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Question 1.
To develop a JAX-RPC Web Service application, a vendor-supplied development tool is used to create which of the following?
A. WSDL document
B. Skeleton class
C. XML Schema
D. SOAP messages
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
A SOAP file cannot include which of the following?
A. DTD
B. Envelope
C. Body
D. Namespace
E. Processing instructions
Answer: A, E
Question 3.
All of the following are faultcode values defined in the SOAP 1 .1 Specification EXCEPT:
A. VersionMismatch
B. MustUnderstand
C. Client
D. Server
E. Network
Answer: E
Question 4.
Valid reasons to use a Schema rather than a DTD when defining an XML document include all of the following EXCEPT which?
A. Schemas are more widely used.
B. Schemas are described with XML syntax.
C. Schemas are used to validate documents on content as well as data types.
D. Schemas are capable of using namespaces.
Answer: A
Question 5.
An application is designed to allow a customer to order concert tickets through a Web Service, If all other factors are identical, which scenario is LEAST likely to be appropriate for this application?
A. Asynchronous Messaging
B. Request/Response
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. Conversational Message Exchange
Answer: A
Question 6.
Which Web Services specification is most similar to a Java interlace?
A. UDDI
B. SOAP
C. WSDL
D. ebXML
Answer: C
Question 7.
The APIS used with JAXM applications are defined in which packages?
A. javax.xml.messaging
B. javax.xml.soap
C. javax.xml.rpc
D. javax.xmI.registry
Answer: A, B
Question 8.
An XML document that is valid:
A. complies with XML syntax rules and the constraints described in a DTD or Schema.
B. complies with XML syntax rules but not the constraints described in a DTD or Schema.
C. does not necessarily comply with XML syntax rules but only the constraints described in a
DTD or Schema.
D. does not necessarily comply with XML syntax rules or the constraints described in a DTD or
Schema, but can be parsed with an HTML browser.
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following is NOT a major element used to define a service in WSDL?
A. Types
B. Message
C. Port type
D. Service
F. Namespace
Answer: E
Question 10.
Which two scenarios will always result in the init method of a servlet being invoked?
A. Every time a new client accesses the servlet
B. When the server automatically reloads the servlet
C. When an HTTP INIT type request is made by a client
D. When the servlet is put into service after loading and instantiation
Answer: B, D
Question 11.
It four classes were instantiated in the following order, implementing the associated event listener, in what order would they be notified if the application were shut down?
CustomConnectionManager implements HttpSessionListener
CustomerManager implements ServletContextListener
OrderManager implements HttpSessionListener
ShoppingCartManager implements HttpSessionListener
A. ShoppingCartManager, OrderManager, CustomerConnectionManager, CustomerManager
B. ShoppingCartManager, CustomerManager, OrderManager, CustomConnectionManager
C. CustomerManager, ShoppingCartManager, OrderManager, CustomConnectionManager
D. CustomerManager, CustomConnectionManager, OrderManager, ShoppingCartManager
Answer: A
Question 12.
What is the best scope in which to store an object containing display data that is to be sent from a servlet acting as a controller to a JSP page with the session disabled?
A. page
B. request
C. session
D. application/servletContext
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which of the following is considered the best way to design a flexible API that does not require a servlet per activity?
A. Embed the activity name in a hidden field. Let the servlet read the field to determine what must
occur.
B. Create a query string containing the activity name as a parameter. Let the servlet read the
parameter to determine what must occur.
C. Use a servlet mapping to make requests with the same suffix. Change the prefix to the action
and let the servlet read the whole URL to determine what is required.
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which interface should an object implement in order to be notified that it is about to be added to or removed from the session?
A. HttpSessionBindingListener
B. HttpsessionActivationListener
C. HttpSessionAttributeListener
D. EventListener
Answer: A
Question 15.
A client has accessed a servlet via a form that uses an HTTP POST request. Which two methods could be used by the servlet to obtain information input within the form?
A. Using the servlet object’s getServletlnfo method
B. Using the request objects getAttribute method
C. Using the request objects getParameter method
D. Using the ServletConfig’s getlnitParameter method
E. Using the request objects getParametervalues method
F. Using the request objects getAttributeValues method
Answer: C, E
Question 16.
A client browser has cookies turned oft and is interacting with a servlet that is using HTTP sessions for client state management.
According to J2EE Patterns best practices1 which technique or technology should be used by the servlet programmer in order to maintain this client state?
