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Question 1. Which of the following access methods does Ethernet use? A. Token passing B. Full duplex C. CSMA / CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance) D. CSMA / CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection) Answer: D Question 2. Which protocol uses domain name resolution to find addresses? A. TCP / IP Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol) B. IPX / SPX (Internet work Packet Exchange / Sequence Packet Exchange) C. NetBEUI (Network Basic Input / Output Extended User Interface) D. AppleTalk Answer: A Question 3. ( ) is a kind of broadcast, through which the host can dynamically discover the MAC address corresponding to one IP address A. ARP B. DNS C. ICMP D. RARP Answer: A Question 4. IEEE802.3 Ethernet adopts ( ) to support bus topology, it is abbreviated from ( ). A. STP Spanning Tree Protocol B. STP Shortest Tree Protocol C. CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multicast Access/Collision Detection D. CSMA/CD Carrier Sent Multicast Access/CRC Detection E. CSMA/CD Carrier Service Multiple Access/Collision Detection F. CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection Answer: B Question 5. The basic functions of transport layer are: A. Segment upper-layer data B. Create end-to-end connection C. Transmit data from the host at one end to the host at the other end D. Ensure the stability of data transmission Answer: A, B, C, D Question 6. The principle used to evaluate the routing algorithm does NOT include ( ) A. Fast convergence B. Flexibility C. Advancement in topology structure D. If the path selected is the best Answer: C Question 7. In the router, which of the following command can be used to view the routing table of a router ( ) A. ARP -A B. TRACERT C. ROUTE PRINT D. DISPLAY IP ROUTING-TABLE Answer: D Question 8. Input display interface on Huawei Quidway router, and which of the following information you will see? A. The descriptions about the interface B. The route information concerning the said interface C. Error statistics D. Interface status Answer: A, C, D Question 9. Which of the following authentication algorithms are used for ppp authentication? A. MD5 B. PAP C. CHAP D. IPsec Answer: B, C Question 10. RouterA and RouterB are connected by serial interface. The configuration of router A is as below: [Quidway1]display current-configuration Now create configuration... Current configuration ! version 1.74 local-user huawei service-type ppp password simple quidway firewall enable sysname Quidway1 ! interface Aux0 async mode flow phy-mru 0 link-protocol ppp ! interface Ethernet0 ip address 1.1.1.1 255.0.0.0 ! interface Serial0 clock DTECLK1 link-protocol ppp ppp authentication-mode chap ppp chap user hw ip address 2.1.1.1 255.0.0.0 ! interface Serial1 link-protocol ppp ! quit ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 2.1.1.2 preference 60 ! return The configuration of router B is as below: [Quidway2]display current-configuration Now create configuration... Current configuration ! version 1.74 local-user hw service-type ppp password simple quidway firewall enable sysname Quidway2 encrypt-card fast-switch ! interface Aux0 async mode flow phy-mru 0 link-protocol ppp ! interface Ethernet0 ip address 3.1.1.1 255.0.0.0 ! interface Serial0 link-protocol ppp ppp chap user huawei ppp chap password simple quidway ip address 2.1.1.2 255.0.0.0 ! interface Serial1 link-protocol ppp ! quit ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 2.1.1.1 preference 60 ! return WAN stands for serial link between RouterA serial interface and RouterB serial interface. LAN stands for the link between RouterA Ethernet interface and RouterB Ethernet interface. Which of the following statements is true ( ) A. Both WAN and LAN can be connected B. Neither WAN, nor LAN can be connected C. The WAN on two ends can be connected, while LAN can not D. The WAN on two ends can not be connected, while LAN can be connected Answer: C Question 11. Frame-relay is a ( ) protocol A. connection-oriented B. network C. connectionless D. reliable Answer: A Question 12. What is the meaning of the number "7" in the command "fr map ip 10.1.1.1 dlci 7 broadcast"? A. The number of local logic channel B. The number of local DLCI C. The number of interface at the opposite end D. The number of node at the opposite end Answer: B Question 13. In RIP protocol, which of the following parameter is used to computes metric ( ) A. MTU B. Delay C. Bandwidth D. Route hop count Answer: D Question 14. The dynamic routing protocol has advantages over the static routing in: A. Less bandwidth occupation B. Simplicity C. The router can discern the network changes automatically D. The router can compute new routes automatically Answer: C, D Question 15. Which of the following commands to configure default route is correct? A. [Quidway]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1 B. [Quidway]ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.1 C. [Quidway-serial0]ip router-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1 D. [Quidway]ip router-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1 Answer: A Question 16. Exhibit: E0 and E1 of a Quidway router are connected to two network sections. E0 (its IP address is 10.1.1.1 and its subnet mask is 255.255.255.0) is connected to network A, and E1 (its IP address is 10.1.2.1 and its subnet mask is 255.255.255.0) is connected to network B Question: which of the following hosts can ping host successfully in network A? A. A host in network A whose IP address is 10.1.1.12 and subnet mask is 255.255.0.0 B. A host in network A whose IP address is 10.1.2.16 and subnet mask is 255.255.0.0 C. A host in network B whose IP address is 10.1.2.14 and subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 D. A host in network A whose IP address is 10.1.1.8 and subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 Answer: A, C, D Question 17. The range of the numeric ID of the standard access control list is( ) A. 1~50 B. 1~99 C. 1~100 D. 1~199 E. Specified by the network management staff Answer: B Question 18. The access control list [Quidway] acl 100 [Quidway-acl-100] rule permit ip source 129.38.1.1 0.0.255.255 destination 202.38.5.2 0.0.0.0, means: A. Permit host 129.38.1.1 to access host 202.38.5.2 B. Permit 129.38.0.0 network to access network 202.38.0.0 C. Permit host 202.38.5.2 to access network 129.38.0.0 D. Permit 129.38.0.0 network to access host 202.38.5.2 Answer: D Question 19. To check the application of access control list at a specified interface, which of the following commands is required? A. display acl B. display acl all C. display acl acl-number D. display acl interface interface-type interface-number Answer: D Question 20. The fixed length part of IP packet header is ( ) bytes A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60 Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.
A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.
Answer: A, B, D
Question 2.
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "sic"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Compatibility check is done:
Module bootable impact install-type reason
--------- --------- ---------- ------- ----- ---------
2 yes non-disruptive rolling
3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported
5 yes non-disruptive reset
6 yes non-disruptive reset
Images will be upgraded according to following table:
Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required
--------- ------- ---------- ----------- ------ ----------
2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]
What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?
A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity
which could provide a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.
A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.
Answer: A, B, C
Question 4.
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN.
What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?
A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.
Answer: C
Flow based load balancing : all frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
Question 5.
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.
A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee
Answer: B, D
=> T11 for fiber channel, T10 for SCSI
Question 6.
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?
A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092
Answer: B
=> user-specific VSAN 2-4093
Question 7.
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?
A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio
Answer: C
=> FCIP profile for TCP port, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
Question 8.
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS.
What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?
A. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
name: VSAN 1009 state:active
interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
operational state:up.
Answer: D
=> interop mode 3 for Brocade 12000
Question 9.
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?
A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size
Answer: C
Question 10.
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:
A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array
Answer: B
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