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Braindumps for "920-332" Exam

Communication Server 1000 Rls.5.0 Install & Commissioning

 Question 1.
A customer has installed the system components of a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system and has powered-up the system. 

Which visual indicator helps the customer differentiate whether a CP-PM card is running as a Call Server or a Signaling Server?

A. Main Status LED
B. FMD/HD Status LED
C. Call Server Redundancy LED
D. Embedded LAN (ELAN) Connection Status Link LED

Answer: C

Question 2.
A customer is planning to install a CP-PM Signaling Server into their Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 Communication Server 1000E system. 

Which two hardware components or combinations does the customer need to identify in order to distinguish the CP-PM card as a Signaling Server? (Choose two.)

A. Switch 5 set to Position 1
B. Switch 5 set to Position 2
C. two Compact Flash Drives (one RMD and one FMD)
D. one Compact Flash Drive (RMD) and One Hard Drive (FMD)

Answer: B, D

Question 3.
A customer is planning system requirements for their Communication Server (CS) 1000E High Availability (HA) system. 

Based on system capabilities and system capacities with Rls. 5.0, which is the maximum number of Media Gateway 1000E systems supported?

A. 5
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50

Answer: D

Question 4.
A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with a cost optimized gateway controller and DSP daughterboards that support 96 VoIP voice gateway resources. The CS 1000E supports CeMux PSTN access cards in the Media Gateway 1000E, reducing the overall cost and complexity of the system. 

Based on these requirements, which is the recommended Rls. 5.0 hardware for the customer?

A. CP-PM Call Server and MGC with High-Density DSP Daughterboard
B. CP-PM Call Server, MGC without DSP Daughterboards, and MC 32S
C. CP-PIV Call Server, MGC without DSP Daughterboards, and MC 32S
D. CP-PM Call Server and Media Gateway Controller (MGC) with Low-Density DSP 
    Daughterboard

Answer: A

Question 5.
A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with a cost optimized gateway controller and DSP daughterboards that support 160 VoIP voice gateway resources. The CS 1000E supports CeMux PSTN access cards in the Media Gateway 1000E, reducing the overall cost and complexity of the system. 

Based on these requirements, which is the recommended Rls. 5.0 hardware for the customer?

A. CP-PM Call Server, MGC with High-Density Daughterboard, and MC 32S
B. CP-PM Call Server and MGC with Low-Density and High-Density DSP Daughterboards
C. CP-PM Call Server, MGC with Low and High-Density DSP Daughterboards, and MC 32S
D. CP-PM Call Server and Media Gateway Controller (MGC) with Low-Density DSP 
    Daughterboard

Answer: C

Question 6.
A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000E network with a primary and a secondary site. In the event that the primary system fails, the customer requires each system backs up the IP telephones on the other system. The customer has been told this is possible and will require duplicate IP Phone Licenses on the second system. 

Which Redundant configuration is required?

A. 1 + 1 configuration
B. Campus Redundancy
C. Controlled Load-sharing
D. Survivable Media Gateway

Answer: C

Question 7.
A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000E network with a primary and a secondary site. In the event the primary system fails, the customer requires the user database to be replicated from the primary site to the secondary site. 

Which Geographic Redundancy configuration meets the customers needs?

A. CPP Redundancy
B. Campus Redundancy
C. Controlled Load-sharing
D. Survivable Media Gateway

Answer: D

Question 8.
A customer has imported the node files from the Signaling Server to the Call Server in Element Manager. The customer sends the node configuration files to all IP Telephony components in the node using the Transfer/Status button. The Transfer/Status button on the Transfer/Status web page is yellow. 

What does this indicate?

A. The transfer status of the node is in progress.
B. The node configuration is transferred to the elements.
C. The transfer status of the node elements is unavailable.
D. An element within the node failed to transfer the BOOTP or CONFIG files.

Answer: C

Question 9.
Upon opening the web browser to begin the login process into Element Manager on a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system, which two IP addresses can you enter into the address bar of the web browser? (Choose two.)

A. the Call Server IP address
B. the Signaling Server Node IP address
C. the Terminal Proxy Server (TPS) IP address
D. the Embedded LAN (ELAN) IP address of the Signaling Sever

Answer: B, D

Question 10.
A customer has successfully installed and configured a Signaling Server in a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system. After configuration and reboot, the Follower Signaling Server sends out BOOTP requests and waits for a response. However, there is no BOOTP response. 

Which action should be taken?

A. Reboot the Leader Signaling Server.
B. Wait for a BOOTP response from the Leader Signaling Server.
C. Configure the IP Telephony node for the Follower from Element Manager.
D. Configure the IP Telephony node for the Follower from the Installation Tools menu.

Answer: C

Question 11.
You have completed installing a Communication Server (CS) 1000E CP-PIV system. The system has been operating in normal conditions. One day, the lab temperature rises and causes the alarm/fan module temperature in the CP-PIV Call Server to exceed 60 degrees Celsius.

What impact does this have on the system?

