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Question 1. A medium sized company has a small SAN with three Thunder 9580V subsystems. They have purchased HiCommand Device Manager as a way to centrally manage the storage. You dispatch HiCommand Device Manager agents on each server on their SAN. What are two advantages of adding the agents to the servers? (Choose two.) A. to provision host-side storage B. to retrieve HBA performance metrics C. to retrieve information about the visible storage on the host D. to retrieve zoning information from the Fibre Channel switch Answer: A, C Question 2. HDS Adaptable Modular Storage models (AMS200 and AMS500) provide efficient cost-effective storage for medium and small businesses. Which three attributes characterize the AMS product line? (Choose three.) A. high availability B. cache partitioning C. ease of management D. large-scale virtualization E. heterogeneous storage consolidation Answer: A, B, C Question 3. Which three tools or resources are used to script Shadow Image operations? (Choose three.) A. HORCM files B. CMD devices C. Raid Manager D. Storage Navigator E. Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager Answer: A, B, C Question 4. TrueCopy offers synchronous and asynchonous capabilities. What are two advantages of synchronous operation? (Choose two.) A. no data loss B. faster disaster recovery C. supports longer distances D. lesser impact on host performance Answer: A, B Question 5. A Hitachi Data Systems customer's IT department cannot determine why they are experiencing an application performance bottleneck. They need a tool which will allow them to monitor and analyze all hardware and software components that support the application. Which software tool will accomplish this task? A. Performance Maximizer B. HiCommand Tuning Manager C. HiCommand Device Manager D. HiCommand Tiered Storage Manager Answer: B Question 6. HiCommand Tuning Manager has an export functionality that exports the data collected from network resources and applications into an external file. Which format is used by the HiCommand Tuning Manager's export functionality? A. XML B. HTML C. Tab Separated Values (TVS) D. Comma Separated Values (CVS) Answer: D Question 7. Which two are core functionalities of the HiCommand Tuning Manager software? (Choose two.) A. auto-failover B. failure monitoring C. resource analysis D. hardware management Answer: B, C Question 8. What are two values that HiCommand Device Manager software provides about storage management? (Choose two.) A. an error reporting interface to the HiTrack software B. performance data on the HDS storage subsystems C. storage provisioning across multiple operating systems D. a single point to manage multiple storage systems over multiple HDS platforms Answer: C, D Question 9. Which two additional license based features can be enabled on an AMS storage subsystem using the Storage Navigator Modular GUI? (Choose two.) A. HiTrack B. True Copy C. Hitachi Graph Track D. Hitachi Data Retention Utility Answer: B, D Question 10. You have created a P-Vol/S-Vol pair. Which two commands can you use to check that the P-Vol and S-Vol are synchronized? (Choose two.) A. raidscan B. paircheck C. pairstatus D. pairdisplay Answer: A, D Question 11. ITCertKeys.com wishes to minimize disruptions due to planned or unplanned outages. Which two features of Hitachi Copy-on-Write Snapshot facilitate these requirements? (Choose two) A. metadata cache copy B. background copy of data to snapshot C. non-disruptive backups from a Copy-on-Write Snapshot V-Vol D. periodic point-in-time copies for rapid restore of corrupted data Answer: C, D Question 12. An AMS500 is able to connect to a port of a TagmaStore USP storage array, providing storage virtualization. USP ports that are dedicated to connecting to other storage arrays have a special descriptor. What is the correct name for this type of port? A. internal B. special C. modular D. external Answer: D Question 13. Which two additional license based features can be enabled on an AMS storage subsystem using the Storage Navigator Modular GUI? (Choose two.) A. HiTrack B. True Copy C. Hitachi Graph Track D. Hitachi Data Retention Utility Answer: B, D Question 14. ITCertKeys.com needs to immediately apply a security patch to an application and is worried about corrupting data in that process. Which local replication tool allows the immediate creation of a point-in-time copy of data that can be used for a restore in the event of data corruption? A. True Copy B. Shadow Image C. Quick Copy Plus D. Copy-on-Write Snapshot Answer: D Question 15. ITCertKeys.com has a WMS100 array to support an archiving solution. Archiving solutions are batch processes that have low performance requirements. Which configuration alternative is supported on the WMS100? A. SATA or FC disks B. one or two controllers C. one or two host FC ports per controller D. one or two back-end loops per controller Answer: B Question 16. An IT operations manager needs to forecast hardware purchases for the coming fiscal year. The manager has been assigned a HiCommand Tuning Manager login in order to accomplish this task. Which security level is appropriate for the manager? A. users B. operators C. managers D. administrators Answer: A Question 17. ITCertKeys.com is using a 9585V storage array and is evaluating whether to upgrade to an AMS500 for performance reasons. Which statement is true? A. The AMS500 supports larger drive sizes. B. The AMS500 provides more back-end loops. C. The AMS500 supports faster back-end loops. D. The AMS500 supports faster Fibre Channel host connections. Answer: D Question 18. IT centers