggering.
D. Softer handover triggering.
Answer: A
Question 29.
How many radio links on average, per user connected, would be considered a reasonable value for a soft handover overhead in a WCDMA network?
A. 1.7 to 1.8.
B. 1.3 to 1.4.
C. 1.5 to 1.6.
D. 1.9 to 2.
Answer: B
Question 30.
At what level does radio interface synchronization have to be planned?
A. Site.
B. Carrier.
C. Cell.
D. RNC.
Answer: C
Question 31.
During pre-launch optimisation how can coverage problems be indicated in a cell?
A. By having very high throughput [kbit/s] in a cell.
B. By having TX power limitation and high throughput [kbit/s].
C. By achieving TX power limitations of NodeB or UE.
D. By having TX power limitation and low throughput [kbit/s].
Answer: D
Question 32.
Soft handover parameters are set per:
A. RNC.
B. cell.
C. MSC.
D. site.
Answer: B
Question 33.
The output of coverage planning is needed for which one of the following processes?
A. Propagation model tuning.
B. Transmission planning.
C. Loading field measurements.
D. Code planning.
Answer: D
Question 34.
Which kind of channels exists in the WCDMA technology and how are they mapped?
A. Logical mapped on physical channels.
B. Logical mapped on transport mapped on physical channels.
C. Transport mapped on logical mapped on physical channels.
D. Transport mapped on physical channels.
Answer: B
Question 35.
What is SHO gain?
A. It is an additional macro diversity gain against slow fading.
B. It is an additional micro diversity gain.
C. It reduces the radio link loss due to multiple handovers.
D. It is a software feature in RAN.
Answer: A
Question 36.
When the UE receives the RRC Connection Release message in state CELLFACH, the message is received on the:
A. CCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
B. CCCH it sends the SMS on the Paging Channel and then enters the idle mode.
C. DCCH it releases all its radio resources and enters idle mode.
D. DTCH it continues to use the radio resource as long as the users need it.
Answer: A
Question 37.
From which SIB does the UE find the uplink interference level for the RACH process?
A. SIB1.
B. SIB5.
C. SIB3.
D. SIB7.
Answer: D
Question 38.
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronization.
B. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
C. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
D. A typical planning strategy is to maximize the number of neighbours belonging to the same
scrambling code group.
Answer: B
Question 39.
How much is IPL (Isotropic Path Loss), if Node B peak EIRP is 40.7 dBm and isotropic power of user equipment is -107 dBm?
A. 66.3 dB.
B. 157.7 dB.
C. -147.7 dB.
D. 147. 7 dB.
Answer: D
Question 40.
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for TETRA and WCDMA, what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the distance from the BTS is 400 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA and 450 for TETRA.)
A. 1.3 dB.
B. 7.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 13.4 dB.
Answer: D
Question 41.
Power control parameters are linked, for example, to:
A. the CPICH, BCCH, and SCH settings.
B. the soft handovers, hard handovers, and inter system handovers.
C. RRM, RAB, RRC, and RANAP functions.
D. the RACH process, DPCH offsets and SIR target
Answer: D
Question 42.
When the UE receives the RRC Connection Release message in state CELLDCH, it retransmits the message RRC Connection Release Complete:
A. N308 times using an interval of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
B. as many times as it can to reach the number N308 in the time T308 before entering the idle
mode.
C. consecutively for a time of T308 seconds before entering idle mode.
D. N308 times within a time of T308 before entering idle mode.
Answer: A
Question 43.
Considering 1 site (3 cells) with 1 only one carrier per cell, what is the downlink throughput (in Kb/s) PER CELL if in the site the active users are: 1.8 voice, 0.7 CS64, 0.7 PS64 and 1 PS384?
A. 514.76.
B. 64.94.
C. 194.82.
D. 165.19.
Answer: D
Question 44.
What is the MAXIMUM number of P-CPICH signals, of similar strength, that the UE should measure?
A. 2 WBTS cells.
B. 1 WBTS cell.
C. 4 WBTS cells.
D. 3 WBTS cells.
Answer: D
Question 45.