A. A major alarm is triggered.
B. The health of the active Call Server decreases.
C. The Call Server Fan units switch into high-speed.
D. The Call Server switches to the standby Call Server.

Answer: A

Question 12.
A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0 system and is installing a standalone Signaling Server. 

Which role should you choose during the Signaling Server configuration?

A. Leader
B. Backup
C. Follower
D. Alternate

Answer: A

Question 13.
When initially configuring the Data Networking and IP Telephony parameters for a Signaling Server on a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0 system, which data is entered for a Follower Signaling Server?

A. only the Telephony LAN (TLAN) parameters
B. the hostname of the Leader Signaling Server
C. only the Embedded LAN (ELAN) parameters
D. the parameters for the IP Telephony node, ELAN, TLAN, and Call Server

Answer: B

Question 14.
You are installing software for the first time on a new Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls.5.0 Signal Server and receive the following message: The filesystems verification failed! 

Which action should you take next?

A. Troubleshoot the hardware failure.
B. Select the menu choice to abort the installation.
C. Contact the next level of support to help diagnose the fault.
D. Select the menu choice to partition and initialize the hard disk.

Answer: D

Question 15.
Which software installation must be completed before installing software on any Enterprise Media Gateway in a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system?

A. The Call Server software must be installed or upgraded.
B. The IP telephone software must be available to all IP telephones.
C. The ERS 8600 routing switches must be running the latest software revision.
D. All Signaling Servers must be configured with the newest version of software.

Answer: A

Question 16.
A customer is implementing a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls.5.0 Communication Server 1000E High Availability (HA) system. The customer wants to know if there are any special package requirements beyond the HA Package needed for the system. 

Which two software packages are mandatory when deploying a CS 1000E HA system? (Choose two.)

A. SBO - Branch Office Package 390
B. SOFTSWITCH. Soft Switch Package 402
C. IPMG. Media Gateway 1000E Package 403
D. SIP - SIP Gateway and Converged Desktop Package 406

Answer: B, C

Question 17.
A customer is installing a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) in a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system. The customer is connected to SDI 0 of the MGC to access the configuration menu. No IP information exists for the MGC. 

How does the customer get to the mgcsetup menu to configure the MGC?

A. Type mgcsetup on the screen.
B. No action required. The MGC will boot directly into the setup menu.
C. The prompt Press any key to stop auto-boot and enter mgcsetup appears.
D. Enter a shell command. OAM, provide OAM username and 
    password to access OAM shell.

Answer: B

Question 18.
You are deploying a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with a CP-PM Call Server and the campus redundancy feature. It is mandatory that you configure the CP-PM Call Server side for the campus redundancy feature to operate properly. 

In which two locations is the Call Server side configured? (Choose two.)

A. the BIOS menu
B. the Installation menu
C. the CLI using LD 97 Superloop commands
D. the CLI using LD 117 CPU Location commands

Answer: A, B

Question 19.
A customer has successfully installed a Media Gateway Controller (MGC) in a Communication Server (CS) 1000E system. The MGC has registered with the Call Server. 

Which is displayed on the MGC LED display to confirm successful registration?

A. The MGC display will read PASS.
B. The MGC display will read LOAD.
C. The MGC display will read Exxx ( E000).
D. The MGC display will show Superloop and Shelf of MG 1000E (4 0).

Answer: D

Question 20.
A customer is commissioning a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0 system with Package 403 (Softswitch) and 402 (IPMG). The CP-PM Call Server software has been installed successfully, and now the customer is provisioning the Media Gateway Tone and Conference Loops for the Media Gateway Controller. 

Which switch overlay and prompt should the customer use to configure the Media Gateway TDS loop?

A. LD 17, XCT
B. LD 17, VXCT
C. LD 97, SUPT
D. LD 17, MGTDS

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "642-902" Exam

Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE)

 Question 1.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. 

What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?
 

A. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
B. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
C. R4(config-router)# default-information originate
D. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

Answer: B

Explanation:
Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router. For every network configured with ip default-network , if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. Gateways of last resort selected using the ip default-network command are propagated differently depending on which routing protocol is propagating the default route. For IGRP and EIGRP to propagate the route, the network specified by the ip default-network command must be known to IGRP or EIGRP. This means the network must be an IGRP- or EIGRP-derived network in the routing table, or the static route used to generate the route to the network must be redistributed into IGRP or EIGRP, or advertised into these protocols using the network command. In this case, the 10.0.0.0 network is indeed being advertised via EIGRP.

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080094374.shtml#ipnetw
ork

Question 2.
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other's routes. 

What is the solution?
 

A. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
B. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each 
    subinterface.
D. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke  
    routers.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.
By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces.
Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken. However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface on RTA, so they are not receiving each other's routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.

Question 3.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured on all routers in the network. 

On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived?
 

A. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out 
     inquiring for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24.
B. Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0.
C. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out 
    before it declares the neighbor unreachable.
D. Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent out  
    about network 10.6.1.0/24.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The "show ip eigrp topology" command lists all routes that EIGRP is aware of and shows whether EIGRP is actively processing information on that route. Under most normal conditions, the routes should all be in a passive state and no EIGRP process are running for that route. If the routes are active, this could indicate the dreaded stuck in active, or SIA, state. The fields to note in this output are as follows: P- Passive; no EIGRP computation is being performed. This is the ideal state. A- Active; EIGRP computations are "actively" being performed for this destination. Routes constantly appearing in an active state indicate a neighbor or query problem. Both are symptoms of the SIA problem. U- Update; an update packet was sent to this destination. Q- Query; a query packet was sent to this destination. R- Reply; a reply packet was sent to this destination. Route information- IP address of the route or network, its subnet mask, and the successor, or next hop to that network, or the feasible successor.

Question 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
S 62.99.153.0/24 [1/0] via 209.177.64.130
172.209.12.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D EX 172.209.1
[170/2590720] via 209.179.2.114, 06:47:28, Serial0/0/0.1239
62.113.17.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
D EX 99.3.215.0/24
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.45, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
[170/27316] via 209.180.96.44, 09:52:10, FastEthernet11/0/0
25.248.17.0/24
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.25, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1400001
[90/1512111] via 209.179.66.41, 10:33:13, Serial0/0/0.1402001
62.113.1.0/24 is variably subnetted, 12 subnets, 2 masks
D 62.113.1.227/32
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.45, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
[90/2611727] via 209.180.96.44, 10:33:13, FastEthernet1/0/0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 209.180.96.14

A. On the routing table of R4, the 10.1.1.0/24 route appears as an O E2 route.
B. On R4, the 172.16.1.0/24 route has a metric of 20.
C. The R3 S0/0 interface should not need the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 configuration command 
    for the 172.16.1.0/24 route to appear in the routing table of R2 as an D EX route.
D. The administrative distance of the 172.16.1.0/24 route in the routing table of R3 is 170.
E. On R5, the 4.0.0.0/8 route will have an administrative distance of 120 and a hop count of 6.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 5.
Which command will display EIGRP packets sent and received, as well as statistics on hello packets, updates, queries, replies, and acknowledgments?

A. debug eigrp packets
B. show ip eigrp traffic
C. debug ip eigrp
D. show ip eigrp interfaces

Answer: B

Explanation:
The show ip eigrp traffic command displays the number of Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) packets sent and received.
Example:
The following is sample output from the show ip eigrp traffic command:
Router# show ip eigrp traffic
IP-EIGRP Traffic Statistics for process 77
Hellos sent/received: 218/205
Updates sent/received: 7/23
Queries sent/received: 2/0
Replies sent/received: 0/2
Acks sent/received: 21/14

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/sw/iosswrel/ps1828/products_command_reference_chapter09186a00800ca5a9.html#wp1018815

Question 6.
Which three statements are true about EIGRP operation? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).

A. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
B. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific routes to the 
    network.
C. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
D. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary route.
E. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.

Answer: A, C, E

Question 7.
Which two statements about the EIGRP DUAL process are correct? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).

A. An EIGRP route will go active if there are no successors or feasible successors in the EIGRP 
    topology table.
B. An EIGRP route will go passive if there are no successors in the EIGRP topology table.
C. DUAL will trigger an EIGRP query process while placing the flapping routes in the holddown  
    state.
D. A feasible successor in the EIGRP topology table can become the successor only after all the  
    query requests have been replied to.
E. The stuck in active state is caused when the wait for the query replies have timed out.
F. EIGRP queries are sent during the loading state in the EIGRP neighbor establishment process.

Answer: A, E

Question 8.
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).

A. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
B. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
C. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
D. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
F. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.

Answer: B, C, E

Question 9.
Based on the exhibited output, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
 

A. All the routes are in the passive mode because R1 is in the query process for those routes.
B. R1 is in AS 200.
C. R1 will load balance between three paths to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix because all three  
    paths have the same advertised distance (AD) of 40512000.
D. 40512000 is the advertised distance (AD) via 192.168.1.66 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28  
    prefix.
E. All the routes are in the passive mode because these routes are in the hold-down state.
F. The best path for R1 to reach the 192.168.1.48/28 prefix is via 192.168.1.66.

Answer: B, D, F

Explanation:
It can be determined that AS 200 is used, from the fact that the IS-IS process ID is labeled as 200. The best path to reach the network 192.168.1.48/28 is the first one displayed in the routing table. This can be further demonstrated by the fact that the metric is less than the alternative route, via serial 0. Finally, the AD can be found by viewing the second number within the parentheses, which in this case is 40512000.

Question 10.
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured with the default configuration on all routers. Auto summarization is enabled on routers R2 and R3, but it is disabled on router R1. 

Which two EIGRP routes will be seen in the routing table of router R3? (Choose two.)
 

A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 172.16.10.0/24
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 10.10.10.0/24
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 10.10.0.0/16

Answer: D, E



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