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Braindumps for "HP0-753" Exam

HP OpenView Service Desk 4.5

 Question 1.
Which two actions are available for Database Rules? Choose 2 that apply.

A. Command Exec action
B. Sdevent action
C. Limit field value range action
D. Update Data action

Answer: A, D

Question 2.
Which two of the following Service Desk components make it possible to trigger an outbound service event which pages the person to whom a service call has been assigned? 
Choose 2 that apply.

A. Database Rule Manager
B. sdevent. exe
C. sdexport.exe
D. Service Desk Agent
E. Data Exchange task

Answer: A, D

Question 3.
Which one of the following components is NOT used for outbound service events?

A. Service Desk Agent
B. Database Rule Manager
C. Application Server
D. sdevent

Answer: D

Question 4.
According to the ITIL/Best Practices, where in Service Desk should all bugs be registered?

A. in the Configuration Management Database
B. in the Problem Management module
C. in the Service call module
D. Software bugs are NOT registered in Service Desk

Answer: B

Question 5.
Choose the TRUE statement about the relationship between incidents, problems, known errors and changes in a typical IT environment.

A. There are generally more incidents than problems.
B. All problems result in known errors.
C. All changes are results of problems.
D. The root cause of problems can be found in the related incidents.

Answer: A

Question 6.
Which three types of services can be defined in Service Desk? Choose one answer.

A. business, operations management and underpinning services
B. business, operations management and underlying services
C. hardware, software and network services

Answer: A

Question 7.
Which of the following statements about SLAs in Service Desk are FALSE? 
Choose 1 answer that applies.

A. Service Level Agreements are based on services, service levels, the customers and the 
    suppliers.
B. Service Level Management with SLAs requires the Service Level Management Module in  
    Service Desk.
C. Service Level Agreements can be related to configuration items.

Answer: C

Question 8.
Incident Management is comprised of several activities. Choose the three most appropriate activities that apply.

A. Communication and promotion of helpdesk activities
B. Identification and tracking of Configuration Items
C. Support for business operations
D. Providing management information
E. Implementation and monitoring of changes

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9.
IT customers often suspect changes are required to the infrastructure. 

These requests are initially registered with the ________.

A. Change Advisory Board
B. change manager
C. Help Desk
D. system administrator

Answer: C

Question 10.
According to ITIL/Best Practices, once a service call has been identified as a problem and a solution has been identified, who has the responsibility to close the service call?

A. The helpdesk
B. The problem manager
C. The latest specialist to work on the problem

Answer: A

Question 11.
Which events generally are NOT inserted as service calls in Service Desk?

A. incidents in the IT infrastructure
B. automatic events from other applications
C. requests for change
D. requests for information

Answer: B

Question 12.
The registration of a problem___________ .

A. can be the result of a root cause analysis.
B. results in a known error.
C. can be the result of several related incidents.
D. is always followed by a change request.

Answer: C

Question 13.
Identify the three main activities associated with Problem Management. Choose 3 that apply.

A. identification of problems
B. classification of problems
C. reporting of problems
D. closing calls with the customer that have NOT been closed by the helpdesk
E. reconfiguration of the environment to solve problems

Answer: A, B, C

Question 14.
According to ITIL/Best Practices, what always happens when the root cause of a problem has been identified?

A. The problem will be marked as a known error.
B. The problem will be related to a change.
C. All related service calls will be closed.
D. A change will be inserted to solve the problem.

Answer: A

Question 15.
What is the mission of Configuration Management?

A. to track and register all hardware and software assets
B. to manage and control changes to the configuration items in the IT infrastructure
C. to apply a comprehensive labeling system for all configuration items in order to identify  
    company assets
D. to track and control the IT Infrastructure and provide information to other service management  
    processes and general management.

