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Question 1.
What is another term for a network security manager who acts as a potential hacker (a person looking for security loopholes)?
A. An agent
B. An auditor
C. An assessor
D. An analyzer
Answer: B
Question 2.
What is the essential element in the implementation of any security plan?
A. Testing to make sure any server-side scripts are secure.
B. Testing patch levels.
C. Proper firewall configuration.
D. Auditing
Answer: D
Question 3.
A malicious user has connected to your system and learned that specifics of your operating system, including its current patch levels and the operating system name. What is the term for this type of scanning attack?
A. SYN detection
B. TCP priming
C. Cache poisoning
D. Stack fingerprinting
Answer: D
Question 4.
What is the most important step in securing a Web server?
A. Logging all HTTP activity.
B. Enabling system-wide encryption.
C. Placing the operating system, Web server program, and server files on the same partition.
D. Placing the operating system, Web server program, and server files on separate partitions.
Answer: D
Question 5.
What is the primary security risk in SNMP?
A. Login names and passwords are not encrypted.
B. Damaging programs can be executed on the client.
C. Damaging programs can be executed on the server.
D. Passwords and data are transferred in cleartext.
Answer: D
Question 6.
Lucy is a systems administrator who wants to block all NNTP traffic between her network and the
Internet. How should she configure her firewall?
A. Configure the firewall to block all incoming and outgoing packets except for those with the source and destination port of 119. Then, allow all traffic with destination ports above 1024 to traverse the firewall.
B. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the source port of 119, and outgoing
packets with a source port lower than 1024.
Then, block all packets with the destination port of 119 and with a source port lower than 1024.
C. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the destination port of 119, and to
block outgoing packets with the destination port of 119.
D. Configure the firewall to block all incoming packets with the source port of 119.
Answer: C
Question 7.
Which port or ports are used for SMTP?
A. 20 and 21
B. 25
C. 53
D. 161 and 162
Answer: B
Question 8.
Which type of attack causes a remote host to crash because it cannot respond to any new TCP connection requests?
A. Crack attack
B. Smurf attack
C. SYN flood
D. ICMP flood
Answer: C
Question 9.
How are servers able to conduct a simple authentication check using DNS?
A. Forward DNS lookup
B. Reverse DNS lookup
C. RARP
D. Nslookup
Answer: B
Question 10.
Part of a fire protection plan for a computer room should include:
A. Procedures for an emergency shutdown of equipment.
B. A sprinkler system that exceeds local code requirements.
C. The exclusive use of non-flammable materials within the room.
D. Fireproof doors that can be easily opened if an alarm is sounded.
Answer: A
Question 11.
What network mapping tool uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)?
A. Port scanner
B. Map scanner
C. Ping scanner
D. Share scanner
Answer: C
Question 12.
Which of the following would be most effective in preventing network traffic sniffing?
A. Deploy an IDS (Intrusion Detection System).
B. Disable promiscuous mode.
C. Use hubs instead of routers.
D. Use switches instead of hubs.
Answer: D
Question 13.
A user wants to send an e-mail and ensure that the message is not tampered with while in transit.
Which feature of modern cryptographic systems will facilitate this?
A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which of the following type of attack CANNOT be deterred solely through technical means?
A. Dictionary
B. Man in the middle
C. DoS (Denial of Service)
D. Social engineering
Answer: D
Question 15.
An organization is implementing Kerberos as its primary authentication protocol.
Which of the following must be deployed for Kerberos to function?
A. Dynamic IP (Internet Protocol) routing protocols for routers and servers.
B. Separate network segments for the realms.
C. Token authentication devices.
D. Time synchronization services for clients and servers.
Answer: D
Question 16.
Which of the following is likely to be found after enabling anonymous FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
read/write access?
A. An upload and download directory for each user.
B. Detailed logging information for each user.
C. Storage and distribution of unlicensed software.
D. Fewer server connections and less network bandwidth utilization.
Answer: C
Question 17.
Net Bus and Back Orifice are each considered an example of a(n):
A. Virus
B. Illicit server
C. Spoofing tool
D. Allowable server
Answer: B
Question 18.
