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Question 1.
Which statistics enable you to view the impact of SQL statements on input/output (I/O) statistics?
A. file statistics in Performance Manager
B. statistics obtained from the sar and vmstat commands
C. sorts and parse calls values in Top SQL
D. buffer gets and disk reads values in Top SQL
E. CPU chart group in Performance Manager
Answer: D
Question 2.
Which Oracle Net utility or tool is integrated with Oracle Enterprise Manager?
A. Oracle Net Configuration Assistant
B. Oracle Names Control utility
C. Oracle Connection Manager Control utility
D. Oracle Net Manager
E. Listener Control utility
Answer: D
Question 3.
You have specified the configuration in the sysctl.conf file. However, when you restart the system, Linux does not start.
Which statement describes the steps that you would take to troubleshoot the problem?
A. Use the root login to access the system in run level 6 and edit the /root/.bashrc file.
B. Use the root login to mount the file system and edit the sysctl.conf file.
C. Use the boot loader to enter the emergency mode and switch to run level 3.
D. Use the boot loader program to access the available kernels and recompile the kernel.
E. Use the single-user mode to access the /proc file system and edit the kernel parameters.
F. Use the boot loader program to boot into run level 1 and edit the sysctl.conf file.
Answer: F
Question 4.
Which operating system (OS) group normally manages the Oracle database files?
A. apache
B. oper
C. users
D. oinstall
E. root
F. dba
Answer: F
Question 5.
Which two statements are true about %user to %system ratio for Oracle server processes?
(Choose two.)
A. If the %user to %system ratio is less than 60/40, then you must look for input/output (I/O) or
virtual memory problems.
B. If the %user to %system ratio is less than 60/40, then you must check sar -wW for swapping
activity.
C. If the %user to %system ratio is greater than 60/40, then you must tune the application code.
D. If the %system to %user ratio is greater than 40/60, then you must measure the data flow
between disk devices.
E. If the %user to %system ratio is greater than 60/40, then you must run vmstat for switching
activity.
F. If the %system to %user ratio is greater than 40/60, then you must check the division of work
within the system.
Answer: A, C
Question 6.
You plan to start with an Oracle9i stand-alone database system and then upgrade to a Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment in the near future.
You need to ensure that the process of migrating an Oracle instance and database to enable RAC goes well.
Which file system would you recommend for the data files in the stand-alone database system?
A. ext3
B. ReiserFS
C. ext2
D. Oracle Cluster File System (OCFS)
E. General Parallel File System (GPFS)
F. Network File System (NFS)
Answer: D
Question 7.
Examine the following SELECT command:
SELECT sum(pga_alloc_mem) FROM V$PROCESS;
Which statement about this command is correct?
A. This command displays the PGA size of each process that is started up by the instance.
B. If this command displays low values, then increase the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET value.
C. This command displays the size of each SQL work area that is allocated to an instance.
D. This command displays the Program Global Area (PGA) size allocated to an instance.
Answer: D
Question 8.
Which three methods can you use to correlate Statspack and operating system (OS) measurements? (Choose three.)
A. Use Oracle Enterprise Manager (OEM) Outline Management to manage plan stability outlines.
B. Use the at command to schedule the OS statistics through OEM.
C. Use the cron utility to schedule a job to collect database and OS statistics.
D. Use OEM Performance Manager to view and record OS statistics.
E. Print Statspack reports from sar .
F. Run Statspack and the sar task continuously.
Answer: C, D, F
Question 9.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose two.)
A. You can use OCFS for database files as well as general files.
B. There is no limit on the number of files on OCFS.
C. Standard file system commands, such as mkdir , rmdir , and mv , are available on OCFS.
D. You can create an OCFS on Logical Volume Manager (LVM).
E. You must modify Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
Answer: B, C
Question 10.
What are the four roles of the semaphores parameters? (Choose four.)
A. The semmsl parameter sets the maximum number of semaphores per set.
B. The semopm parameter sets the maximum number of operations per semop call.
C. The semopm parameter sets the total number of semaphores in the system.
D. The semmns parameter sets the total number of semaphores in the system.
E. The semmsl parameter sets the maximum number of semaphore sets.
F. The semmni parameter sets the maximum number of operations per semop call.
G. The semmns parameter sets the maximum number of semaphores per set.
H. The semmni parameter sets the maximum number of semaphore sets.
Answer: A, B, D, H
Question 11.
Which information about your system will help you to determine if CPU is a bottleneck?
(Choose three.)
A. bigpages
B. pages in
C. average load
D. load factor
E. number of CPUs
Answer: C, D, E
Question 12.
Which three statements about the root.sh script are correct? (Choose three.)
A. It updates the contents of the /etc/oraInst.loc file.
B. It must be executed as user oracle .
C. It changes the permissions on the dbsnmp executable.
D. It places the oraenv , coraenv , and dbhome scripts in the local bin directory.
E. It creates and populates the oratab file.
F. It must be run before running the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI).
Answer: C, D, E
Question 13.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose two.)
A. You can use OCFS partitions for archive logs.
B. OCFS is a file system designed specifically for Oracle on Linux operating system.
C. OCFS can be automatically mounted at startup.
D. You must modify Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
E. Linux developers cannot access OCFS source code.
Answer: A, C
Question 14.
All your sessions are using shared servers. Examine the following SQL command:
SELECT sum(value) FROM v$sesstat, v$statname
WHERE name = 'session uga memory'
AND v$sesstat.statistic# = v$statname.statistic#;
Which statement best describes this SQL command?