Answer: D


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Braindumps for "642-481" Exam

Cisco Rich Media Communications

 Question 1.
Exhibit:
 
The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between zones that are controlled by the Portland Gatekeeper and the Seattle Gatekeeper is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: B

Question 2.
ITCertKeys.com has a single Cisco IPVC 3511 MCU E. At present there are two conferences occurring as follows: 
Conference 1:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsenhanced continuous presence
Conference 2:three conference participantstransrating 768 kbps to 384 kbpsmultiple
conference view (3)A third conference is desired with the following requirements:
Conference 3:three conference participants

What will occur when the third conference is attempted?

A. The third conference will succeed as desired.
B. The third conference will succeed, but without the enhanced continuous presence.
C. The third conference will fail because an IPVC 3511 MCU does not have the resources for 
    three conferences of three people each.
D. The third conference will fail because the EMP module does not have the resources to provide 
    the number of required services.

Answer: A

Question 3.
Exhibit:
 

ITCertKeys.com is using Cisco meeting place at its world headquarters; ITCertKeys.com also has a Cisco CallManager cluster. The Cisco CallManager cluster includes a video deployment with both SCCP and H.323 video endpoints. The videoconferencing capability is provided by a Cisco IPVC 3540 Series Videoconferencing System. 

Using the topology in the exhibit, what should be the video gateway location?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: B

Question 4.
ITCertKeys.com is deploying Cisco VT Advantage to enable executives to participate in video calls with customers and suppliers. 

Which two devices can be used to allow these external calls to be placed over a dedicated PRI? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco IPVC 3521
B. Cisco IPVC 3526
C. Cisco IPVC 3540
D. Cisco Multiservice IP-to-IP Gateway
E. Cisc MCM proxy

Answer: B, C

Question 5.
Exhibit:
 

A network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. 

Which command is used to ensure that the aggregate bandwidth between the Seattle and Spokane zones is limited to 100,000 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 166667
B. bandwidth remote 166667
C. bandwidth session 166667
D. bandwidth region 166667
E. bandwidth zone 166667

Answer: A

Question 6.
Exhibit:
 

CAC is being configured for the centralized call-processing video telephony network. Each video terminal is capable of a maximum data rate of 320 kbps, and two video terminals are planned for each site. The requirement is to make two simultaneous video calls between the ITCertKeys main office and each remote ITCertKeys branch office site. The audio codec will be G.711. 

In order to ensure quality of service for calls, which action should be taken when configuring Cisco CallManager?

A. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 922 
    kbps.
B. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 384 
    kbps.
C. Set the location video call bandwidth between the central site and each remote site to 768 
    kbps.
D. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 922 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
E. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 384 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.
F. Configure the gatekeeper to set the req-qos guaranteed-delay video bandwidth at 768 kbps 
    between the central site and each remote site.

Answer: C

Question 7.
ITCertKeys.com has a requirement for up to 10 simultaneous conferences of four people each, and each conference requires 384-kbps to 128-kbps transrating and H.261 to H.263 video transcoding. 

What should this company purchase?

A. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A
B. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP blade
C. one Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Module for MC06A with an EMP3 blade
D. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A
E. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP blade
F. two Cisco IPVC 3540 Transcoder Modules for MC06A, each with an EMP3 blade

Answer: C

Question 8.
Which three factors must be considered when designing a H.323 videoconferencing dial plan? (Choose three.)

A. the number of sites in the enterprise
B. the number and location of gatekeepers
C. the incoming PSTN call routing method
D. the DNs and location of conferencing MCUs to be deployed
E. the videoconferencing features and applications to be deployed
F. the location of voice gateways

Answer: A, C, D

Question 9.
Exhibit:
 

The network has two gatekeepers that control four zones. Which command is used to ensure that no single call in Zone Eugene uses more than 768 kbps?

A. bandwidth interzone 768
B. bandwidth limit 768
C. bandwidth session 768
D. bandwidth call 768
E. bandwidth zone 768

Answer: C

Question 10.
What is traditionally used in a H.323 gatekeeper to pool endpoints into groups?

A. zones
B. clusters
C. calling search spaces
D. toll bypass routing

Answer: A


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