Together with 3 active set cells, what is the total number of IFHO plus ISHO neighbours the UE is able to report in compressed mode?
A. 10
B. 6
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: C
Question 46.
The Paging Control Channel (PCCH) is a downlink channel that transfers paging information. This channel is used:
A. by the mobile to send short amounts of data (SMS).
B. by the network to send short amounts of data (SMS).
C. when the network doesn't know the location cell of the mobile.
D. when the mobile wants to move to a cell with better quality.
Answer: C
Question 47.
Which one of the following services has the HIGHEST processing gain?
A. 384 kbps NRT data.
B. 12.2 kbps AMR voice.
C. 64 kbps NRT data.
D. 64 kbps RT data.
Answer: B
Question 48.
The WCDMA - GSM handover process for voice, from measurements triggering to complete handover, takes:
A. 2-7 seconds.
B. 0.2-0.4 of a second.
C. 0.02-0.04 of a second.
D. 1-2 seconds
Answer: A
Question 49.
When are Traffic Volume Measurements needed to change Transport channel:
A. CELLDCH state.
B. CELLPCH state.
C. URA-PCH state.
D. CELLFACH state.
Answer: D
Question 50.
In an admission control procedure, what may happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is under-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
B. There is the risk of having interference problems.
C. There is a risk of increasing the drop call rate.
D. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done.
Answer: A
Question 51.
How many WSP are needed for a site with 3 cells, 1 carrier and with 199.1 equivalent AMR voice channels per site, knowing that for each WSP there are 64 hardware channels?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
Answer: B
Question 52.
If the maximum cell range for 384 kbps data service is 0.61 km and cell range for 12.2 kbps voice is 1.0 km, what is the dominating service in terms of cell range and how many sites (3-sectors, k factor for site area is 1.95) are needed to provide that service in the area of 100 km2?
A. Data and 52 sites.
B. Voice and 138 sites.
C. Voice and 52 sites.
D. Data and 138 sites.
Answer: D
Question 53.
Which one of the following items MAY have an influence on UL coverage?
A. Qhyst.
B. SIR target.
C. Qmeas.
D. Srxlev.
Answer: B
Question 54.
In terms of power control headroom, the indoor environment is different from the outdoor one, because:
A. the UE is moving slowly.
B. fast fading margin is lower.
C. the cell size is smaller.
D. the number of users is lower.
Answer: A
Question 55.
How can you verify if quality targets have been achieved?
A. Checking the planning tool coverage predictions with a test mobile on the field.
B. Performing field test measurements and monitoring OSS statistics.
C. Ensuring that the default set of RAN parameters is downloaded.
D. Auditing the RNC and NodeB parameter inconsistencies.
Answer: B
Question 56.
In order to plan the scrambling codes of a group of sites, what is the MAXIMUM possible value, if any, that can be used?
A. 1024
B. There is no Maximum.
C. 512
D. 65535
Answer: C
Question 57.
When is the DRX cycle NOT needed?
A. In paging process.
B. In discontinuous reception.
C. In measurement requirements.
D. In RACH process.
Answer: D
Question 58.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the state machine?
Answer: Pending, Send your comments or suggestions at feedback@itcertkeys.com
Question 59.
In cell-reselection which kind of adjacency is may NOT be measured?
A. Inter-frequency.
B. Monitored set cell
C. Detected set cell.
D. Intra-frequency.
Answer: C
Question 60.
What is a typical value (in dB) of the "Ptx Primary CPICH" parameter (this parameter determines the transmission power for the primary CPICH channel) in a macro cell (CEC WBTS)?
A. 33
B. 10
C. 3
D. 100
Answer: A
Question 61.
Which one of the following statements BEST describes the function of compressed mode?
A. Transmission mode in WCDMA technology.
B. Allows time for measurement of another frequency or system.
C. Prevention of traffic congestion.
D. Compression in order to enable transmission rates up to 2Mbps.
Answer: B
Question 62.
How should the downlink load be measured?
