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Question 1. The contents of a data dictionary extract are listed below: Which of the following describes the type of metadata listed? A. static business metadata B. static technical metadata C. dynamic business metadata D. dynamic technical metadata Answer: B Question 2. The diagram below (Martin notation) shows the logical relationship between two tables named CUSTOMER and ACCOUNT. Which of the following describes the relationship between the data in the tables? A. All customers have an account. B. All accounts have at lease one customer. C. There are more customers than accounts. D. There are more accounts than customers. Answer: B Question 3. Which of the following should be considered when assessing warehouse performance in the test environment? I. access permissions II. data reliability and quality III. software version and configuration IV. hardware specification and configuration A. I and II only B. I and IV only C. II and III only D. III and IV only Answer: D Question 4. In which of the following are the SAS Data Quality Cleanse functions available? A. SAS DATA step and SQL procedure only B. SAS Component Language (SCL) and SQL procedure only C. SAS DATA step and SAS Component Language (SCL) only D. SAS DATA step, SAS Component Language (SCL) and SQL procedure Answer: D Question 5. According to the SAS Rapid Warehousing Methodology, which of the following test stages are performed when designing a warehouse? I. system test II. metadata test III. integration test IV. acceptance test A. II and III only B. III and IV only C. I, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV Answer: C Question 6. In SAS ETL Studio, metadata facilitates which of the following? I.data model design II.multi-user development III.process documentation IV.data definition standardization A. II and III only B. II and IV only C. II, III, and IV only D. I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Question 7. Which of the following are likely to lead to a successful implementation of a data warehouse project? I.source code management II.software release management III.naming and programming standards IV.operational data recovery processes A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and IV only D. III and IV only Answer: B Question 8. Which of the following is needed to ensure the continued integrity and reliability of data in a production data warehouse? A. monthly meetings with business users to review the functionality of applications B. regular meetings with IT to review hardware configuration and resource utilization C. status reports from production schedulers to ensure that warehouse jobs run successfully D. formal communication with source system owners to identify structure and content changes Answer: D Question 9. Which of the following is the recommended practice for setting up the production environment for a data warehouse application? A. Manually copy entities from development to the production environment. B. Assign the role of setting up a production environment to the system administrator. C. Document steps during development and repeat them in the production environment. D. Create a script in the development environment and run it in the production environment. Answer: D Question 10. Which of the following validate the transfer of binary files between systems? A. using a checksum and checking the file size B. using a checksum and comparing the first and last N records C. using record counts and comparing a random sample of records D. checking the file size and comparing a random sample of records Answer: A Question 11. Which of the following statements are true regarding retrieving archived tape data? I. SAS can read tape format data. II. Archived data retrieved to disk should have retention dates. III. Archived retrieval performance can dictate data storage type, hardware choice, and partitioning. IV. Relational database management system (RDBMS) archives can be processed without returning to disk. A. II and III only B. I, II and III only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV Answer: B Question 12. Which of the following is impacted by a data warehousing retention and archiving policy? A. disk space requirements only B. creation of data marts and disk space requirements C. creation of data marts and versioning/change management D. disk space requirements and versioning/change management Answer: D Question 13. According to The Data Warehouse Lifecycle Toolkit, by Ralph Kimball, which of the following represent best practices when deploying a data warehouse? I. Enable warehouse access for all valid users at the same time. II. Deny warehouse access to end-users who have not received warehouse training. III. Provide end-users resource support for warehouse to legacy system reconciliation. IV. End-user education can begin shortly before the production deployment of the warehouse. A. III and IV only B. I, II and III only C. I, II and IV only D. II, III and IV only Answer: D Question 14. Which of the following is a true statement regarding backup strategies for SAS data sets after the load has been completed? A. metadata must be synced B. file system-level backups are sufficient C. warehouse must be taken off-line to perform backup D. incremental backups can be performed based on SAS data set metadata Answer: B Question 15. After deploying the warehouse on a UNIX system, jobs accessing the SAS dataset named SALES are performing poorly. The dataset SALES is stored in the file /disk1/sales.sas7bdat and is 3Gb in size. Which of the following methods can be used to most accurately measure the I/O read performance? A. "options fullstimer; libname in '/disk1'; data_NULL_; set in.sales(drop=_all_); run;" B. "timex cat /disk1/sales.sas7bdat > /dev/null" C. "timex cp /disk1/sales.sas7bdat /disk1/foo" and divide the time by 2 D. "timex mv /disk1/sales.sas7bdat /disk1/foo" and divide the time by 2 Answer: A Question 16. Which of the following helps to reduce the I/O for a procedure that requires every row of a SAS table to be processed? A. indexing the SAS table B. using the SQL procedure C. partitioning the SAS table D. compressing the SAS data set Answer: D
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Question 1.