A. Servlet filters
B. Servlet events
C. URL encoding
D. Use of persistent sessions
E. Creation of a new session at the beginning of the service method
F. Hidden fields
G. Client-side certificates
Answer: C
Question 17.
A servlet has been configured in a deployment descriptor file with servlet-specific initialization parameters.
Through which interlace can a servlet access these initialization parameters?
A. ServletConfig
B. ServletContext
C. HttpServletRequest
D. HttpServletResponse
Answer: A
Question 18.
Given the following HTML form on a Web page:
If the user who is presented with this form simply clicks the Submit button without updating any fields, what URL (and associated query string) will the browser attempt to access?
A. http://localhost:7001/phoneflook%Iast=Smith?first=John?phone=4567890
B. http://localhost:7001/phoneBook?text=Smith&text=John&number=4567690
C. http://localhost700l/phoneBook?Last Name=Smith&First Name=John&Phone
Number=4567890
D. http:ilocalhost700l/phoneBook?last=Smith&first=John&phone=4567890
E. http://localhost700h/phoneflook (with no associated query string)
Answer: D
Question 19.
A running Filter must call what method in order to ensure that the next filter in the filter chain is called?
A. Servlet.doFilter(Request,Response)
B. FilterChain.doFilter(Request,Response);
C. Filter.doFilter(Request,Response);
D. Servlet.doChain(Request,Response);
E. Filter.doChain(Request,Response);
F. FilterChain.doChain(Request,Response);
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which three of the following may be contained in a WAR file?
A. Enterprise JavaBeans
B. Servlets
C. JavaServer Pages
D. Applets
E. Client-side Java applications
Answer: B, C, D
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Question 1 Which of the following statements about the Level 1 cache is true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Also known as external cache, it is included in every CPU. B. Also known as internal cache, it is included in every CPU. C. It eliminates the need to wait for the data to be fetched from DRAM. D. It uses low-speed memory chips for caching. Answer: B,C Explanation: The Level 1 cache is a type of RAM that is included in a CPU. All the commands for the CPU go through the cache. It stores a backlog of the commands so that, if a wait state is encountered, the CPU can continue to process data by using the commands from the cache. It improves computer performance by eliminating the need to wait for data to be fetched from DRAM. The Level 1 cache is also known as internal cache. What is wait state? Wait state is a condition in which a microprocessor waits for DRAM to get information. This slows down computer operations. When a computer runs without encountering a wait state, it runs faster. This is known as a zero wait state operation. Answer option A is incorrect. The Level 2 cache is mounted directly on the motherboard, outside the CPU. It is also known as external cache. Answer option D is incorrect. Cache RAM uses high-speed memory chips, known as SRAM, for caching. Question 2 Which of the following should be included in the server baseline document? A. Date of server purchase B. Server response time C. Disk performance statistics D. Network bandwidth Answer: B,C Explanation: The following should be included in the server baseline document: Server response time Disk performance statistics Baseline is a document that contains performance statistics for computers and other devices in the network. Administrators record a device's baseline performance when they add the device to the network. This document is very helpful in comparing a device's performance on any given day to the baseline. It helps administrators determine if a device is operating properly. Answer options A and D are incorrect. The dates of server purchase and server response time have nothing to do with the server baseline. 2 Question 3 Which of the following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A. Putting a lock on the server room's door B. Using a phrase for the server password C. Using personal information in the server room password D. Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Answer: C,D Explanation: The following practices should be avoided in order to prevent your server's security from being compromised: Writing the server password on a paper for self reminder Using personal information in the server room password. The personal information, such as phone number and date of birth, can be guessed easily by unauthorized users. Answer options B and A are incorrect. Using a phrase for the server password and putting a lock on the server room's door are good practices for keeping your server secure. Question 4 When you start your computer, Windows operating system reports that the hard disk drive has bad sectors. What will be your first step in resolving this issue? A. Run DEFRAG on the hard drive. B. Run SCANDISK with the Thorough option. C. Run the FORMAT command from DOS prompt. D. Replace the data cable of the hard disk drive. Answer: B Explanation: Running SCANDISK with the Thorough option should be your first step in resolving this issue. With Thorough option, SCANDISK checks files and folders for errors. It also checks the physical integrity of the disk surface. When SCANDISK encounters a bad sector, it tries to fix the sector. Answer option A is incorrect. DEFRAG, a Windows-based utility, is used to reorganize files on a disk to optimize disk performance. Answer options C is incorrect. The FORMAT command is used to format disks. It will not help in resolving the issue. Answer option D is incorrect. The data cable is used to transfer data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "How ScanDisk Fixes Bad Sectors [Q103956]" 3 Question 5 Which of the following protocols is used to send e-mail between two mail servers? A. NNTP B. SMTP C. IMAP D. SNMP Answer: B Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to send e-mail between two mail servers. