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Question 1. The Java Collaboration Editor allows for: A. Exactly one input source ETD and one output destination ETD structure B. One or more input/output source/destination ETD event structures C. No ETDs at all D. None of the above Answer: B Question 2. Which of the following steps are required to import Java Packages into the Java Collaboration? A. Set the user class path to the jar or zip file B. Create a rule pointing to the jar or zip file C. Copy the package name to the etd folder D. Specify the package classes in the Java Imports section Answer: A, D Question 3. What code is generated when copying the field OrderInfo.ItemData from within an instance called DataIn to the field OrderInfo.ItemData in an instance called Data Out? A. getDataIn().getOrderInfo().setItemData(DataOut(getDataIn().getOrderInfo().getItemData)) B. getDataOut().getOrderInfo().setItemData(getDataIn().getOrderInfo().getItemData()) C. setDataOut().setOrderInfo().setItemData() D. getDataOut.setItemData(getItemData) Answer: B Question 4. A common method used in mailclient.xsc to transmit outgoing eMail messages is: A. sendmail() B. next() C. send() D. sendMessage() Answer: D Question 5. What are the methods associated with Java Exception Handling: A. try(), catch() and finally() B. try(), catch() and otherwise() C. try(), otherwise() and finally() D. otherwise(), finally() and catch() Answer: A Question 6. The e*Gate IQ Administrator installation is a part of which installation? A. The e*Gate Registry Host installation B. The e*Gate Participating Host installation C. The e*Gate GUI Host installation D. None of the above Answer: C Question 7. What GUI application is used to gain access to the JMS Administrator tool? A. e*Gate Enterprise Manager GUI B. e*Gate Monitor GUI C. Standard IQ Administrator tool D. None of the above Answer: B Question 8. How many logging levels are available? A. 1 B. 5 C. 7 D. 11 Answer: C Question 9. The log entry "Failed to Move Forward" is usually associated with what type of error? A. Mapping B. Invalid Java code C. Invalid Event Type name D. Faulty connection Answer: A Question 10. The default location of log files is: A.\client\logs B. \server\logs C. \logs D. None of the above Answer: A Question 11. In e*Gate 4.5, a Schema must contain: A. Two Control Broker Services B. Primary and Secondary Registry Hosts C. Primary and Secondary Participating Hosts D. None of the above Answer: D Question 12. With the e*Gate 4.5 Enterprise Manager GUI you may export: A. One or more components of a Schema B. A Schema .zip file into a Schema .rdb file C. All Schemas into a single export file D. None of the above Answer: A Question 13. The e*Gate GUI Host may be installed on which supported platforms? A. Windows 98 B. Windows 2000 C. Unix HP (via Exceed) D. None of the above Answer: B Question 14. The role of the Control Broker component is to: A. Start and stop processes B. Selectively forward alert, status, and configuration messages to the appropriate GUIs C. Collect log events and insert them into the logs database D. None of the above Answer: A, B Question 15. By default, the range of the port number for the Control Broker on all newly created Schemas is: A. 6000-6500 B. 5000-5500 C. 2000-2500 D. None of the above Answer: B
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Question 1.
You are the network consultant from Your company. Please point out two requirements call for the deployment of 802.1X.
A. Authenticate users on switch or wireless ports
B. Grant or Deny network access at the port level, based on configured authorization policies
C. Allow network access during the queit period
D. Verify security posture using TACAS+
Answer: A, B
Question 2.
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a dynamic routing protocol for use in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. An OSPF router on the network is running at an abnormally high CPU rate. By use of different OSPF debug commands on Router, the network administrator determines that router is receiving many OSPF link state packets from an unknown OSPF neighbor, thus forcing many OSPF path recalculations and affecting router's CPU usage.
Which OSPF configuration should the administrator enable to preent this kind of attack on the Router?
A. Multi-Area OSPF
B. OSPF stub Area
C. OSPF MD5 Authentication
D. OSPF not-so-stubby Area
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which one of the following Cisco Security Management products is able to perform (syslog) events normalization?
A. Cisco IME
B. Cisco Security Manager
C. Cisco ASDM
D. Cisco Security MARS
Answer: D
Question 4.
Can you tell me which one of the following platforms has the highest IPSec throughput and can support the highest number of tunnels?
A. Cisco 6500/7600 + VPN SPA
B. Cisco ASR 1000-5G
C. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VSA
D. Cisco 7200 NPE-GE+VAM2+
Answer: A
Question 5.
Which two methods can be used to perform IPSec peer authentication? (Choose two.)
A. One-time Password
B. AAA
C. Pre-shared key
D. Digital Certificate
Answer: C, D
Question 6.
Cisco Security Agent is the first endpoint security solution that combines zero-update attack protection, data loss prevention and signature-based antivirus in a single agent. This unique blend of capabilities defends servers and desktops against sophisticated day-zero attacks and enforces acceptable-use and compliance policies within a simple management infrastructure.
What are three functions of CSA in helping to secure customer environments?
A. Control of executable content
B. Identification of vulnerabilities
C. Application Control
D. System hardening
Answer: A, C, D
Question 7.
Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) is an access policy control platform that helps you comply with growing regulatory and corporate requirements.
Which three of these items are features of the Cisco Secure Access Control Server?
A. NDS
B. RSA Certificates
C. LDAP
D. Kerberos
Answer: A, B, C
Question 8.
Observe the following protocols carefully, which one is used to allow the utilization of Cisco Wide Area Application Engines or Cisco IronPort S-Series web security appliances to localize web traffic patterns I the network and to enable the local fulfillment of content requests?
A. TLS
B. DTLS
C. WCCP
D. HTTPS
Answer: C
Question 9.
Which one is not the factor can affect the risk rating of an IPS alert?
A. Relevance
B. Attacker location
C. Event severity
D. Signature fidelity
Answer: B
Question 10.
For the following items, which two are differences between symmetric and asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)
A. Asymmetric encryption is slower than symmetric encryption
B. Asymmetric encryption is more suitable than symmetric encryption for real-time bulk encryption
C. Symmetric encryption is used in digital signatures and asymmetric encryption is used in
HMACs
D. Asymmetric encryption requires a much larger key size to achieve the same level of protection
as asymmetric encryption
Answer: A, D
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