A. By measuring traffic (throughput [kbit/s]) in the downlink direction.
B. By analyzing user profiles in the downlink direction.
C. By collecting average RX level of UEs from NMS.
D. By monitoring NodeB TX power.
Answer: D
Question 63.
When applying the free space propagation loss formula both for GSM 1800 and WCDMA, what APPROXIMATELY is the propagation loss difference between the systems, if the distance from the BTS is 1500 meters? (Use frequency 2100 MHz for WCDMA.)
A. 7.4 dB.
B. 13.4 dB.
C. 5.5 dB.
D. 1.3 dB.
Answer: D
Question 64.
The purpose of the interference margin is to indicate:
A. how much the power is reduced per connection at the base station due to network load.
B. the allowed number of subscribers in the network.
C. how much interference can be received from neighbouring base stations.
D. how much more power is needed per connection at the base station due to network load.
Answer: D
Question 65.
Harmonic distortion can be a problem in the case of co-sitting GSM1800 and WCDMA2100. In which way does the harmonic distortion cause interference?
A. GSM UL -> WCDMA DL.
B. WCDMA UL -> GSM DL.
C. GSM DL -> WCDMA UL.
D. WCDMA DL -> GSM UL.
Answer: C
Question 66.
How does speed affect power rise?
A. Higher speeds have higher power rise.
B. Higher speeds have lower power rise.
C. There is no affect.
D. Nokia implementation is not affected.
Answer: B
Question 67.
Which parameter is used as an input to ISHO decision algorithm?
A. MS Power.
B. RxQual.
C. BTS Power.
D. RxLev.
Answer: D
Question 68.
Which is the correct range for URA?
A. 0 - 15.
B. 1 - 65535.
C. 0 - 7.
D. 1 - 1023.
Answer: B
Question 69.
Which of the following items should be optimized to improve packet services throughput?
A. Soft handover overhead
B. Cell specific scrambling codes
C. CPICH Ec/No & CPICH RSCP
D. PrxNoise
Answer: C
Question 70.
Which one of the antenna down-tilting mechanisms is preferred?
A. A combination of electrical and mechanical tilting.
B. Antenna pole tilting.
C. Electrical tilting.
D. Mechanical tilting.
Answer: C
Question 71.
In an admission control procedure, what is MOST likely thing to happen if in uplink the PrxNoise is over-estimated?
A. There is the risk of having interference problems.
B. There is a risk of increasing call failures.
C. If it is only few dB, safer planning of the network could have been done
D. There is the risk of having capacity problems.
Answer: B
Question 72.
The UE link powers are changed in case:
A. Power is reduced if only one UE - NodeB link reliably indicates so
B. Power is increased if only one UE - NodeB link reliably indicate so
C. Powers are increased / decreased in case indicated by the UE
D. Power is reduced if only one UE - NodeB links indicate so
Answer: A
Question 73.
Which parameters are used as an input in the decision to hand over to another frequency (IFHO decision algorithm)?
A. CPICH Ec/No and UE power.
B. BTS link power and CPICH RSCP.
C. CPICH Ec/No and CPICH RSCP.
D. BTS link power and UE power.
Answer: C
Question 74.
Which one of the following requirements is MANDATORY for code planning?
A. Field measurement.
B. Neighbouring definitions.
C. Propagation model tuning.
D. Monte Carlo simulations.
Answer: B
Question 75.
The MOST critical power control in practice is:
A. UL outer loop.
B. UL closed loop.
C. DL open loop.
D. UL open loop.
Answer: B
Question 76.
If the cell range of 12.2 kbps voice service with 141.9 dB path loss is 2.3 km, what is the size of the cell area with omni-directional site (k factor for site area is 2.6)?
A. 13.8 km?
B. 15.9 km?
C. 16.6 km?NP
D. 12.2 km?
Answer: A
Question 77.
In the hand-over control procedure, during an event 1B a primary scrambling code (SC):
A. is replaced from another SC.
B. leaves the active sets if its level is level under a threshold for a determined period of time.
C. enters the active set if its level is comparable to the already active ones, its level is over a
threshold for a determined period of time and the active set size limit has not been reached.
