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Question 1.
The Privileged User, Delegator, or Security Administrator roles provide what functionality in Document Manager?
A. They provide no functionality
B. They control access to edit Document Libraries
C. They control who can delegate access to Document Libraries
D. They control access to view Document Libraries
Answer: A
Question 2.
Collaboration Services on IBM AIX platform required
A. 933 GHz IBM POWER4+™ or higher processor
B. 1 GHz IBM POWER4+™ or higher processor
C. 1.1 GHz IBM POWER4+™ or higher processor
D. 1.2 GHz IBM POWER4+™ or higher processor
Answer: D
Question 3.
The SIP proxy component of the SIP server performs which of these functions:?
A. Receives SIP connections from the Java connect client and passes SIP data from the Java
connect client to the SIP container for further processing
B. Receives SIP data from the Chat Links service and passes SIP data from this service to the
SIP container
C. Maintains and monitors chat logs between SIP containers and their clients
D. Removes the client connection handling load from the SIP container
Answer: D
Question 4.
The Document Manager search feature is restricted from performing what operation?
A. Searching based on metadata
B. Searching while the user is logged in as anything but anonymous
C. Searching based on document text
D. Searching across multiple libraries
Answer: D
Question 5.
Installing Workplace Collaboration Services requires a minimum of
A. 2 GB of free disk space
B. 4 GB of free disk space
C. 5 GB of free disk space
D. 10 GB of free disk space
Answer: D
Question 6.
Users that will be part of a draft and review process must have which of the following rights?
A. Users must have access to the Productivity Components and be in the wpsDocDraftReview
group
B. Users must have access to the document library and be in the wpsDoc Reviewer group
C. Users must have access to the Draft Portlet and be able to enable workflow for the rejected
document
D. Users must have access to the WebSphere Control page and the Manage Document Libraries
portlet
Answer: B
Question 7.
Which of the following are the supported operating systems for the installation of collaboration services?
A. IBM AIX 5.3
B. Microsoft Windows 2000 Server with Service Pack 4
C. Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Server with Service Pack 4
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Question 8.
Which of the following tool manages the user and group lookups to the LDAP directory and lookaside database?
A. WebSphere® Member Manager
B. WebSphere® Profile Manager
C. WebSphere® User Manager
D WebSphere® Admin Manager
Answer: A
Question 9.
Which of the following options are used to configure seamless authentication in the IBM Workplace browser client? (Choose all that apply)
A. By setting up Global Security in the IBM® WebSphere® Application Server
B. By selecting Lightweight Third-Party Authentication (LTPA) as the authentication mechanism
C. By configuring the LTPA token for single sign-on (SSO)
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Question 10.
The Light Meeting protocol is used for which of the following?
A. Connects SIP server to SIP server for Presence Awareness
B. Connects browsers to the SIP server for Web Conferencing
C. Connects SIP server to SIP server for Web Conferencing
D. Connects browsers to the SIP server for Instant Messaging
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which of the following statement is true for SSO?
A. Single sign-on occurs automatically between hosts in the same DNS domain
B. Single sign-on occurs manually between hosts in the same DNS domain
C. Single sign-on occurs automatically between hosts in the same and different DNS domain
D. Single sign-on occurs manually between hosts in the same and different DNS domain
Answer: A
Question 12.
Which of the following statement is true?
A. IBM Workplace requires WebSphere Application Server and WebSphere Portal underlying
components
B. IBM Workplace requires WebSphere Portal and IBM HTTP server underlying components
C. IBM Workplace requires WebSphere Portal and Oracle underlying components
D. IBM Workplace requires WebSphere Application Server and Lotus Domino Enterprise Server
underlying components
Answer: A
Question 13.
Wanda wants to control the tools that users have to edit and create documents in IBM Workplace Documents.
What should she do to control this functionality?
A. Edit the properties for each document to show only the allowed tools
B. Apply the appropriate policies to users
C. Uninstall all tools not needed for document management
D. Enable the 'tool' attribute in WebSphere Member Manager
Answer: B
Question 14.
Holly has configured multiple Document Managers to display on one page.
How are Document Libraries accessed from that page?
A. Each Document Manager on the page can use a separate Document Library
B. Each Document Manager must be a subset of a single Document Library
C. Each Document Manager must contain the same user access to all Document Libraries
D. Each Document Manager must use the same Document Library because they are on the
same page
Answer: A
Question 15.
In addition to having a browser or rich client, what must users have that allows them to participate in instant messaging and Web conferences?
A. A LDAP attribute
B. An Instant Messaging alias
C. An Internet password
D. A user policy
Answer: D
Question 16.
The installation of Collaboration Services on Linux platform requires
A. 1.0 GHz Intel® Pentium® 4 or equivalent processor
B. 1.5 GHz Intel® Pentium® 4 or equivalent processor
C. 2.0 GHz Intel® Pentium® 4 or equivalent processor
D. 2.4 GHz Intel® Pentium® 4 or equivalent processor
Answer: C
Question 17.
The installation of Collaboration Services on Linux platform requires
A. 512 MB of Physical memory
B. 1 GB of Physical memory
C. 2 GB of Physical memory
D. 4 GB of Physical memory
Answer: D
Question 18.
