|
Question 1.
Which statistics enable you to view the impact of SQL statements on input/output (I/O) statistics?
A. file statistics in Performance Manager
B. statistics obtained from the sar and vmstat commands
C. sorts and parse calls values in Top SQL
D. buffer gets and disk reads values in Top SQL
E. CPU chart group in Performance Manager
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which Oracle Net utility or tool is integrated with Oracle Enterprise Manager?
A. Oracle Net Configuration Assistant
B. Oracle Names Control utility
C. Oracle Connection Manager Control utility
D. Oracle Net Manager
E. Listener Control utility
Answer: D
Question 3.
You have specified the configuration in the sysctl.conf file. However, when you restart the system, Linux does not start.
Which statement describes the steps that you would take to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Use the root login to access the system in run level 6 and edit the /root/.bashrc file.
B. Use the root login to mount the file system and edit the sysctl.conf file.
C. Use the boot loader to enter the emergency mode and switch to run level 3.
D. Use the boot loader program to access the available kernels and recompile the kernel.
E. Use the single-user mode to access the /proc file system and edit the kernel parameters.
F. Use the boot loader program to boot into run level 1 and edit the sysctl.conf file.
Answer: F
Question 4.
Which operating system (OS) group normally manages the Oracle database files?
A. apache
B. oper
C. users
D. oinstall
E. root
F. dba
Answer: F
Question 5.
Which two statements are true about %user to %system ratio for Oracle server processes?
(Choose two.)
A. If the %user to %system ratio is less than 60/40, then you must look for input/output (I/O) or
virtual memory problems.
B. If the %user to %system ratio is less than 60/40, then you must check sar -wW for swapping
activity.
C. If the %user to %system ratio is greater than 60/40, then you must tune the application code.
D. If the %system to %user ratio is greater than 40/60, then you must measure the data flow
between disk devices.
E. If the %user to %system ratio is greater than 60/40, then you must run vmstat for switching
activity.
F. If the %system to %user ratio is greater than 40/60, then you must check the division of work
within the system.
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
You plan to start with an Oracle9i stand-alone database system and then upgrade to a Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment in the near future.
You need to ensure that the process of migrating an Oracle instance and database to enable RAC goes well.
Which file system would you recommend for the data files in the stand-alone database system?
A. ext3
B. ReiserFS
C. ext2
D. Oracle Cluster File System (OCFS)
E. General Parallel File System (GPFS)
F. Network File System (NFS)
Answer: D
Question 7.
Examine the following SELECT command:
SELECT sum(pga_alloc_mem) FROM V$PROCESS;
Which statement about this command is correct?
A. This command displays the PGA size of each process that is started up by the instance.
B. If this command displays low values, then increase the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET value.
C. This command displays the size of each SQL work area that is allocated to an instance.
D. This command displays the Program Global Area (PGA) size allocated to an instance.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which three methods can you use to correlate Statspack and operating system (OS) measurements? (Choose three.)
A. Use Oracle Enterprise Manager (OEM) Outline Management to manage plan stability outlines.
B. Use the at command to schedule the OS statistics through OEM.
C. Use the cron utility to schedule a job to collect database and OS statistics.
D. Use OEM Performance Manager to view and record OS statistics.
E. Print Statspack reports from sar .
F. Run Statspack and the sar task continuously.
Answer: C, D, F
Question 9.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose two.)
A. You can use OCFS for database files as well as general files.
B. There is no limit on the number of files on OCFS.
C. Standard file system commands, such as mkdir , rmdir , and mv , are available on OCFS.
D. You can create an OCFS on Logical Volume Manager (LVM).
E. You must modify Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
What are the four roles of the semaphores parameters? (Choose four.)
A. The semmsl parameter sets the maximum number of semaphores per set.
B. The semopm parameter sets the maximum number of operations per semop call.
C. The semopm parameter sets the total number of semaphores in the system.
D. The semmns parameter sets the total number of semaphores in the system.
E. The semmsl parameter sets the maximum number of semaphore sets.
F. The semmni parameter sets the maximum number of operations per semop call.
G. The semmns parameter sets the maximum number of semaphores per set.
H. The semmni parameter sets the maximum number of semaphore sets.
Answer: A, B, D, H
Question 11.
Which information about your system will help you to determine if CPU is a bottleneck?
(Choose three.)
A. bigpages
B. pages in
C. average load
D. load factor
E. number of CPUs
Answer: C, D, E
Question 12.
Which three statements about the root.sh script are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It updates the contents of the /etc/oraInst.loc file.
B. It must be executed as user oracle .
C. It changes the permissions on the dbsnmp executable.
D. It places the oraenv , coraenv , and dbhome scripts in the local bin directory.
E. It creates and populates the oratab file.
F. It must be run before running the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI).
Answer: C, D, E
Question 13.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose two.)
A. You can use OCFS partitions for archive logs.
B. OCFS is a file system designed specifically for Oracle on Linux operating system.
C. OCFS can be automatically mounted at startup.
D. You must modify Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
E. Linux developers cannot access OCFS source code.
Answer: A, C
Question 14.
All your sessions are using shared servers. Examine the following SQL command:
SELECT sum(value) FROM v$sesstat, v$statname
WHERE name = 'session uga memory'
AND v$sesstat.statistic# = v$statname.statistic#;
Which statement best describes this SQL command?
A. This SQL command enables you to monitor the PGA memory allocated from the shared pool.
B. This SQL command enables you to monitor memory usage by each user process.
C. This SQL command enables you to monitor system memory usage.
D. This SQL command enables you to monitor the Program Global Area (PGA) memory allocated
from the SGA memory.