A. This SQL command enables you to monitor the PGA memory allocated from the shared pool.
B. This SQL command enables you to monitor memory usage by each user process.
C. This SQL command enables you to monitor system memory usage.
D. This SQL command enables you to monitor the Program Global Area (PGA) memory allocated
from the SGA memory.
E. This SQL command enables you to monitor overall memory usage.
Answer: D
Question 15.
You have successfully installed the Intelligent Agent (IA) on Oracle 9.2. You executed the following command to start the I A:
lsnrctl dbsnmp_start
You received the following error message:
NL-00853: undefined command "dbsnmp_start".
What would you do to rectify the problem and start IA ?
A. Set the TNS_ADMIN environment variable to point to the location of listener.ora and then
execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
B. Execute the agentctl start agent command.
C. Start the HTTP Server and then execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
D. Configure Oracle Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and then execute the lsnrctl
dbsnmp_start command.
E. Run the root.sh script and then execute the lsnrctl dbsnmp_start command.
F. Create the snmp.ora file in Oracle home directory for the agent and then execute the lsnrctl
dbsnmp_start command.
Answer: B
Question 16.
You need to test the connection to a database by using the net service name orcl21. You executed the following tnsping command : tnsping orcl21.
Which three statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. If the net service name is not added to the tnsnames.ora file or to the name service in use,
then the command will return an error message.
B. The tnsping command tests if the database is up and running.
C. The tnsping command returns all the hops taken by the tns packet to reach the destination
service.
D. The tnsping command contacts the listener corresponding to the service name, and checks if
the listener is running.
E. The tnsping command connects to the database as user scott/tiger by default.
F. The tnsping command returns the time (in milliseconds) it took to reach the listener, if the
connection is successful.
Answer: A, D, F
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Question 1.
Click the Exhibit button.
A user on port ge-0/0/12 fails an 802.1x authentication attempt.
What is the next action of Switch A?
A. It puts the Authenticator in the HELD status where all EAPOL packets are discarded until the
default hold timer expires.
B. It communicates with the RADIUS server to confirm the user's password.
C. It transmits an EAP-Identity-Request packet immediately after it sends out EAP-Failure.
D. It tries to authenticate the user using MAC radius authentication.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the configuration in the exhibit, why are you seeing drops in the best-effort queue on the SRX Series platform?
A. The drop-profile fill level is set too low.
B. Packets are dropped by a firewall policy.
C. The best-effort queue is being shaped.
D. The scheduler is not being applied correctly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the output shown in the exhibit, why is VSTP not working for VLAN 100?
A. No interfaces are assigned to VLAN 100.
B. Your MSTI is misconfigured.
C. RSTP is configured in addition to VSTP.
D. No native VLAN is configured.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 4.
If your WAN-edge router is multihomed to different ISPs, which two BGP attributes would you modify to affect outbound traffic? (Choose two.)
A. MED
B. origin
C. local preference
D. community
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 5.
When 802.1X, MAC-RADIUS, and Captive Portal are enabled on an interface, which authentication sequence occurs?
A. The authentication sequence is based on the order of the configuration.
B. If MAC-RADIUS is rejected, Captive Portal will start. If Captive portal is timed out, 802.1X will
start.
C. If 802.1X times out, then MAC-RADIUS will start. If MAC-RADIUS is timed out by the RADIUS
server, then Captive Portal will start.
D. If 802.1X times out, then MAC-RADIUS will start. If MAC-RADIUS is rejected by the RADIUS
server, then Captive Portal will start.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 6.
A medium-sized enterprise has some devices that are 802.1X capable and some that are not.
Any device that fails authentication must be provided limited access through a VLAN called NONAUTH. How do you provide this access?
A. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the guest VLAN.
B. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the server-reject VLAN.
C. Configure NONAUTH VLAN as the guest VLAN and the server-reject VLAN
D. Configure a separate VLAN for each type of user: 802.1X and non-802.1X.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 7.
Click the Exhibit button.
Host 1, Host 2, and Host 3 are connected to Switch A on interface ge-0/0/2. Host 1 and Host 2 have been authenticated through 802.1X, however Host 3 does not have an 802.1X supplicant.
Referring to the configuration in the exhibit, how can Host 3 be authenticated?
A. secure-authentication option of HTTP or HTTPS must be configured for Captive Portal.
B. MAC RADIUS authentication must be configured for Host 3 instead of Captive Portal.
C. A new authentication-profile must be configured because 802.1X and Captive Portal cannot
have the same authentication-profile.
D. The 802.1X server failback feature must be configured for Host 3 to allow non-802.1X clients
to authenticate.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 8.
A user complains about connectivity problems from their IP address (10.1.1.87) to a server (10.65.1.100).
Which Junos command can help verify connectivity in the network? (Choose two.)
A. mroute
B. traceoptions
C. ping
D. clear bgp neighbor
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 9.
Click the Exhibit button.
The exhibit shows the output of an OSPF router LSA.
Which interface ID represents the router's loopback address?
A. ID 10.1.1.0
B. ID 10.0.3.4
C. ID 10.0.3.3
D. ID 10.0.2.4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the output in the exhibit, why does the router prefer the path toward interface ge- 0/0/0.0 for the 20.0.0.0/8 route?
A. The origin is IGP.
B. The origin is unknown.
C. The AS path is longer.
D. Multihop is enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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