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Question 1.
The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic databases purge.
This happens daily at what time?
A. 00:00
B. 12:00
C. 15:00
D. 22:00
Answer: B
Question 2.
Which command starts a backup from the command line?
A. omnib
B. omnibck
C. omnimm
D. omnicellbck
Answer: A
Question 3.
On a Windows system, which command starts the Data Protector GUI?
A. xomni.exe
B. manager.exe
C. omni.exe
D. omnirc.exe
Answer: B
Question 4.
Which license type is usually included with the Data Protector CD?
A. Evaluation 30 days
B. Instant On 60 days
C. Evaluation 120 days
D. Permanent
Answer: B
Question 5.
The object option "Display Statistics" is turned on in the GUI while configuring and running a backup.
What does it show in addition to standard messaging?
A. megabytes per hour for each object
B. object detail retained for a specific date
C. three levels of detail on files and directories
D. the number of files handled during a backup session
Answer: A
Question 6.
To verify the logical device configuration using the GUI; load a tape into the drive, then right-click on the created drive to display the pop-up menu.
From this menu, which option do you select to verify the device operations?
A. eject medium
B. scan medium
C. check media state
D. verify tape
E. confirm mount request
Answer: B
Question 7.
During initial installation, which tool helps predict future Data Protector internal database (IDB) size?
A. capacity forecast report
B. media management report
C. capacity planning spreadsheet
D. database growth calculator
Answer: C
Question 8.
When performing media operations with Data Protector, the process of faulting is used as a further means of protection.
What is the purpose of faulting locations?
A. to provide information about the media condition
B. to provide information about all media currently mounted to tape drives
C. to provide additional information about the media location within a tape library
D. to provide additional information about the off-site location of media exported from a library
Answer: D
Question 9.
What may happen if Data Protector CANNOT find a protected version of the object on which the incremental backup is to be based?
A. The backup will fail.
B. A mount request will be issued.
C. Data Protector will start a full backup.
D. Data Protector will continue with incremental 1.
Answer: C
Question 10.
Which information about SAN devices can Data Protector store internally to enable automatic discovery of changed SCSI addresses and avoid Windows device persistency problems?
A. type
B. name
C. SCSI ID
D. serial number
Answer: D
Question 11.
Show the general installation sequence for Data Protector by arranging the panels in the proper order.
Answer:
Question 12.
What could be reasons for an unexpected mount request? Select TWO.
A. the tape drive is busy
B. the media is not appendable
C. no previous full backup was run
D. the media is physically write protected
E. the media management database is full
Answer: B, D
Question 13.
Which CLI command creates the File Library device?
A. omnifilelib
B. omnifiledev
C. omniupload
D. omnidownload
Answer: C
Question 14.
Which situation would require disaster recovery procedures rather than a standard restore? Select TWO.
A. client database corruption
B. client configuration corruption
C. failure/loss of the client's tape device
D. inconsistency of the Data Protector IDB
E. corruption/loss of the Data Protector IDB
Answer: B, E
Question 15.
When performing a manual configuration using the command line, you can create a new logical device by defining it in a temporary file in the devices directory.
How is the Media Management database updated with this information?
A. automatically when the device schedule is invoked
B. with the omnidownload command
C. with the omniupload command
D. with the omni update command
Answer: C
Question 16.
To use the same device with different media pools, what must be created?
A. a new media agent
B. a media specification
C. backup specification
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C
Question 17.
What does the user right "Clients Configuration" allow?
A. add, delete, and modify assigned groups
B. view, backup, and restore assigned systems
C. create, configure, and delete backups and restores
D. perform installation and updates of assigned systems
Answer: D
Question 18.
When configuring a backup, when does Static Device Allocation occur?
A. when the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
B. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific logical device
C. when each object defined in the backup specification is targeted at a specific physical device
D. when several objects defined in the backup specification are targeted at several logical
devices
Answer: B
Question 19.
By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A. obdb.dat
B. obrindex.dat
C. obdatafiles.dat
D. obdbrecovery.dat
Answer: B
Question 20.
Which section of the backup specification contains the information about the backup target drives?
A. objects
B. devices
C. media pools
D. backup types
Answer: B
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Question 1. The goals for effective usability in an e-commerce site are to get customers to: A. find, compare and revisit. B. visit, learn and return. C. find, learn and review. D. visit, learn and purchase. Answer: D Question 2. Which of the following is the most effective way to build community with your online storefront? A. Provide a quantity discount. B. Generate an automatic order confirmation. C. Create an incentive-based program. D. Accept several different payment options. Answer: C Question 3. Which of the following is often used in place of photo identification and a signature whenever a credit card is used in an e-commerce transaction? A. Billing address verification B. Cookies deposited by the site's shopping cart C. The purchaser's public key D. Information verified by a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) company Answer: A Question 4. The details of an e-commerce site order can be kept in memory, stored on the visitor's computer or stored on the Web server. This ability to remember the details of an order is known as: A. persisting an order. B. profiling an order. C. tracking an order. D. filling the shopping cart. Answer: A Question 5. You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar storefront that accepts credit cards to a new e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition? A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.) B. Credit card with offline processing C. Advance payment using check or money order D. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI) Answer: B Question 6. Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing easy administration and implementation as well as minimal business owner control? A. Online instant storefront B. Mid-level offline instant storefront C. Mid-level online instant storefront D. High-level offline instant storefront Answer: A Question 7. Before you can conduct usability testing, you should: A. identify the most-traveled path of your site. B. publish your site to a production server. C. identify browser compatibility issues. D. identify your potential customers. Answer: D Question 8. You are planning to install a database server in a mission-critical environment. What is the best way to ensure continuous data availability and reliability? A. Install a multiprocessor server. B. Establish a strict security policy. C. Provide fail-over clustering. D. Install multiple hot-swappable hard disk drives. Answer: C Question 9. A customer has placed an online order. The order has been written to a database for processing and the customer's credit card has been charged. What is the last interaction with the customer during the order process? A. Redirect the customer to the home page. B. Send a confirmation e-mail message to the customer. C. Update the customer profile. D. Send a shipping notification via e-mail to the customer. Answer: B Question 10. Which of the following is the most effective option for detecting a site attack by someone who wants to modify your customer database? A. Using antivirus software B. Implementing a firewall C. Limiting the open ports on the system D. Using an intrusion detection system Answer: D
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