Which of the following access control models introduces user security clearance and data classification?
A. RBAC (Role Based Access Control)
B. NDAC (Non-Discretionary Access Control)
C. MAC (Mandatory Access Control)
D. DAC (Discretionary Access Control)
Answer: C
Question 19.
Why are unique user IDs critical in the review of audit trails?
A. They CANNOT be easily altered.
B. They establish individual accountability.
C. They show which files were changed.
D. They trigger corrective controls.
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which of the following would NOT be considered a method for managing the administration of accessibility?
A. DAC (Discretionary Access Control) list
B. SAC (Subjective Access Control) list
C. MAC (Mandatory Access Control) list
D. RBAC (Role Based Access Control) list
Answer: B
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Question 1.
Which service component within the design phase does the following describe? Consider the customer's defined business requirements and the associated performance, availability, resiliency, maintainability, resource capacity, and security criteria used to measure and assure the delivery of the required services.
A. Staging Plan
B. Implementation Plan
C. Business Plan
D. Detailed Design Validation
E. Project Kick-off
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which service component within the prepare phase validates the features and functionality documented in the high-level design of a solution?
A. Proof of Concept
B. High-level Design Development
C. Business Case Development
D. Business Requirements Development
E. Operations Technology Strategy Development
F. Technology Strategy Development
Answer: A
Question 3.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
C. execute network migration plan
D. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
Answer: B
Question 4.
In the implement phase, project close-out involves which of the following tasks?
A. deliver education based on Staff Planning Development reports
B. customize ongoing support hand-off kit
C. conduct Engagement Profitability Assessment
D. execute network migration plan
Answer: C
Question 5.
In the design phase, performing a needs analysis to identify the resource requirements and skills needed to deliver and support a network infrastructure is an activity of which service component?
A. Implementation Kick-off Meeting
B. Implementation Plan
C. Project Kick-off
D. Staging Plan
E. Migration Plan
F. Staff Plan Development
Answer: F
Question 6.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. Execute test cases
B. Configure core products
C. Perform preliminary Site Assessment
D. Analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which one of the following describes the task for completing an operations readiness assessment in the plan phase?
A. determining network elements that will be tested
B. reviewing hardware and software configuration staging plan
C. entering documentation into knowledge management system
D. developing backup/recovery plan
E. creating an escalation plan
F. obtaining and reviewing operation procedures and policies
Answer: F
Question 8.
In the implement phase, solution implementation involves which of the following task?
A. perform preliminary Site Assessment
B. configure core products
C. execute test cases
D. analyze high-level design and technology requirements of the customer
Answer: B
Question 9.
Which of the following definitions best describes services stack within the Cisco Lifecycle Services approach?
A. the minimum set of services that a customer needs to successfully deploy and operate a Cisco
technology or solution
B. the required set of services needed to successfully deploy and support Cisco Advanced
Technologies
C. the identification of Advanced Technologies to best support business requirements and
objectives
D. the minimum set of services required to operate and optimize Cisco Advanced Technologies
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which of the following definitions best describes business requirements development within the prepare phase?
A. a set of service component activities that assesses and documents the business requirements
of a customer
B. part of the systems design activity that identifies and documents business requirements to help
deploy network technologies
C. part of the high-level design activity that addresses business and technical requirements of the
customer
D. a service component activity that analyzes business requirements and recommends the
appropriate technology strategy
Answer: A
Question 11.
Your ITCertKeys trainee, ITCertKeys, asks you which of the following three tasks are executed in the security administration component of the operate phase? (Choose three.)
A. utilization monitoring
B. customer operational account creation
C. identity management
D. security incident management
E. security configuration management
F. security problem escalation
Answer: C, D, E
Question 12.
Which service component within the prepare phase provides a high-level, conceptual architecture of the proposed system that addresses the business requirements of the customer?
A. High-level Proof of Concept
B. Technology Strategy Development
C. High-level Technology Strategy
D. High-level Design Development
E. Business Requirements Development
Answer: D
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