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Question 1.
The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic databases purge.
This happens daily at what time?
A. 00:00
B. 12:00
C. 15:00
D. 22:00
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which command starts a backup from the command line?
A. omnib
B. omnibck
C. omnimm
D. omnicellbck
Answer: A
Question 3.
On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
A. xomni.exe
B. manager.exe
C. omni.exe
D. omnirc.exe
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which license type is usually included with the Data Protector CD?
A. Evaluation 30 days
B. Instant On 60 days
C. Evaluation 120 days
D. Permanent
Answer: B
Question 5.
The object option "Display Statistics" is turned on in the GUI while configuring and running a backup.
What does it show in addition to standard messaging?
A. megabytes per hour for each object
B. object detail retained for a specific date
C. three levels of detail on files and directories
D. the number of files handled during a backup session
Answer: A
Question 6.
To verify the logical device configuration using the GUI; load a tape into the drive, then right-click on the created drive to display the pop-up menu.
From this menu, which option do you select to verify the device operations?
A. eject medium
B. scan medium
C. check media state
D. verify tape
E. confirm mount request
Answer: B
Question 7.
During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database (IDB) size?
A. capacity forecast report
B. media management report
C. capacity planning spreadsheet
D. database growth calculator
Answer: C
Question 8.
When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of faulting is used as a further means of protection.
What is the purpose of faulting locations?
A. to provide information about the media condition
B. to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
C. to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
D. to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from a library
Answer: D
Question 9.
What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which the incremental backup is to be based?
A. The backup will fail.
B. A mount request will be issued.
C. Data Protector will start a full backup.
D. Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A. type
B. name
C. SCSI ID
D. serial number
Answer: D
Question 11.
Show the general installation sequence for Data Protector by arranging the panels in the proper order.
Answer:
Question 12.
What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the tape drive is busy
B. the media is not appendable
C. no previous full backup was run
D. the media is physically write protected
E. the media management database is full
Answer: B, D
Question 13.
Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A. omnifilelib
B. omnifiledev
C. omniupload
D. omnidownload
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore? Select TWO.
A. client database corruption
B. client configuration corruption
C. failure/loss of the client's tape device
D. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB
E. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB
Answer: B, E
Question 15.
When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory.
How is the Media Management database updated with this information?
A. automatically when the device schedule is invoked
B. with the omnidownload command
C. with the omniupload command
D. with the omni update command
Answer: C
Question 16.
To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A. a new media agent
B. a media specification
C. backup specification
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C
Question 17.
What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
A. add, delete, and modify assigned groups
B. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
C. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
D. perform installation and updates of assigned systems
Answer: D
Question 18.
When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device
C. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
D. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical
devices
Answer: B
Question 19.
By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obdb.dat
B. obrindex.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives?
A. objects
B. devices
C. media pools
D. backup types
Answer: B
Question 21.
The Data Protector scheduler allows for scheduling of which entity?
A. media agent
B. logical device
C. backup object
D. backup session
E. backup specification
Answer: E
Question 22.
Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A. redundant paths
B. multi path devices
C. device locking mechanism
D. multiple device connections
Answer: B
Question 23.
The Data Protector tape format is comprised of which sections?
A. File Mark, Data Blocks, and End of Data
B. Segments, File Mark, and Catalog Information
C. Tape Header, Media Label, and Fast Tape Positioning
D. Tape Header, Data Segments, and Catalog Information
Answer: D
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Question 1. Which of the following would be considered a Cisco Unified Computing technical design criteria? A. Increase the number of servers in the data center. B. Decrease security requirements. C. Simplify the Data Center architecture. D. Reduce power costs while maintaining or increasing compute capacity. Answer: C Explanation: Question 2. Which three business pressures are most typically faced by data centers? (Choose three.) A. language barriers B. government regulation and compliance C. SLA metrics D. global availability E. technology silos Answer: B, C, D Explanation: Question 3. Which two physical security concerns would most likely be considered first when planning a data center installation? (Choose two.) A. ventilation B. alarm systems C. raised flooring D. fire suppression systems Answer: B, D Explanation: Question 4. Which condition is prevented by the use of the "Combined" power redundancy mode in the Nexus 7000? A. one PSU failure B. lack of redundancy C. one input circuit failure D. one PSU or one input circuit failure Answer: B Explanation: Question 5. Which statement is true regarding UCS ports dedicated as external LAN device uplinks? A. Ports carry VLAN traffic only B. Ports are configured as ISL trunks C. Spanning tree must be enabled on these ports D. Ports are configured as access ports Answer: A Explanation: Question 6. Which three components are included in Cisco Business Advantage Data Center Architecture? (Choose three.) A. unified I/O B. virtualization C. Security Manager D. consolidation E. Desktop Consolidator Answer: A, B, D Explanation: Question 7. What is the purpose of the L1 and L2 ports on the Cisco UCS 6100 and 6200 Series Fabric Interconnect switches when running in a cluster with another fabric interconnect? A. support LACP B. provide high-availability services C. used for out-of-band management D. centralized management port Answer: B Explanation: Question 8. Which is a characteristic of the end-host-mode? A. It offers no redundancy. B. It participates in STP. C. It participates in network control data plan. D. UCS appears to the external LAN as an end station with many adapters. Answer: D Explanation: Question 9. What is the primary purpose of NPIV? A. It is a switch-based solution with a reduction in overhead. B. Virtual server interfaces can be created within an Cisco MDS switch. C. Virtual machines can bypass the hypervisor and access a LUN directly. D. Multiple virtual applications can share a single switch port while maintaining their identity. Answer: D Explanation: Question 10. What is the purpose of a VSAN in a Cisco Data Center network? A. to share the zoning across other configured VSANs B. to provide distributed service within the SAN fabric C. to advertise the existence of LUNs across the storage area management fabric D. to facilitate logical end-to-end separation within a single physical storage infrastructure Answer: D Explanation:
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