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol for sending e-mail messages between servers. Emailing systems use this protocol to send mails over the Internet. SMTP works on the application layer of the TCP/IP or OSI reference model. The SMTP client typically initiates a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection to the SMTP server on the well-known port designated for SMTP, port number 25. However, e- mail clients require POP or IMAP to retrieve mails from e-mail servers. Answer option D is incorrect. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. Answer option A is incorrect. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post, distribute, and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet. Answer option C is incorrect. IMAP stands for Internet Message Access Protocol. This protocol helps to retrieve e-mail messages stored on a shared e-mail server. Through this protocol, a user can use a client e-mail program/Mail User Agent (MUA) for downloading an e-mail from the shared server. A user can also use this protocol to edit or delete an e-mail from the shared e-mail server. An example of the IMAP protocol is the POP3 protocol that is quite simple and used for retrieving e-mails from a mail server. Reference: "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol" Question 6 What other backup mode must be used while creating a differential backup? A. Daily backup B. Incremental backup C. Sequential backup D. Full backup 4 Answer: D Explanation: Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Chapter 12 - Backup" Question 7 Which of the following serial bus specifications is also known as Firewire? A. DIN B. RS-232 C. IEEE 1394 D. IEEE 1284 Answer: C Explanation: IEEE 1394 is a high-speed serial bus that provides enhanced PC connectivity for a wide range of devices. These devices include consumer audiovisual components, traditional PC storage devices, and handheld devices. IEEE 1394 is also known as Firewire. Answer option A is incorrect. DIN is a type of connector that is used in standard 101-key IBM-style keyboards. Answer option B is incorrect. RS-232 standard is a specification for serial communication ports, also known as COM ports, serial ports, or RS- 232 ports, and is used to connect RS-232 compatible serial devices, such as modems and pointing devices to a computer. Answer option D is incorrect. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 1284 is a specification of a printer cable used to take advantage of bi-directional printing. Typically, bi-directional cables have the number 1284 printed on them. Question 8 Which of the following statements is true about a polymorphic virus? 5 A. This type of virus hides system files. B. It copies itself onto the boot sector of hard disk drives. C. It has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. D. It is a type of virus that removes access permissions from files. Answer: C Explanation: Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads virus into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code, this changes the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Reference: TechNet, Contents: "Security Threats" Question 9 Which of the following cables are used to connect one computer to another? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. SCSI cable B. 10Base2 cable C. Parallel cable D. Serial cable Answer: B,C,D Explanation: You can connect computers to communicate with each other using any one of the following cables: 10Base2 cable Parallel cable Serial cable What is 10Base2? 10Base2 is a type of cable, also known as Thinnet Coax. The maximum length of a 10base2 cable network can be 185 meters . 10Base2 cable is used in Bus topology. 10Base2 network uses the British Naval Connector (BNC) along with the T connectors to connect to the LAN card. What is a parallel data cable? A standard parallel data cable consists of twenty-five wires that transfer data one byte at a time. Each wire terminates in a connector called a pin, so it is often referred to as a 25-pin connector. The 8-bits that make up each byte travel in parallel mode across eight of the twenty-five wires. The parallel channel is fast, reliable and preferred way to connect printers and other external devices to a computer. A standard parallel data cable has a DB-25 connector on one end and a Centronics connector on the other end. Answer option A is incorrect. SCSI cable is used to connect mass storage devices to a computer. What is SCSI? Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many users access 6 shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3. Question 10 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. During the boot process, a server displays a POST error. Which of the following actions can Mark take to identify the problem? A. Check the security log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. B. Call the helpdesk of the operating system's vendor. C. Check the system log of the operating system for the BIOS error code. D. Refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. Answer: D Explanation: In order to identify the problem, Mark can refer to the server documentation for the BIOS error code. The server documentation contains information about BIOS error codes. The manufacturer of the server provides the server documentation. Answer option C is incorrect. The system log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store events logged by the operating system components. For example, events such as driver failure during startup are recorded in the system log. Answer option A is incorrect. The security log of the operating system does not contain information about BIOS error codes. The system log is used to store security-related events. Answer option B is incorrect. The helpdesk of the operating system's vendor cannot provide any help regarding a BIOS error.
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