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Question 1. Which of the following is used by an Infrastructure AP when registering with WDS AP? A. PEAP B. EAP-TLS C. LEAP D. STATIC WEP Answer: C Question 2. The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which authentication method is authenticated in cases where Fast Secure Roaming requires WDS AP and Infrastructure Aps. What will your reply be? A. EXAMSIP B. WEP C. LEAP D. none of the above Answer: C Question 3. Due to their need of maintaining end-to-end delay under what length of time, are voice applications most likely to benefit from Fast Secure Roaming? A. 70 ps B. 10 ms C. 150 ms D. 1 second Answer: C Question 4. Of the following what are the basic components necessary for Fast Roaming? (Choose all that apply.) A. WLSE B. WDS enabled Access Point C. Cisco Access Registrar D. Cisco Compatible Client (v2) Answer: B, D Question 5. What does the acronym WLCCP stand for? A. Wireless LAN Context Control Protocol B. Wireless Local Configuration and Command Protocol C. Windows Local Context Control Protocol D. Wireless LAN Control and Configuration Principles Answer: A Question 6. The ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know what the functions are that WLSE accomplishes with Radio Management information. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.) A. To perform Assisted Site Surveys B. To detect and locate rogue APs C. To copy the local configuration and push to neighbor APs D. To scan a wired environment for appropriate wireless VLANs Answer: A, B Question 7. Which of the following statements regarding channel reuse is valid? A. Channel reuse cannot be used with 802.11g clients B. When there are a large number of clients, it is not wise to use channel reuse. C. In a given area, channel reuse optimizes the use of available 802.11 spectrum. D. Channel reuse eliminates duplication of broadcast and multicast packets to a client. Answer: C Question 8. Which of the following statements describes the way in which Workgroup Bridge (WGB) connect to Ethernet devices? (Choose all that apply.) A. Ethernet patch cable to a single device B. Ethernet crossover cable to a single device C. Ethernet patch cable to a hub D. Ethernet crossover cable to a hub Answer: B, C Question 9. Access Point 10 in root mode (SSID = ‘123’) results in the provision of a connection to repeater Access Point 20 (SSID = ‘123’). In a scenario where Access Point 10 is using Channel 1, what channel will Access Point20 use? A. Channel 1 B. Channel 6 C. any channel except Channel 1 D. Channel is not a concern in this application. Answer: A Question 10. Which channel is used by the standby Access Point, when deploying Access Points in hotstandby mode? A. It will scan all available channels. B. It will make use of the same channel as the primary Access Point. C. It will make use of a channel adjacent to the primary Access Point. D. The radio is off until an SNMP trap is sent by the primary. Answer: B Question 11. Which of the following statements best describes the Structured Wireless Aware Network (SWAN) solution? A. It manages the configurations on WLAN clients B. It makes use of dumb APs that are managed by a central AP controller C. It is a structured WLAN manager installed on Cisco switches for non-Cisco APs D. It focuses on the management of configurations for radios, mobility, security, QoS, and the overall WLAN network Answer: D Question 12. Given that the Cisco Aironet 802.11 a/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs, which of the following indicate that a properly working card (not necessarily associated)? (Choose all that apply.) A. green LED off; amber LED solid B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically C. green LED blinking fast; amber LED blinking sporadically D. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking sporadically E. none of the above Answer: C, D Question 13. Which of the following is the correct DC voltage used to power the Access Points through the use of in-line power to the Ethernet port? A. -5 VDC B. -9 VDC C. -12 VDC D. -48 VDC Answer: D Question 14. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between data rate and cell size (coverage area)? A. The highest data rate has the largest cells size. B. The lowest data rate has the smallest cell size. C. The highest data rate has the smallest cell size. D. Only the transmit power and antenna gain control the cell size not the data rate. Answer: C Question 15. What channel will repeater Access Point use to associate to it, if root Access Point is set at channel 6? A. any channel B. any other non-overlapping channel C. Channel 6 D. It depends on the SSID. Answer: C Question 16. The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know what the performance impact of 802.11b client in cell coverage of an 802.11g APs is. What will your reply be? A. It forces the AP to load balance B. It reduce the throughput of 802.11g clients associated to that AP C. It slows the throughput of 802.11g clients to that of the fastest 802.11b client in the cell. D. It forces the AP adhering to the 802.11g specification to turn off 802.11g data rates. Answer: B
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Question 1. What must be considered when migrating the Cell Manager from a PA-RISC to an Integrity system? A. Reinstall the media agents. B. The new Cell Server should have the same name. C. Import the Internal Database (IDB) from tape media. D. The new Cell Server should have the same IP address. Answer: D Question 2. What must be done to integrate Data Guard on UNIX systems? A. Install the Data Guard Integration Agent. B. Start the HP Data Protector Software Inet service as Oracle user. C. Start RMAN from the HP Data Protector Software admin account. D. Add the Oracle user to the HP Data Protector Software admin group. Answer: D Question 3. What must be done to migrate the Internal Database (IDB) from a PA-RISC to an Itanium system? A. omnidbutil B. omniupdate.pl C. omnidbcheck D. omnimigrate.pl Answer: D Question 4. Which operation is unsupported for an Oracle standby database? A. physical backup B. backup using the recovery catalog C. conversion to a standalone database D. configuration with a primary database Answer: C Question 5. You want to integrate HP Data Protector Software with Oracle-based SAP R/3 on UNIX. Which backup modes can you use? (Select two.) A. RMAN B. backint C. SAPback D. BRTOOLS E. BRBACKUP Answer: A, B Question 6. Where must you specify the login credentials with util_oracle8.pl to configure a new Oracle standby database? A. Oracle database server B. on each Oracle standby instance C. HP Data Protector Software Cell Manager D. database server and the standby systems Answer: B Question 7. For which Oracle database type is the exclusion of single objects from a full backup unsupported? A. standby database B. standalone database C. recovery catalog database D. multiple-instances database Answer: A Question 8. You are integrating an SAP R/3 backup running on UNIX in HP Data Protector Software. What must be done before using the Oracle online backup functionality? A. Link HP Data Protector Software library to Oracle. B. Add sysdba user account to HP Data Protector Software userlist. C. Replace omnidb command with Oracle version of this command. D. Add ORACLE_SID variable in HP Data Protector Software global file. Answer: A Question 9. What is the purpose of online migration in ASM (Automated Storage Management)? A. data movement from disk to disk B. online replication to a standby database C. online database backup to tape devices D. data sharing between different database servers Answer: A Question 10. What is the recommended method to configure HP Data Protector Software version 6.0 Cell Manager after migration from HP-UX 11.x to HP-UX V.11.23? A. Create a local user account on the Cell Manager, log in to it, and use the Command Line Interface. B. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and use telnet. C. Log in to the Cell Manager locally using the root account, and use the HP Data Protector Software graphical user interface. D. Create a remote user account on the Cell Manager, connect to it from a remote system and use the HP Data Protector Software graphical user interface. Answer: D
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