Javier copies a file named "secret" from a folder named "restricted" to a folder named "open". Both folders reside on the same NTFS partition. What happens to the permissions on the file named "secret"?
A. The file inherits the target directory's permissions
B. The file loses its permissions and is assigned to the Everyone group
C. The retains the permissions it has before it was copied
D. The file is copied into the new directory and the old file is deleted, all permissions are retained.
Answer: A
Explanation:
On a copy, permissions are inherited from the target folder. However, if it was a move, then the permissions move with the file, as long as it is on the same partition.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The new permissions are inherited from the target folder. It is not assigned to the everyone group unless that is what the target folder permissions were set at.
C: Permissions are retained on a MOVE, not a COPY.
D: This is really a move operation, not a copy.
Question 2.
Which of the following steps is necessary to add a new device driver to a Linux machine?
A. Copy the device driver to the device driver directory.
B. Extend the Linux kernel by incorporating the device code.
C. Insert the device into the Linux system and allow the system to choose the device files from its
device directory.
D. Insert the cd-rom with the device driver into the machine Linux will detect it and prompt you
through installation.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The process of adding the device driver is done by extending the Linux kernel.
Incorrect Answers:
A: There are directories on Linux for source and executables, but moving code to these directories does not automatically install the device driver.
C: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
D: Linux does not currently provide this plug-n-play type of operation, the drivers must be explicitly added through commands to extend the kernel and make the device driver part of that extension.
Question 3.
Nora is a site administrator for a large e-commerce site. She notices that the site is running slower and taking longer to process transactions.
What should Nora first do to trouble shoot the problem?
A. Identify any bottlenecks in the current system by using the site diagnostic tools such as web
trends.
B. Apply any necessary patches to the software running the site.
C. Monitor the CPU usage of the server running the site by using Windows NT performance
monitor.
D. Test the site using different connection speeds to verify whether the connection is running
more slowly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first thing to do is see what tasks are using the most CPU resources. In Windows NT, the Performance Monitor is the tool that will provide this monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The site diagnostic tools do not provide enough detail information for troubleshooting this problem. Since CPU processing performance needs to be monitored, a Operating System level tool ill b required.
B: Applying the patches may fix the problem, or make it worse. The first thing that should be done is to analyze the problem, and not just throw on fixes and other code HOPING that the problem may go away. Getting to know the problem helps to identify what is really wrong, and to apply the correct fix or course of action.
D: The observation that the site is running lower implied that the CPU had bottlenecks. Running at different communications speeds would only detect network bottlenecks, not CPU bottlenecks. There I no indication in this question that the network was being congested.
Question 4.
Ingrid is a Red Hat Linux system administrator. She is installing apache on her Linux server.
Which command should Ingrid execute to determine whether apache is already installed?
A. ps aus|grep apache
B. lynx apache
C. rpm -q apache
D. rpm -i apache
Answer: C
Explanation:
Red Hat Packet Manager (RPM) commands are used on Red Hat Linux. A query is issued to determine if apache is already there.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Running process status and a grep command (to search the active list) will not provide the information. If the apache server is running, then you caught it, but if the apache server is installed and not running, you will miss it.
B: There is no lynx command.
D: Although we need to run a RPM command, the -I form of the command does not provide the information we need.