If you create shared directories, prepare the Deployment Manager, and install WebSphere Application Server Edge components for load balancing, have created what environment?
A. remote DBMS server
B. Network Deployment environment
C. external HTTP server
D. i5/OS environment
Answer: B
Question 19.
Which of the following statement is true?
A. Installation of the rich client provisioning server requires an additional 1.5 GB.
B. Installation of the rich client provisioning server requires an additional 2 GB.
C. Installation of the rich client provisioning server requires an additional 2.5 GB.
D. Installation of the rich client provisioning server requires an additional 3 GB.
Answer: A
Question 20.
Team spaces are growing too large on the server that Anthony manages.
What option does he have to control the size of these spaces?
A. A Team Space policy to limit attachment size in each document
B. An archive policy to run and move old data for archive access
C. An application policy with a maximum team space size
D. A user policy limiting the amount of data that can be uploaded into Team Spaces
Answer: C
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Question 1.
When configuring the Cisco VPN Client with transparent tunneling, what is true about the IPSec over TCP option?
A. The port number is negotiated automatically.
B. Clients will have access to the secured tunnel and local resources.
C. The port number must match the configuration on the secure gateway.
D. Packets are encapsulated using Protocol 50 (Encapsulating Security Payload, or ESP).
Answer: C
Question 2.
Refer to the exhibit.
MPLS must be enabled on all routers in the MPLS domain that consists of Cisco routers and equipment of other vendors.
What MPLS distribution protocol(s) should be used on router R2 Fast Ethernet interface Fa0/0 so that the Label Information Base (LIB) table is populated across the MPLS domain?
A. Only LDP should be enabled on Fa0/0 interface.
B. Only TDP should be enabled on Fa0/0 interface.
C. Both distribution protocols LDP and TDP should be enabled on the Fa0/0 interface.
D. MPLS cannot be enabled in a domain consisting of Cisco and non-Cisco devices.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which two statements about common network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man in-
the- middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-
middle attacks.
C. Access attacks can consist of packet sniffers, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the- middle
attacks.
D. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection
and Internet information queries.
E. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of packet sniffers, port scans, ping sweeps, and Internet
information queries.
F. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of ping sweeps, port scans, man-in-middle attacks and
Internet information queries.
Answer: A, E
Question 4.
Which two statements about worms, viruses, or Trojan horses are true? (Choose two.)
A. A Trojan horse has three components: an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism,
and a payload.
B. A Trojan horse virus propagates itself by infecting other programs on the same computer.
C. A virus cannot spread to a new computer without human assistance.
D. A virus has three components: an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a
payload.
E. A worm can spread itself automatically from one computer to the next over an unprotected
network.
F. A worm is a program that appears desirable but actually contains something harmful.
Answer: C, E
Question 5.
Which two statements about management protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog version 2 or above should be used because it provides encryption of the syslog
messages.
B. NTP version 3 or above should be used because these versions support a cryptographic
authentication mechanism between peers.
C. SNMP version 3 is recommended since it provides authentication and encryption services for
management packets.
D. SSH, SSL and Telnet are recommended protocols to remotely manage infrastructure devices.
E. TFTP authentication (username and password) is sent in an encrypted format, and no
additional encryption is required.
Answer: B, C
Question 6.
Which two statements about the Cisco Autosecure feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. All passwords entered during the Autosecure configuration must be a minimum of 8 characters
in length.
B. Cisco 123 would be a valid password for both the enable password and the enable secret
commands.
C. The auto secure command can be used to secure the router login as well as the NTP and SSH
protocols.
D. For an interactive full session of AutoSecure, the auto secure login command should be used.
E. If the SSH server was configured, the 1024 bit RSA keys are generated after the auto secure
command is enabled.
Answer: C, E
Question 7.
Which three statements are correct about MPLS-based VPNs? (Choose three.)
A. Route Targets (RTs) are attributes attached to a VPNv4 BGP route to indicate its VPN
membership.
B. Scalability becomes challenging for a very large, fully meshed deployment.
C. Authentication is done using a digital certificate or pre-shared key.
D. A VPN client is required for client-iniated deployments.
E. A VPN client is not required for users to interact with the network.
F- An MPLS-based VPN is highly scalable because no site-to-site peering is required.
Answer: A, E, F
Question 8.
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced overhead?
A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which two statements are true about broadband cable (HFC) systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cable modems only operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
B. Cable modems operate at Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model.
C. Cable modems operate at Layers 1, 2, and 3 of the OSI model.
D. A function of the cable modem termination system (CMTS) is to convert the modulated signal
from the cable modem into a digital signal.
F. A function of the cable modem termination system is to convert the digital data stream from the
end user host into a modulated RF signal for transmission onto the cable system.
Answer: B, D
Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the AAA configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. A good security practice is to have the none parameter configured as the final method used to
ensure that no other authentication method will be used.
B. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then a user connecting via the console port would not be
able to gain access since no other authentication method has been defined.
C. If a TACACS+ server is not available. then the user Bob could be able to enter privileged
mode as long as the proper enable password is entered.
D. The aaa new-model command forces the router to override every other authentication method
previously configured for the router lines.
E. To increase security, group radius should be used instead of group tacacs+.
F. Two authentication options are prescribed by the displayed aaa authentication command.
Answer: D, F
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