D. is monitored in case of need.
Answer: B
Question 78.
Soft handover areas and pilot pollution can be optimized by:
A. reducing NodeB Tx power.
B. down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. increasing UE TX power.
D. using compressed mode.
Answer: B
Question 79.
In passive distributed antenna systems, what are the MAIN components?
A. Splitters, connectors and electro-optic converters.
B. Diplexers, couplers, splitters, radiating and RF cables.
C. Splitters, optical fibres and jumpers.
D. Optical fibres, radiating cables and attenuators.
Answer: B
Question 80.
How does little i (or other to own cell interference) affect the uplink load, if at all?
A. By increasing the load by ?
B. There is no affect, it only affects the downlink.
C. By increasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
D. By decreasing the load by a factor of (1 + i*powerrise).
Answer: C
Question 81.
Which one of the following analyses can be performed with an UE connected measurement system but NOT with a scanner measurement system?
A. Drop call analysis.
B. SIR analysis.
C. P-CPICH coverage measurement.
D. SHO area measurement.
Answer: A
Question 82.
What inter-RAT criteria measurements should be highlighted in the border area of multi mode network?
A. T.
B. R.
C. H.
D. S.
Answer: D
Question 83.
Inter cell interference CANNOT be reduced by:
A. limiting TX power of UE or NodeB.
B. down tilting NodeB antenna.
C. squeezing soft handover areas as a function of active set.
D. increasing the number of sectors per site.
Answer: C
Question 84.
Transmission time is NOT reduced in compressed mode by:
A. reducing the spread factor by 2.
B. using higher layer scheduling.
C. puncturing.
D. limiting NRT traffic.
Answer: D
Question 85.
Assuming that the BTS max. power is 43dBm/carrier, what is a typical value of the parameter Ptx Primary CPICH?
A. 23dBm.
B. 33dBm.
C. 20dBm.
D. 40dBm.
Answer: B
Question 86.
In a site with 3 cells and 2 carriers, what is the total number of downlink hardware channels needed if the amount needed for traffic is 158.7 per site and the amount used for signaling is 8?
A. 183
B. 167
C. 255
D. 207
Answer: D
Question 87.
The Node B antenna gain is 17 dB and receiver sensitivity 112 dBm, radiated power (EIRP) of user equipment (Ue) is 18 dBm and feeder cable loss is 3 dB.
What is the MAXIMUM path loss?
A. 114 dB
B. 116 dB
C. 144 dB
D. 147 dB
Answer: C
Question 88.
Physical channel power optimisation has to be done at the level of:
A. routing area and CELLDCH state.
B. RNC and cell area.
C. location and routing area.
D. site and cell area.
Answer: B
Question 89.
In the case of compressed mode and lower spreading code usage:
A. there is no impact on interference level.
B. the average interference level increases approximately 20%.
C. the average interference level increases approximately 5%.
D. the interference level is reduced approximately 5%.
Answer: C
Question 90.
Too wide soft handover areas can be indicated MOST easily by:
A. measuring CPICH coverage.
B. calculating inter cell interference.
C. comparing actual active set sizes.
D. monitoring traffic.
Answer: C
Question 91.
How can the cell/area data traffic profile best be monitored?
A. Measuring RT and NRT throughput.
B. Following up cell loading classes.
C. Counting RAB PS attempts.
D. Following up DCH channel allocations.
Answer: D
Question 92.
DCH traffic has the smallest impact on:
A. coverage area.
B. hard or soft blocking.
C. soft handover triggering.
D. lub utilization.
Answer: C
Question 93.
Minimum coupling loss (MCL) is the minimum allowed:
A. overall loss between BTS and UE.
B. Loss from the UE to the MHA.
C. loss in antenna line.
D. loss from the UE Tx to BTS antenna.
Answer: A
Question 94.
If the NodeB antenna direction has been modified:
A. pilot coverage areas need no recalculation.
B. new EbNo values have to be selected.
C. softer handover areas are changed.
D. power control parameters need to be changed.
Answer: C
Question 95.