E. This SQL command enables you to monitor overall memory usage.
Answer: D
Question 15.
You have successfully installed the Intelligent Agent (IA) on Oracle 9.2. You executed the following command to start the I A:
lsnrctl dbsnmp_start
You received the following error message:
NL-00853: undefined command "dbsnmp_start".
What would you do to rectify the problem and start IA ?
A. Set the TNS_ADMIN environment variable to point to the location of listener.ora and then
execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
B. Execute the agentctl start agent command.
C. Start the HTTP Server and then execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
D. Configure Oracle Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and then execute the lsnrctl
dbsnmp_start command.
E. Run the root.sh script and then execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
F. Create the snmp.ora file in Oracle home directory for the agent and then execute the lsnrctl
dbsnmp_start command.
Answer: B
Question 16.
You need to test the connection to a database by using the net service name orcl21. You executed the following tnsping command : tnsping orcl21.
Which three statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. If the net service name is not added to the tnsnames.ora file or to the name service in use,
then the command will return an error message.
B. The tnsping command tests if the database is up and running.
C. The tnsping command returns all the hops taken by the tns packet to reach the destination
service.
D. The tnsping command contacts the listener corresponding to the service name, and checks if
the listener is running.
E. The tnsping command connects to the database as user scott/tiger by default.
F. The tnsping command returns the time (in milliseconds) it took to reach the listener, if the
connection is successful.
Answer: A, D, F
Question 17.
You have created the automatic database startup script oracle_start in /etc/rc.d/init.d.
While starting up the server, you have been receiving the error service oracle_start does not support chkconfig .
What must you do to fix this error?
A. Place a copy of the oracle_start script in the rc2.d and rc3.d run level directories.
B. Include the line #chkconfig: 2345 20 90 in the oracle_start script.
C. Schedule a cron task to start up the database.
D. Specify the path to the startup script in the oratab file.
E. Run the root.sh script to add the script to the run level directories.
Answer: B
Question 18.
You are working in a multiple instance environment. In which file would you place references to
all the local databases so that Intelligent Agent can discover them?
A. oemclient.properties
B. emca.properties
C. omsconfig.properties
D. oratab
E. src.lst
Answer: D
Question 19.
Which four sources contribute to network traffic? (Choose four.)
A. Samba
B. swap partition
C. additional Host Bus Adapters
D. HTTP Server
E. Oracle Net
F. Network file system
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question 20.
Which two statements are correct regarding the apache user? (Choose two.)
A. The apache user must be granted minimal privileges to ensure the security of Oracle HTTP
Server.
B. apache is a database user account that is created during Oracle software installation.
C. The apache user must be a member of the oper group for the successful functioning of the
HTTP Server.
D. You should move the apache user into the apache group after the installation is complete.
E. The Oracle HTTP Server must be started by the apache user in order for ports reserved for
apache to be made available to the database.
Answer: A, D
|
Question 1. Order the following resolutions, by pixel count, from lowest to highest. A. D1, HD, QCIF, CIF B. D1, CIF, 4CIF, HD C. QCIF, CIF, D1, HD D. QCIF, D1, CIF, HD Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. What are the two differences between interlaced and progressive scan video? (Choose two.) A. Progressive scan video is generally better with fast-moving objects B. Interlaced video is generally better with fast-moving objects C. Interlaced video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines D. Progressive scan video is constructed out of alternating odd and even lines Answer: A, C Explanation: Question 3. Where should outdoor surveillance cameras be mounted when nearby sources of light are present? A. The camera should be mounted lower than the light source. B. The camera should be mounted in parallel with the nearest light source. C. The camera should be mounted above the light source. D. Location does not matter, as long as the camera is day/night capable. Answer: A Explanation: Question 4. What is the correct camera and lens setup for the use of IR lighting? A. Color camera with IR corrected lens B. A camera with day/night mode and IR corrected lens C. A camera with day/night mode and varifocal lens D. Color camera with varifocal lens Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which switch port capability is recommended for an MSP server? A. Server switch ports should have 10/100 Mb capability B. Server switch ports should have 1000 Mb capability C. Server switch ports should have 10 Gb capability D. Servers should be connected to PoE-capable switches Answer: B Explanation: Question 6. On a converged network infrastructure, which Layer 2 technology can be easily enabled and configured to ensure separation of video surveillance traffic on the network from other sources (such as voice, email, and web browsing)? A. IP routing B. Firewall C. QoS D. VLAN Answer: D Explanation: Question 7. In addition to bandwidth, which factors should be considered when designing an IP network capable of delivering high-quality surveillance video in real time? A. Minimize jitter and maximize latency B. Minimize latency and maximize jitter C. Minimize both jitter and latency D. Maximize both jitter and latency Answer: C Explanation: Question 8. The Cisco Physical Security CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 platform can support which configuration of option cards? A. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P B. 2 x CIVS-ENC-8P C. 2 x CIVS-ENC-16P D. 1 x CIVS-FC-1P and 1 x CIVS-ENC-8P Answer: A Explanation: Question 9. Which two of the following Cisco Physical Security MSP servers support an optional secondary power supply? (Choose two.) A. CPS-MSP-1RU-K9 B. CPS-MSP-2RU-K9 C. CPS-MSP-4RU D. CPS-SS-4RU E. CIAC-PAME-1125-K9 Answer: B, C Explanation: Question 10. What is the maximum number of internal encoder ports supported by the CPS-MSP-2RU-K9? A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 48 Answer: D Explanation:
Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.