|
Question 1. Which two stand-alone programs can monitor system activity and detect keystrokes? (Choose two.) A. Trojan B. Worm C. Adware D. Spyware E. Joke programs Answer: A, D Question 2. Which type of Symantec Client Security client do you create when you remotely install using the ClientRemote Install tool? A. fully managed B. web managed C. lightly managed D. sometime managed Answer: A Question 3. Which Symantec System Center menu choice can you use to delete quarantined files on managed clients? A. Threat History B. Quarantine Options C. Virus Definition Manager D. Client Administrator Only Options Answer: A Question 4. Which two Symantec Client Security tasks can you perform from the Symantec System Center? (Choose two.) A. view activity logs B. create inbound firewall rules C. scan for network vulnerabilities D. configure LiveUpdate for client machines Answer: A, D Question 5. Which Norton Anti Spam component should you select to view the number of blocked spam messages? A. Filtering B. Statistics C. LiveUpdate D. Status & Settings Answer: B Question 6. Place each migration step in the order in which you perform an upgrade from an earlier version of Symantec Client Security. Order Steps in order Installation steps Answer: Order Steps in order Question 7. Where does the Live Update Administration utility store virus definition packages? A. the local server B. all primary servers C. the Master Primary Server D. all Symantec Antivirus servers Answer: A Question 8. Which Symantec System Center context should you select to configure scheduled and manual cans for the server and its unassigned clients? A. Server B. Client group C. Server group D. Primary server E. System hierarchy Answer: A Question 9. You make changes to the Symantec Anti Virus Auto-Protect settings at the server group level. You notice that none of the client Auto-Protect settings have changed on the client systems. What could cause this problem? A. You did not lock the options B. You did not restart the server C. You did not select Update Clients D. You did not install the Client Configuration service Answer: A Question 10. Your office has the following computer systems 100 Windows XP Professional 25 Windows 95 50 Windows NT4.0 1 Windows 98 How many systems in your office can you protect with Norton Anti Spam? A. 26 B. 75 C. 101 D. 151 E. 175 Answer: C Question 11. Which three types of email content will trigger the Norton Anti Spam AutoBlock feature? (Choose three.) A. invisible text B. macro viruses C. remote images D. disguised Web links Answer: A, C, D Question 12. What will Symantec Anti Virus Threat Tracer identify? A. IP address of the hacker B. IP addresses of all infected clients C. IP address of the source of the infected file D. domain address of the source of the infected file Answer: C Question 13. In which way can you categorize Symantec Client Security rules? A. user B. unlocked C. read-only D. decrypted Answer: B Question 14. Which two lists can you create using Norton Anti Spam "Allowed and Blocked Lists"? (Choose two.) A. domains that you cannot send email to B. email addresses that you cannot send email to C. domains that will never be considered sources of spam D. email addresses that will never be considered sourC8S of spam Answer: C, D Question 15. You have three Symantec Anti Virus roaming servers: SAV1, SAV2, SAV3. You want to configure your roaming clients to use these servers with load balancing. Which syntax do you use to enter the server names as load balancing servers in the Symantec System Center Client Roaming Options? A. SAV1>SAV2>SAV3 B. SAV1
|
Question 1. Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system? A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of security products. B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP Open View to lower the cost of implementation. C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch. D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" Basis to reduce management overhead. E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the return on investment. Answer: A Question 2. DRAG DROP Drop Answer: Question 3. Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer? A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution B. determining what end-user training a customer requires C. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco technologies to meet business requirements D. addressing a customer's physical requirements Answer: C Question 4. What are two important approaches to communicate when identifying a customer's security risks? (Choose two.) A. Security should be a continuous process. B. Security solutions should come from multiple vendors to make it easier to coordinate security events from the point of origin. C. The designated security expert should report to the IT department, since that is where the solution will be implemented. D. Business strategy should directly relate to the security policy and budget. E. Smaller companies are at less risk than larger enterprises, so their security needs are not as great. Answer: A, D Question 5. Which of the following best describe the customer benefit of creating a systems acceptance test plan in the design phase? A. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and Efficient set of processes B. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system C. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on Its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy D. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements Answer: D Question 6. A Cisco Catalyst switch can belong to how many VTP domains? A. 2 B. 1 to 4,096 C. 1 D. 1 to 1,005 E. no limit Answer: C Question 7. The Cisco ASA Security Appliance can offer the benefit of integrating which three security services into one device? (Choose three.) A. PIX firewall B. VPN Concentrator C. IPS D. DDoS Anomaly Guard and Detector E. CSA MC F. ACS server Answer: A, B, C Question 8. A customer has deployed a wireless core feature set using autonomous access points and now wants to include a satellite building 4,500 feet away from the main campus. The customer also wants to provide wireless access to a courtyard for wireless clients in close proximity to the antenna mounting position. Which Cisco Aironet product is the most applicable solution? A. Cisco Aironet 1000 Series B. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series C. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series D. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series E. Cisco Aironet 1200 Series Answer: B Question 9. What is one benefit of the Cisco anti-X defense strategy? A. virtual firewall protection B. malware, virus, and worm mitigation C. applications security D. security events correlation for proactive response Answer: B Question 10. Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of Cisco's wireless IDS functionality? (Choose two.) A. Autonomous APs must be dedicated IDS sensors while lightweight APs can combine client traffic and RF monitoring. B. Cisco or CCX compatible client cards can extend the RF IDS service for autonomous APs. C. 2.4GHz RF management can monitor both 802.11 and non-802.11 RF interference. D. APs only monitor the RF channels that are servicing the clients. E. AirDefense for wireless IDS is required by autonomous APs. Answer: B, C
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.