Which of the following statements about scrambling code groups is not true?
A. The same scrambling code can be assigned to each carrier belonging to a single sector.
B. A typical planning strategy is to maximize the number of neighbours belonging to the same
scrambling code group.
C. UE make use of the scrambling code groups when achieving initial synchronization.
D. There are 16 scrambling codes within each scrambling code group.
Answer: D
Question 96.
Which one of the following statements relating to WCDMA inter-working is TRUE?
A. Inter frequency measurements have IMSI verification.
B. Inter system measurements have BSIC verification.
C. Inter system measurements have IMSI verification.
D. Inter frequency measurements have BSIC verification.
Answer: B
Question 97.
The Common Control Channel (CCCH) is:
A. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from network to UEs.
B. a uni-directional channel for transmitting control information from UEs to network.
C. only used by mobiles having RRC connection with the network.
D. a bi-directional channel for transmitting control information between network and UEs.
Answer: D
Question 98.
Which one of the following statements concerning simulations on the planning tool is NOT true?
A. Monte Carlo simulation is a form of static simulation.
B. Static simulations make use of an iterative process.
C. Static simulation is a time consuming process.
D. Simulations are not dynamic.
Answer: B
Question 99.
In the call-setup phase the RRC Connection Request message is sent from the UE to the:
A. SGSN.
B. Core Network.
C. RNC.
D. BTS.
Answer: C
Question 100.
Which of the following data sets is NOT needed for cell selection parameter settings?
A. WCEL.
B. HOPI.
C. HOPS.
D. RNC.
Answer: D
Question 101.
How can capacity (interference) be improved?
A. Increasing transmission power of UEs.
B. Increasing SHO.
C. Decreasing speed of UEs.
D. Usage of transmission diversity.
Answer: D
Question 102.
How can user throughput in a cell be measured MOST accurately?
A. With RT and NRT data services counters.
B. With PS Background and Interactive classes counters.
C. With FTP test calls.
D. With allocated channel capacity (kbit/s) counters.
Answer: C
Question 103.
Assuming that "Srxlev = Qrxlevmeas - Qrxlevmin - max \{0, UeTxPowerMaxPrach - UEPmax}" and that "Squal = Qqualmeas - Qqualmin", a cell is considered suitable to camp on if:
A. Srxlev > 0 AND Squal > 0.
B. Srxlev < 0 AND Squal < 0.
C. Srxlev < 0 AND Squal > 0.
D. Srxlev > 0 AND Squal < 0.
Answer: A
Question 104.
If SHO overhead is too high, what is the first impact?
A. Wasted UL capacity.
B. Wasted DL capacity.
C. Shrinking UL coverage.
D. Shrinking DL coverage.
Answer: B
Question 105.
Network assessment means evaluation of the existing 2G sites and antenna systems. During the assessment it is checked that cells have clear dominance areas.
Which one of the following is NOT a planning method to verify clear dominance areas?
A. Use buildings to isolate the cells coverage.
B. Lower the antenna height.
C. Down tilt the antennas.
D. Verify clearance for the signal as far as possible.
Answer: D
Question 106.
Which handover types can be triggered based on Ue traffic volume measurements, if any?
A. Inter-frequency and inter-system handovers.
B. None.
C. Softer and soft handovers.
D. Soft and inter-frequency handovers.
Answer: B
Question 107.
If the cell range of 12.2 kbps voice service with 141.9 dB path loss is 2.5 km, what is the size of the cell area with omni-directional site (k factor for site area is 2.1)?
A. 13.1 km? NP
B. 19.6 km? NP
C. 16.3 km? NP
D. 10.9 km? NP
Answer: A
Question 108.
The SIR target is an output of:
A. outer loop power control.
B. fast power control.
C. open loop power control.
D. inner loop power control.
Answer: A
Question 109.
What is the MOST suitable process to be applied, when detecting 85% NRT RAB Completion Rate?