Question 5.
Denise is the system administrator of a Linux system. She notices that whenever a specific process is running the performance of the system declines severely.
What can Denise do to learn exactly how the process affects her system?
A. Use the top program to see if the program is CPU-intensive.
B. Use performance monitor to monitor the process.
C. Kill the process and observe the result.
D. Use pine to check the process.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The TOP program will provide an interactive screen with information similar to the ps command, and will display performance statistics.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Performance monitor is a Windows term, and is not used in Linux. Performance tools available in Linux are: ps, top, and vmstat.
C: Killing the process will lose the necessary information on how the process degraded the system and affected it. Denise needs to see the effect, ad this has to be done while the task is running and still doing its damage.
D: Pine is a mail program, and does not provide performance checking.
Question 6.
Nadir installed a Perl script in the cgi-bin directory of his Linux system that is running apache server. NO significant modifications have been made to Apache server. He accesses a script named test.cgi via a web browser, but the script does not execute, and Apache server returns a 500 "Internal Server Error" message. Nadir executes the command is-al on the cgi-bin directory of the problem server. He learns that the permissions on test.cgi are 700, and that the file is owned by root.
Which command should Nadir enter to ensure that his Perl script will execute securely?
A. Chmod 711 test.cgi
B. Chmod test.cgi 100.
C. Chown apache test.cgi.
D. Chmod.test.cgi 711
Answer: A
Explanation:
The format is chmod xxx filename. 711 Allows full access to the owner, and read access to all others.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is the wrong syntax of the command, and 100 would restrict the owner to read only and everyone else is still locked out.
C: Change owner will not correct the situation, it is a permission issue.
D: This is the wrong syntax of the command, the permission number 711 comes before the filename.
Question 7.
Stephen has been assigned to install two apache web servers. He only has hardware for one server. So he decides to create a virtual server to host the second site that he will host.
Which file should Stephen edit to set the virtual servers attributes?
A. Httpd.conf
B. Linux.conf.
C. Access.conf
D. Magic.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Directives for the Apache Web server are stored in the httpd.conf file.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Linux.conf doesn't hold virtual server attributes.
C: Access.conf is used for access control, to control which directories people can access.
D: Virtual server attributes are not saved in a Magic file.
Question 8.
Which of the following services is an example of a Mail Transfer Agent (MTA)?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Post Office Protocol version3 (POP3)
C. Microsoft Outlook.
D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Mail Transfer Agent is responsible for transmission of mail between servers. SMTP performs that function.
Incorrect Answers:
B: POP3 is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
C: Microsoft Outlook is a Mail User Agent (MUA), which can be customized to use either POP3 or IMAP to read mail from the mail server.
D: IMAP is a protocol used by a mail client to read mail off the server. It is not used for server to server mail transfer.
Question 9.
Jim is configuring his new mail server but he can't remember the well-known port for SMTP.
What should Jim configure his mail server?
A. Jim should configure the server using port 80.
B. Jim should configure the server using port 25.
C. Jim should configure the server using port 23.
D. Jim should configure the server using port 24.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The well known port for SMTP is 25.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Port 80 is the well known port for HTTP
C: Port 23 is the well known port for Telnet.
D: Port 24 is not assigned as a well known port.
Question 10.
Frank is a system administrator for a large network. His company has a large DNS structure that he does not want to reveal to outsiders. He alters the SMTP headers of all messages so that his users appear to be sending mails from a different address.
What is the name of process that Frank implemented?
A. Aliasing.
B. Masquerading.
C. Forwarding.
D. Relaying.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Masquerading is the proper technical term for the process of changing SMPT headers to make the origins of the messages appear as if they came from a different source.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Aliasing allows the use of nicknames, the address itself is not hidden in this process, so Frank would not be able to hide anything but user information.
C: Forwarding will forward the messages, but the headers are preserved and Frank has not hidden anything.
D: Relaying is when an intermediate mail server, or hub, is used to pass mail from server to server. Headers are preserved, so nothing is hidden and the original IP addresses and domain names are exposed.
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