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Question 1. Which NTP provides information for system maintenance of the BCS Shelf? A. NTB26402 Planning Guide B. 323-1421-201 Installation and Commissioning Procedures C. 323-1421-310 Administration and Configuration Procedures D. 323-1421-543 Monitoring, Alarm Clearing and Module Replacement Answer: D Question 2. Which NTP provides information for the initial setup of the BCS Shelf? A. NTB26402 Planning Guide B. 323-1421-201 Installation and Commissioning Procedures C. 323-1421-310 Administration and Configuration Procedures D. 323-1421-543 Monitoring, Alarm Clearing and Module Replacement Answer: B Question 3. What are two of the functions that the BCS Director integrates into a graphical user interface? (Choose two.) A. License Services B. Network Information C. Provisioning Manager D. Surveillance Manager Answer: C, D Question 4. Which BCS 3000 module is configured by the BCS Director Connection Management? A. Application Module B. Dynamic Network Module C. Wide Area Network Module D. Virtual-Local Area Network Module Answer: B Question 5. What protocol is used by BCS Director to communicate with the BCS 3000 shelf? A. TL1 B. ICMP C. SMTP D. SNMP Answer: D Question 6. Which statement about the BCS Director is true? A. The BCS Director is the person that manages the BCS 3000. B. The BCS Director is the patch management engine for the BCS 3000. C. The BCS Director is the text-based interface to manage the BCS 3000. D. The BCS Director is the graphical user interface to manage the BCS 3000 Answer: D Question 7. What are two requirements for a computer to launch BCS Director? (Choose two.) A. 1 GB RAM B. Microsoft Access C. Windows 2000 or XP D. Java-enabled web browser with JRE 1.5.0 Answer: C, D Question 8. Which two are Dynamic Network Module (DNM) client features? (Choose two.) A. Constant bit-rate B. Fixed frame size C. V-LAN tag provisioning D. Gigabit Ethernet and Fiber Channel support Answer: C, D Question 9. How many Data Sharing Modules can a BCS chassis hold? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 E. 7 Answer: B Question 10. Which statement about Time of Day (ToD) bandwidth management is true? A. It cannot be used in a point-to-point configuration. B. It can be used to manage FC FICON protocols only. C. It is provisionable only through the Dynamic Network Module (DNM). D. The bandwidth profile is used to provide a way to modify port priorities. Answer: C Question 11. In today's high data movement networks, which three issues are addressed by Storage Networking? (Choose three.) A. high speed transfer capability B. over-provisioning of application bandwidth C. ever-increasing data storage requirements D. need for longer distance for SAN without reduced through-put E. need for both GE and Fiber Channel protocols on one platform Answer: B, D, E Question 12. Which two applications are supported by the BCS 3000 (Choose two.) A. User Protection B. Data Acceleration C. Application Sharing D. Storage Networking Answer: B, D Question 13. What reduction in WAN traffic could a customer achieve by implementing Data Acceleration? A. up to 10% reduction in WAN traffic B. up to 25% reduction in WAN traffic C. up to 50% reduction in WAN traffic D. up to 90% reduction in WAN traffic Answer: D Question 14. A customer with a Storage Networking hub configuration with BCS 3000 at three sites is expanding their network. How many additional remote sites can be added to the network? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Answer: B Question 15. In BCS 3000 Storage Networking, which three protocols are supported? (Choose three.) A. GE B. X.25 C. FICON D. ESCON E. Fiber Channel Answer: A, C, E Question 16. Which issue is resolved by using Data Acceleration? A. users being able to share data B. maximum bandwidth utilization C. maintaining a single copy of a piece of data D. maintaining multiple copies of a single piece of data Answer: D Question 17. The ability to borrow unused bandwidth from another port is called what? A. load balancing B. balancing bandwidth C. dynamic bandwidth sharing D. dynamic bandwidth balancing Answer: C Question 18. Which two are defined by the bandwidth profile and schedule? (Choose two.) A. start time B. frame size C. profile priority D. average compression ratio Answer: A, C Question 19. Which two are Storage Networking applications? A. SAN extension B. third copy services C. remote data sharing D. permanent restoration Answer: A, B Question 20. Which statement about a BCS node that only has Dynamic Network Modules (DNM) is true? A. Each DNM requires a hard disk for caching. B. The DNMs cannot be equipped in service slot 3. C. The DNMs must all have the same WAN interface types. D. The fully-equipped shelf can support up to 12 GE, Fiber Channel or FICON clients. Answer: D
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Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.
A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage.
Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?
A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?
A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: D
Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?
A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)
A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure.
What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?
A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements.
Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?
A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?
A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity
Answer: B
Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in
HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection
as asymmetric encryption
Answer: A, D
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