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Braindumps for "HP0-461" Exam

Supporting the Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA) Storage Family

 Question 1.
The power switches of HSV2x0 controllers are powered off without a storage system shutdown.

What is the result?

A. Cache is not flushed and batteries are discharged.
B. Cache is flushed and batteries are not discharged.
C. Cache is flushed and batteries are discharged.
D. Cache is not flushed and batteries are not discharged.

Answer: D

Question 2.
How are enclosure addresses assigned to the HSV controllers and drive enclosures of an EVA storage system?

A. They are manually configured with Command View EVA.
B. They are automatically assigned by position on the EAB.
C. Thumb wheels on the rear of the enclosure are used.
D. Fibre Channel assigns them automatically.

Answer: B

Question 3.
An entry in the Controller Event log reports that a "volume is reconstructing". 

What does this indicate the HSV controller is doing?

A. redistributing data among all members of a disk group
B. initializing a new disk group
C. recreating the data for a missing disk drive
D. rebuilding the metadata on all the quorum disks

Answer: C

Question 4.
What is the Fibre Channel topology of the M5x14 disk enclosures?

A. selectable
B. arbitrated loop
C. fabric
D. point-to-point

Answer: B

Question 5.
Which item is NOT a Customer Self Repair component?

A. controller blower
B. controller
C. controller power supply
D. controller cache battery

Answer: B

Question 6.
You work as a network technician at Company.com. You are using a 0C6D expansion cabinet with a fully populated 2C12D EVA. 

How many additional Fibre Channel disks may be supported in the expansion cabinet?

A. 240
B. 72
C. 168
D. 84

Answer: B

Question 7.
Which statements about the FC-AL switch model 310 correctly describe its functional characteristics? Select TWO.

A. Using Fibre Channel loop switches eliminates the need for expansion panels in the racks.
B. After the first drive enclosure is connected to the Fibre Channel loop switch, the remaining 
    drive enclosures are then daisy chained to the first.
C. The Fibre Channel loop switch cannot bypass a defective port unless it has been notified by 
    the attached controller to do so.
D. Each Fibre Channel loop switch handles a dual redundant loop pair.
E. Loop switches are not recognized by Command View EVA.

Answer: A, E

Question 8.
The firmware of the Fibre Channel loop switch is outdated. What should you do?

A. Download the loop switch firmware with the controller super image.
B. Replace the flash ROM of the loop switch.
C. Issue the "firmware Download" command on the loop switch.
D. Replace the loop switch.

Answer: D

Question 9.
Disconnecting the EAB cable from the EMU and rebooting the HSV controllers results in ____.

A. loss of access to data on the disks on the shelf
B. Command View EVA reporting the shelf has unmappable hardware
C. power down of the EMU
D. shifting of the enclosure addresses by 1

Answer: B

Question 10. 
DRAG DROP
Arrange the listed products in the installation sequence that minimizes negative interdependency effects of version updates.

 

Answer:

 

Question 11.
Which cache mode is used during the three-phase snap clone process just before the "flick-of- heswitch" commitment is issued?

A. read-ahead
B. write-through
C. write-behind
D. write-back

Answer: B

Question 12.
In the EVA, disk leveling is used to _____.

A. rebuild data if there is disk failure
B. automatically defragment virtual disks
C. dynamically redistribute data blocks
D. build virtual disks from physical disks

Answer: C

Question 13.
What is the result of pressing the bottom push-button on the EMU until it is illuminated?

A. Error condition exists.
B. Audible alarm is enabled.
C. Audible alarm is muted or disabled.
D. Error conditions are viewed.

Answer: C

Question 14.
When connecting a 0C12D expansion rack to a 2C12D EVA5000 configuration, how many disk enclosures can be connected from the expansion rack to the EVA5000?

A. 12
B. 6
C. 8
D. 4

Answer: B

Question 15.
Which replication method is compliant with both the Fast Recovery Solution and Volume Shadow Services?

A. virtually instantaneous snap clone
B. space efficient snapshot
C. three-phase snap clone
D. pre allocated snapshot

Answer: C

Question 16.
Which restriction applies to a "snap clone replica resync"?

A. The two vdisks differ in size.
B. The two vdisks participate in sharing relationships.
C. The two vdisks had no previous snap clone relationship.
D. The target is presented.

Answer: C

Question 17.
EVA8000 uses active/active failover mode. A LUN is owned by controller B. 

Which type of access causes non-optimal performance?

A. read I/O from controller A
B. write I/O to controller A
C. read I/O from controller B
D. write I/O to controller B

Answer: A

Question 18.
Which statement about hot swapping an EMU is correct?

