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Question 1.
Which three types of email content will trigger the Norton Anti Spam AutoBlock feature?
(Choose three.)
A. invisible text
B. macro viruses
C. remote images
D. disguised Web links
Answer: A, C, D
Question 2.
What will Symantec Anti Virus Threat Tracer identify?
A. IP address of the hacker
B. IP addresses of all infected clients
C. IP address of the source of the infected file
D. domain address of the source of the infected file
Answer: C
Question 3.
In which way can you categorize Symantec Client Security rules?
A. user
B. unlocked
C. read-only
D. decrypted
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which two lists can you create using Norton Anti Spam "Allowed and Blocked Lists"?
(Choose two.)
A. domains that you cannot send email to
B. email addresses that you cannot send email to
C. domains that will never be considered sources of spam
D. email addresses that will never be considered sourC8S of spam
Answer: C, D
Question 5.
You have three Symantec Anti Virus roaming servers: SAV1, SAV2, SAV3. You want to configure your roaming clients to use these servers with load balancing.
Which syntax do you use to enter the server names as load balancing servers in the Symantec System Center Client Roaming Options?
A. SAV1>SAV2>SAV3
B. SAV1<SAV2<SAV3
C. SAV1+SAV2+SAV3
D. SAV1=SAV2=SAV3
Answer: D
Question 6.
Which Symantec Anti Virus management component enables you to roll back to a previous virus definitions file?
A. Central Quarantine
B. Digital Immune System
C. Symantec System Center console
D. Symantec Automated Definitions Server
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which three notifications can the Alert Management System (AMS) generate? (Choose three.)
A. send 1M
B. send a page
C. send internet mail
D. execute a program
Answer: B, C, D
Question 8.
How should you configure your test environment when planning your Symantec Client Security deployment?
A. attach a decoy network
B. segregate a decoy network
C. segregate from your production environment
D. attach the test environment to your production environment
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which Symantec technology automates the virus submission process?
A. Incident Manager
B. Digital Immune System
C. Symantec System Center
D. Symantec Security Response
Answer: B
Question 10.
Why should you lock a Symantec Anti Virus server group?
A. to enforce configuration changes
B. to enable manual configuration changes
C. to disable automated configuration changes
D. to prevent unauthorized configuration changes
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Your customer has experienced network problems on his remote IP replication using Celerra Replicator on NAS code 5.4. The customer changes the interface of the replication session and uses a dedicated network.
Which steps are needed?
A. Use Celerra Manager and change the interface using the properties tab of the replication
session
B. Use fs_replicate -refresh -o if=interface to start the creation of a new delta set
and update the interface
C. Abort replication and setup replication using the new interface
D. Suspend replication and restart replication using the interface option
Answer: D
Question 2.
What is the minimum number of file systems required to support the VTLU in the diagram?
Exhibit:
A. 1
B. 32
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which two [2] network protocols does the Celerra support?
A. ARP and RIP
B. RIP and OSPF
C. PAgP and ARP
D. ARP and OSPF
Answer: A
Question 4.
You are planning to create a remote Replication on the upcoming weekend and you want to estimate the amount of time the initial fs_copy takes.
Select the right formula to calculate the time
(0.8 = Network overhead. The assumption is the PFS is full.)
A. Full fs_copy time (h) = PFS size (GB) / Network bandwidth (MB/sec) * 1024 / (3600 * 0.8)
B. Full fs_copy time (h) = PFS size (GB) * Update ratio (%) / 1024 / 100 /24 / (3600 * 0.8)
C. Full fs_copy time (h) = PFS size (MB) / Network bandwidth (MB/sec) * 1024 / (3600 * 0.8)
D. Full fs_copy time (h) = PFS size (GB) * Update ratio (%) / 1024 / 100 /24 / 3600 / 0.8
Answer: A
Question 5.
Your customer uses quotas on existing Windows server and wants to implement tree quotas on their new Celerra. The data is strictly home directories with no .pst files.
Which tool would you use to migrate this filesystem from the Windows server to the Celerra?
A. After creating tree quotas use fscopy
B. CDMS assigning tree quotas once data is migrated
C. After creating tree quotas use emcopy to migrate data
D. Celerra Replicator assigning tree quotas once data is replicated
Answer: C
Question 6.
Your NS704G customer is using the default CLARiiON "prefetch multiplier" and "segment multiplier" settings. In most all cases, what will be the size of the prefetched data for the Celerra?
A. 32KB
B. 64KB
C. 128KB
D. 16KB
Answer: A
Question 7.
The customer states that their windows clients are experiencing poor performance when viewing properties of a Celerra network drive.
Which stats would you look for in the server_cifsstat command?
A. TreeDisco
B. CloseTreeDisco
C. QFsInfo
D. QFileInfo
Answer: C
Question 8.
The GGG Corporation is using SRDF/A and had to failover to the second site. There are NS700G's installed on both sites. Your colleagues issued the command to perform a restore.
What should be done next?
Exhibit:
A. Enter the command nasmcd/sbin/nas_rdf -restore
B. Enter the command nasmcd/sbin/nas_rdf -init
C. Stop the NAS service as root; enter the command nasmcd/sbin/nas_rdf -restore
D. Stop the NAS service; enter the command nasmcd/sbin/nas_rdf -restore
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which statement is true?
A. Near/FarCopy cannot be used in NSX00 environments but in all NSX00G environments
B. FarCopy cannot use remote Timefinder/FS with a Symmetrix/DMX SRDF campus solution
C. NearCopy uses Timefinder/FS in a SRDF campus solution and operates in synchronous mode
D. Timefinder/FS is a volume oriented point in time copy using a Symmetrix/DMX Backend
Answer: C
Question 10.
DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
In a Kerberos Ticket Exchange, three exchanges are involved when the client initially accesses a server resource. As shown in the diagram, label each of the three exchanges.
Exhibit:
Answer:
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