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Question 1.
Which of the following is used by an Infrastructure AP when registering with WDS AP?
A. PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. LEAP
D. STATIC WEP
Answer: C
Question 2.
The newly appointed ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know which authentication method is authenticated in cases where Fast Secure Roaming requires WDS AP and Infrastructure Aps.
What will your reply be?
A. EXAMSIP
B. WEP
C. LEAP
D. none of the above
Answer: C
Question 3.
Due to their need of maintaining end-to-end delay under what length of time, are voice applications most likely to benefit from Fast Secure Roaming?
A. 70 ps
B. 10 ms
C. 150 ms
D. 1 second
Answer: C
Question 4.
Of the following what are the basic components necessary for Fast Roaming?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. WLSE
B. WDS enabled Access Point
C. Cisco Access Registrar
D. Cisco Compatible Client (v2)
Answer: B, D
Question 5.
What does the acronym WLCCP stand for?
A. Wireless LAN Context Control Protocol
B. Wireless Local Configuration and Command Protocol
C. Windows Local Context Control Protocol
D. Wireless LAN Control and Configuration Principles
Answer: A
Question 6.
The ITCertKeys trainee technician wants to know what the functions are that WLSE accomplishes with Radio Management information. What will your reply be? (Choose all that apply.)
A. To perform Assisted Site Surveys
B. To detect and locate rogue APs
C. To copy the local configuration and push to neighbor APs
D. To scan a wired environment for appropriate wireless VLANs
Answer: A, B
Question 7.
Which of the following statements regarding channel reuse is valid?
A. Channel reuse cannot be used with 802.11g clients
B. When there are a large number of clients, it is not wise to use channel reuse.
C. In a given area, channel reuse optimizes the use of available 802.11 spectrum.
D. Channel reuse eliminates duplication of broadcast and multicast packets to a client.
Answer: C
Question 8.
Which of the following statements describes the way in which Workgroup Bridge (WGB) connect
to Ethernet devices? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Ethernet patch cable to a single device
B. Ethernet crossover cable to a single device
C. Ethernet patch cable to a hub
D. Ethernet crossover cable to a hub
Answer: B, C
Question 9.
Access Point 10 in root mode (SSID = ‘123’) results in the provision of a connection to repeater Access Point 20 (SSID = ‘123’). In a scenario where Access Point 10 is using Channel 1, what channel will Access Point20 use?
A. Channel 1
B. Channel 6
C. any channel except Channel 1
D. Channel is not a concern in this application.
Answer: A
Question 10.
Which channel is used by the standby Access Point, when deploying Access Points in hotstandby mode?
A. It will scan all available channels.
B. It will make use of the same channel as the primary Access Point.
C. It will make use of a channel adjacent to the primary Access Point.
D. The radio is off until an SNMP trap is sent by the primary.
Answer: B
Question 11.
Which of the following statements best describes the Structured Wireless Aware Network (SWAN) solution?
A. It manages the configurations on WLAN clients
B. It makes use of dumb APs that are managed by a central AP controller
C. It is a structured WLAN manager installed on Cisco switches for non-Cisco APs
D. It focuses on the management of configurations for radios, mobility, security, QoS, and the
overall WLAN network
Answer: D
Question 12.
Given that the Cisco Aironet 802.11 a/b/g Wireless LAN Client Adapter has two LEDs, which of the following indicate that a properly working card (not necessarily associated)?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. green LED off; amber LED solid
B. green LED off; amber LED blinking sporadically
C. green LED blinking fast; amber LED blinking sporadically
D. green LED blinking slowly; amber LED blinking sporadically
E. none of the above
Answer: C, D
Question 13.
Which of the following is the correct DC voltage used to power the Access Points through the use of in-line power to the Ethernet port?
A. -5 VDC
B. -9 VDC
C. -12 VDC
D. -48 VDC
Answer: D
Question 14.
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between data rate and cell size (coverage area)?
A. The highest data rate has the largest cells size.
B. The lowest data rate has the smallest cell size.
C. The highest data rate has the smallest cell size.
D. Only the transmit power and antenna gain control the cell size not the data rate.
Answer: C
Question 15.
What channel will repeater Access Point use to associate to it, if root Access Point is set at channel 6?
A. any channel
B. any other non-overlapping channel
C. Channel 6
D. It depends on the SSID.
Answer: C
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Question 1.
What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.)
A. Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented.
B. They eliminate multipoint applications.
C. They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient
Or home environment, which reduces bandwidth.
D. They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load.
E. They eliminate traffic redundancy.
Answer: D, E
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which two descriptions apply to the Calling Search Space function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. It defines which numbers are available for a device to call.
B. It provides a group of dial patterns to look through when making a call.
C. Within a partition, each CSS has a directory number.
D. It defines route patterns and directory numbers from which calls can be received.
E. It defines the search for directory numbers in assigned partitions according to dial patterns.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
Question 3.
Which two statements apply to the partitions function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. When a directory number or route pattern is placed into a certain partition, this creates a rule
For who can call that device or route list.
B. A partition is a logical grouping of directory numbers and route patterns that have similar
reachability characteristics.
C. Calling Search Spaces are assigned to partitions.
D. A directory number may appear in only one partition.
E. Within the partition, each CSS has a directory number.
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
Question 4.
Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.)
A. When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted from
the multicast group.
B. An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message.
C. IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent
between the hosts and the router.
D. When the switch hears the IGMP host report from a host for a particular multicast group, the
switch adds the host's port number to the associated multicast table entry.
E. IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be
distinguished from normal multicast data at Layer 2.
F. A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether
it contains any pertinent IGMP "must control" information.
Answer: A, D, F
Explanation:
Question 5.
Which three options are valid SCCP call states sent to an IP phone?
A. Ring Off
B. On Hook
C. Call Transmit
D. Connected
E. Disconnected
F. In Use Remotely
Answer: B, D, F
Explanation:
Question 6.
Which three statements are true about Cisco Discovery Protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It is an excellent tool for displaying the interface status on switches.
B. It works on top of the network layer and data link level.
C. It uses a multicast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.
D. The platform TLV (TLV type 0x0006) contains an ASCII character string that describes the
hardware platform of the device.
E. You can use the CDP timer feature to change update times. The default is 60 seconds.
F. It uses a broadcast packet with a destination MAC address of 01-00-CC-CC-CC.
Answer: A, D, E
Explanation:
Question 7.
Which two of the following are functions of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.)
A. relies on already discovered trusted and untrusted ports
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. defines trusted and untrusted ports
D. uses existing binding tables
E. builds a binding table
F. automatically builds ACLs
Answer: C, E
Explanation:
Question 8.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic flows from the IP phone that is connected to SW1 to the IP phone on SW2. If the trust boundary has been extended to the IP phone on SW1, in what two places will traffic be marked and classified so that the proper QoS settings may be carried through the network? (Choose two.)
A. IP phone attached to SW1
B. SW1 ingress port
C. R1 ingress port
D. SW1 egress port
E. R1 egress port
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 9.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which gatekeeper mechanism prevents the gatekeeper from using all the resources on either gateway 1 or gateway 2 when sending calls to zones SE and NW?
A. bandwidth remote
B. resource availability indicator
C. bandwidth total
D. bandwidth zone
E. lrq immediate advance
F. ras timeout brq
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 10.
When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.)
A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs from the customer network across the MPLS
WAN.
B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions.
C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
resides must be enabled as a CE device.
D. The media has to be symmetrically routed.
E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or
Measurementbased CAC.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
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