A. Analyze the PS parameters and perform drive tests in NRT classes.
B. Decrease the margins/thresholds in RRC and HC parameters and verify with drive tests.
C. Decrease the maximum allowed bit rate, perform FTP test calls and analyze the KPI statistics.
D. Check the RAB active counters, identify the elements/interfaces and analyze the protocols.
Answer: D
Question 110.
In relation to the effects of bad CPICH reception, which one of the following statement is FALSE?
A. Lack of CPICH between cells will prevent mobility.
B. Lack of CPICH will prevent reading the BCCH or getting a paging message.
C. Lack of CPICH will prohibit synchronization.
D. Lack of CPICH will prevent UE from doing inter-system reselection.
Answer: D
Question 111.
The required Eb/No value is dependent on which one of the following factors?
A. Speed of the user equipment (Ue).
B. Body loss.
C. Fast fading margin.
D. Base station antenna gain.
Answer: A
Question 112.
The Dedicated Control Channel (DCCH) is:
A. a point to multipoint bi-directional channel.
B. a point-to-point uni-directional channel.
C. established during the cell access phase.
D. used to transmit control information between a mobile and the network.
Answer: D
Question 113.
Together with 3 active set cells, how many of ISHO neighbours, is the UE able to report in compressed mode?
A. 6
B. 10
C. 12
D. 5
Answer: A
Question 114.
In the call-setup phase, on which logical channel is the RRC Connection Request message sent?
A. CCCH.
B. PCCH.
C. RACH.
D. SCH.
Answer: A
Question 115.
Which one of the following outputs is NOT produced with a radio network planning tool?
A. Nominal plan.
B. Tentative number of RNCs.
C. Coverage plan.
D. Propagation model.
Answer: B
Question 116.
What are usually the first actions during the pre-launch optimisation?
A. CS and PS core parameter analysis and optimisation
B. RL power tuning, cell individual offset tuning, max power per service analysis & tuning
C. Soft Handover parameter tuning per defined neighbours
D. CPICH Ec/No, CPICH RSCP optimisation and scrambling code plan verification
Answer: D
Question 117.
What parameters are NOT required in the site integration phase?
A. Antenna type and gain.
B. SHO parameters.
C. Feeder loss and MHA gain
D. ISHO neighbour definitions.
Answer: A
Question 118.
Which one of the following does NOT make the UL adjacent channel interference worse?
A. UE transmitting with maximum power.
B. UE uses hard handover.
C. Other operator BTS in a bad location.
D. Own BTS transmitting with high power.
Answer: D
Question 119.
If the UL noise level of NodeB is NOT measured:
A. correct uplink load is not available.
B. call establishment is not successful.
C. Soft handover areas are not correct.
D. information is not needed.
Answer: A
Question 120.
Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
A. Space diversity can be used to improve both the coverage and capacity of the radio access
network.
B. Space diversity is not common within indoor radio access networks due to the cost of the
additional components (feeders, splitters, couplers, antennas etc.)
C. Space diversity gain observed as an increase in Eb/No requirement.
D. Space diversity gain is relatively large within an indoor environment as a result of the low
diversity gain from time and multi-path diversity, which are more effective within a macro cell
environment.
Answer: C
Question 121.
Which network element is sending the RRC Connection Setup and to which other element?
A. UE to BTS.
B. RNC to UE.
C. RNC to BTS.
D. UE to RNC.
Answer: B
Question 122.
Uplink adjacent channel leakage ratio is required for an adjacent channel interference calculation.
Which other factors are needed?
A. UE transmit power, minimum coupling loss, UE adjacent channel selectivity.
B. UE transmit power, loss in the BTS antenna link, Node B adjacent channel selectivity.
C. UE transmit power, loss in the BTS antenna link, UE adjacent channel selectivity.
D. UE transmit power, minimum coupling loss, Node B adjacent channel selectivity.
Answer: D
Question 123.
The cell access (RACH process) can be defined at a level of:
A. carrier.
B. site.
C. cell.
D. RNC.
Answer: C
|
Question 1.
Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 4.
A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the
Provider-1 system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS
Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is
not recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1
environment.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 7.
What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 8.
Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B
Explanation:
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