running business applications on MS Windows 2003 servers often need to run in a clustered configuration to support Service Level Agreements (SLA). Which two cluster environments are supported by Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager for modular storage? (Choose two.) A. Oracle RAC B. TruCluster Server C. Veritas Cluster Server D. Novel Netware Cluster Server Answer: A, C Question 19. ITCertKeys.com has a high performance application that creates a bottleneck at the front-end ports. Which two arrays are supported Hitachi Data Systems configurations? (Choose two.) A. AMS500 with four 4Gb/s host ports B. AMS500 with eight 2Gb/s host ports C. Thunder 9585V with four 4Gb/s host ports D. Thunder 9585V with eight 2Gb/s host ports Answer: A, D Question 20. ITCertKeys.com requires an array that can sustain a power outage without losing write data in cache. Which two ways does an HDS modular array protect write data in cache? (Choose two.) A. cache RAID 5 B. battery backup C. mirror write I/O to NVRAM D. mirror write I/O to other controller's cache Answer: B, D
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Question 1. Which of these is a benefit of an integrated security management system? A. It provides configuration, monitoring, and troubleshooting capabilities across a wide range of security products. B. It leverages existing network management systems such as HP Open View to lower the cost of implementation. C. It integrates security management capabilities into the router or switch. D. It integrates security device management products and collects events on an "as needed" Basis to reduce management overhead. E. It provides a single point of contact for all security configuration tasks thereby enhancing the return on investment. Answer: A Question 2. DRAG DROP Drop Answer: Question 3. Which service component within the prepare phase recommends the appropriate technology strategy to address a business requirement of the customer? A. identifying what a customer requires from a proposed solution B. determining what end-user training a customer requires C. analyzes the customer's business requirements and recommends the appropriate Cisco technologies to meet business requirements D. addressing a customer's physical requirements Answer: C Question 4. What are two important approaches to communicate when identifying a customer's security risks? (Choose two.) A. Security should be a continuous process. B. Security solutions should come from multiple vendors to make it easier to coordinate security events from the point of origin. C. The designated security expert should report to the IT department, since that is where the solution will be implemented. D. Business strategy should directly relate to the security policy and budget. E. Smaller companies are at less risk than larger enterprises, so their security needs are not as great. Answer: A, D Question 5. Which of the following best describe the customer benefit of creating a systems acceptance test plan in the design phase? A. reduce operating costs and limit change-related incidents by providing a consistent and Efficient set of processes B. improve the return on investment and hasten migration by identifying and planning for necessary infrastructure changes and resource additions, as well as reduce deployment costs by analyzing gaps early in the planning process to determine what is needed to support the system C. improve its ability to make sound financial decisions by developing a business case based on Its business requirements and establishing a basis for developing a technology strategy D. reduce unnecessary disruption, delays, rework, and other problems by establishing test cases for use in verifying that the system meets operational, functional, and interface requirements Answer: D Question 6. A Cisco Catalyst switch can belong to how many VTP domains? A. 2 B. 1 to 4,096 C. 1 D. 1 to 1,005 E. no limit Answer: C Question 7. The Cisco ASA Security Appliance can offer the benefit of integrating which three security services into one device? (Choose three.) A. PIX firewall B. VPN Concentrator C. IPS D. DDoS Anomaly Guard and Detector E. CSA MC F. ACS server Answer: A, B, C Question 8. A customer has deployed a wireless core feature set using autonomous access points and now wants to include a satellite building 4,500 feet away from the main campus. The customer also wants to provide wireless access to a courtyard for wireless clients in close proximity to the antenna mounting position. Which Cisco Aironet product is the most applicable solution? A. Cisco Aironet 1000 Series B. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series C. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series D. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series E. Cisco Aironet 1200 Series Answer: B Question 9. What is one benefit of the Cisco anti-X defense strategy? A. virtual firewall protection B. malware, virus, and worm mitigation C. applications security D. security events correlation for proactive response Answer: B Question 10. Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of Cisco's wireless IDS functionality? (Choose two.) A. Autonomous APs must be dedicated IDS sensors while lightweight APs can combine client traffic and RF monitoring. B. Cisco or CCX compatible client cards can extend the RF IDS service for autonomous APs. C. 2.4GHz RF management can monitor both 802.11 and non-802.11 RF interference. D. APs only monitor the RF channels that are servicing the clients. E. AirDefense for wireless IDS is required by autonomous APs. Answer: B, C
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