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Question 1.
What is a Layer3 Health Check?
A. It's a session table entry for the application running.
B. It's an ARP request sent by the Server Iron
C. It's the third step in the Health Check process
D. It's a ping sent by the Server Iron to the local or real servers
E. It's a request made to a predefined TCP or UDP port
Answer: D
Question 2.
When configuring real servers, there must be backup servers in order to have primary servers
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Question 3.
Which two statements about IP RIP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It limits hop counts to 31.
B. It is a link-state routing protocol.
C. It uses autonomous system numbers.
D. It is capable of load sharing over multiple paths.
E. It uses bandwidth as the metric for path selection.
F. It broadcasts updates every 30 seconds by defaults
Answer: D & F
Question 4.
What is the Correct Default Gateway Configuration on the Real Servers (RS1 and RS2) when the
Server Iron is running source nat?
Exhibit:
A. 10.10.10.50
B. 192.168.10.1
C. 172.16.10.1
D. may not have a default Gateway at all
Answer: A
Question 5.
BGP4 route information may consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply)
A. network number
B. AS path
C. next hop
D. route origin
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question 6.
With Port Address Translation, how will NAT deal with the client's TCP or UDP port number?
(Select all that apply)
A. Port Address Translation enabled NAT treats the client's IP address and TCP or UDP port
number as a single entity, and uniquely maps that entity to another entity consisting of an IP
address and TCP or UDP port number.
B. Port Address Translation enabled. The device will try to use the same TCP or UDP port
number for the un translated and translated address.
C. Port Address Translation disabled. The device translates only the client's IP address into
another IP address and retains the TCP or UDP port number unchanged.
D. Port Address Translation enabled. If the client's packet contains a UDP port, the device will not
use a UDP port in the translation address
Answer: A, C
Question 7.
What is the maximum hop count allowed by RIP?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 255
D. no limit
Answer: A
Question 8.
The GSLB Server Iron will accept requests for addresses that are not configured in the zone parameters.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 9.
Of the following 802.1w (RSTP) port titles, which ones identify a port that is FORWARDING traffic? (Select all that applies)
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. Backup Port
E. Edge Port.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 10.
The Server Iron can do cookie hashing on: (Select all that applies)
A. The entire cookie
B. An offset of the cookie
C. A value of a cookie name
D. The cookie value set by the Server Iron
Answer: A, C
Question 11.
Which of the following statements is true about Foundry STP defaults?
A. disabled on switches
B. enabled on switches
C. disabled on routers
D. both b and c
Answer: D
Question 12.
Which of the following protocols utilizes features of both distance-vector and link-state routing?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. IGRP
Answer: C
Question 13.
What is the default setting for Layer 2 Health Checks on the Server Iron XL product family?
A. 4 sec
B. 20 sec
C. 2 sec
D. 40 sec
Answer: B
Question 14.
The Server Iron uses Ping to determine if a server can be reached. This describes what type of Health Check?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 7
Answer: A
Question 15.
Which Foundry CLI command is used to summarize routes advertised from an ASBR into and OSPF autonomous system?
A. summarize-routes 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
B. summary-routes 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
C. summary-address-info 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. summary-address 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
Answer: D
Question 16.
The reassign-threshold is used to:
A. Mark a server port failed
B. Mark a server failed
C. Reassign another server to the VIP
D. Reassign the port to another server
Answer: A
Question 17.
Which of the following are true regarding the highest priority queue on Foundry chassis devices?
A. 'qosp0' This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry priority
levels 0 and 1.
B. 'qosp0' This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry priority
levels 6 and 7.
C. 'qosp3' This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 0 and 1 and Foundry priority
levels 0 and 1.
D. 'qosp3' This queue corresponds to 802.1p prioritization levels 6 and 7 and Foundry priority
levels 6 and 7.
Answer: D
Question 18.
Which STP bridge parameter manages the interval of time between each configuration BPDU sent by the root bridge?
A. priority
B. maximum age
C. forward delay
D. hello time
Answer: D
Question 19.
Foundry trunking groups between L3 routers load share based on source and destination IP address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Question 20.
In Hot-Standby Redundancy, keep alive queries are made between the Server-Irons using:
A. The sync-link
B. The layer 2 switch
C. The data link
D. The sync-link and data link
Answer: D
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Question 1.
Which two statements are true about applying Host Checker at the realm level? (Choose two.)
A. If Evaluate is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
B. If Evaluate is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
C. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client must pass policy to get the sign-in page.
D. If Require and Enforce is checked then the client can fail policy and still get the sign-in page.
Answer: B, C
Question 2.
Which log contains information about service restarts, system errors, warnings, and requests to check server connectivity?
A. Events log
B. System log
C. User Access log
D. Admin Access log
Answer: A
Question 3.
Which statement is correct about defining an Intranet Enforcer for use as a RADIUS Client?
A. You do not need to configure a RADIUS client policy.
B. You must know the exact model number of the Intranet Enforcer.
C. You must specify the NACN password of the device in the RADIUS client policy.
D. You do not need to designate a location group to which the Intranet Enforcer will belong.
Answer: A
Question 4.
Which configuration option can be set either in the initial console menu or the Admin UI of the Intranet Controller?
A. VLAN ID
B. Hostname
C. Domain name
D. Administrative timeout
Answer: C
Question 5.
What is the primary purpose of creating a Location Group Policy?
A. to associate more than one realm with an authentication server
B. to logically group network access devices and associate them with specific sign-in policies
C. to allow or prevent users from accessing resources in specific locations on the network
D. to define the URL that users of network access devices can use to access the Intranet
Controller
Answer: B
Question 6.
What is true about the operation of the Intranet Enforcer?
A. It assigns users a set of roles.
B. It allows access based on auth table entries.
C. It verifies whether an endpoint meets security requirements.
D. It configures the UAC agent to allow or deny access to resources.
Answer: B
Question 7.
On a pre-existing OAC, which three options can the Intranet Controller overwrite when the user accesses the Intranet Controller? (Choose three.)
A. SSID
B. login name
C. MAC address
D. wired adapters
E. encryption method
Answer: A, D, E
Question 8.
What must be updated regularly to detect the newest versions of personal firewalls on endpoints?
A. Intranet Enforcer firmware
B. Intranet Controller rollback software
C. Host Security Assessment Plug-in (HSAP)
D. Endpoint Security Assessment Plug-in (ESAP)
Answer: D
Question 9.
Which three statements about dynamic filtering are true? (Choose three.)
A. Dynamic filtering creates a query statement.
B. Dynamic filtering has an option to save query.
C. Dynamic filtering can select any log field to filter.
D. Dynamic filtering permanently removes other log entries.
E. Dynamic filtering redraws the log when you select a variable link.
Answer: A, B, E
Question 10.
A customer has installed UAC in their network. They have both Windows and Linux endpoints and must choose a deployment method that everyone can use.
Which deployment method allows for multiple platforms?
A. IPsec enforcement
B. 802.1X enforcement
C. Source IP enforcement
D. Odyssey Access Client
Answer: C
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