A. The EAB will not function while the EMU is missing.
B. Disk I/O will be interrupted while the EMU is missing.
C. The EMU cannot be hot swapped.
D. The drive shelf EAB address will be lost while the EMU is missing.

Answer: D

Question 19.
Which characteristics describe a demand-allocated snapshot? Select TWO.

A. pointer-based copy
B. space-efficient
C. no over commit issue
D. reserves space on creation
E. resulting Vdisk is independent of the parent

Answer: A, B

Question 20.
Which statements about the EVA3000 are correct? Select THREE.

A. Backend configuration includes two FC-AL loops.
B. Backend cables are optical Fibre Channel.
C. Backend cables are copper Fibre Channel.
D. The maximum number of expansion disk enclosures is eight.
E. Backend configuration includes four FC-AL loops.
F. It is managed with Command View EVA.

Answer: A, C, F

Question 21.
You are using the Storage System Scripting Utility to regenerate a previous configuration saved
in a file named config1.txt. What is the correct command?

A. restore c:\\config1.txt
B. run c:\\config1.txt
C. file c:\\config1.txt
D. recreate c:\\config1.txt

Answer: C

Question 22.
Command View EVA version 4.0 _____.

A. supports HSV1x0 and HSV2x0 models
B. is not licensed to TB storage capacity
C. comes bundled with OVSOM
D. does not include EVAPerf

Answer: A


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Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


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Braindumps for "642-975" Exam

Data Center Application Services Support Specialist

 Question 1.
You believe that there may be a problem with the fault-tolerant VLAN. As a first step, which command would you use to find out if any heartbeats have been missed?

A. ace/admin# show ft stats
B. ace/admin# show ft peer detail
C. ace/context# show ft peer detail
D. ace/context# show ft group detail

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 2.
Which command could be used to view the configuration stored in a checkpoint?

A. show checkpoint
B. show checkpoint detail
C. show checkpoint config
D. show config checkpoint detail

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 3.
Where are the checkpoint configuration files stored?

A. Slot0
B. NVRAM
C. TFTP Server
D. a hidden directory in flash

Answer: D

Explanation:

Question 4.
To completely remove a real server from service, you should enter the no inservice command in which mode?

A. Rserver mode
B. privileged mode
C. policy-map mode
D. global config mode
E. severfarm-Rserver mode

Answer: A

Explanation:

Question 5.
Which two of these options are configurable as part of the TCP Normalization feature set? (Choose two.)

A. clearing reserved bits
B. setting illegal flag combinations
C. setting port numbers equal to zero
D. allow Syn packets that contain data
E. setting TCP header length requirements

Answer: A, D

Explanation:

Question 6.
An existing DNS name server is being replaced with a Cisco GSS. 

Which IOS license will be required?

A. Cisco Standard license
B. Cisco Extended license
C. Cisco Name Server license
D. Cisco Network Registrar license

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question 7.
An active Cisco ACE Module is configured as follows:
active Cisco Ace Module has priority level of 150
standby Cisco Ace Module has a priority level of 120
probes are configured with host tracking

Two probes fail. What must be done to relinquish the role to the standby Cisco ACE Module?

A. configure the probe with a priority level of 10
B. configure the probe with a priority level of 20
C. configure the probe with a priority level of 40
D. take no action; the Cisco ACE Module automatically relinquishes the role of active on failure of 
    a probe

Answer: B

Explanation:

Question 8.
Which three fields can be examined by an extended ACL? (Choose three.)

A. TTL value
B. ICMP type
C. IP address
D. HTTP cookie
E. HTTP header
F. UDP port number

Answer: B, C, F

Explanation:

Question 9.
When troubleshooting bridged interfaces, you should start with the show interface VLAN x command. 

Which two of these should be true of the interface? (Choose two.)

A. it is up
B. it shows mode : routed
C. it has an IP address and mask
D. it has an MTU set of 1500 bytes
E. it shows Assigned from the Supervisor, up on the Supervisor

Answer: A, E

Explanation:

Question 10.
When migrating from a CSS to a Cisco ACE appliance, you should review hardware resources and identify upgrades and configuration changes required for successful migration. 

What is the benefit of doing this?

A. reduces the risks associated with a production migration
B. reduces the possibility of expensive, time-consuming rework at a later date
C. strengthens the ability of your team to meet aggressive deployment schedules
D. reduces the possibility of downtime or other costly disruptions during migration
E. helps take advantage of Cisco planning experience and best-in-class methods and procedures

Answer: A

Explanation:


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