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Question 83.
Which CREATE CONSTRAINT command is correct?
A. CREATE CONSTRAINT con1 ON mytable CHECK birth_date <
:CURRENT_DATE;
B. CREATE CONSTRAINT con1 ON mytable CHECK salary > AVG (salary);
C. CREATE CONSTRAINT con1 ON mytable CHECK birth_date <
EXTEND(CURRENT, YEAR TO DAY);
D. CREATE CONSTRAINT con1 ON mytable CHECK salary > (SELECT AVG (salary)
FROM corpsal);
Answer: C
Question 84.
$DATA.A.B is an audited SQL table. The disk process $DATA is using default configuration values.
How many locks can a given transaction hold against the SQL table?
A. 500
B. 5000
C. 50
D. 5
Answer: B
Question 85.
A large base table has a 4KB block size; a small reference table has a 1KB block size. Is this performance strategy appropriate?
A. Yes, a smaller block size can be searched faster.
B. No, the 4KB blocks will dominate the disk process cache.
C. No, database tables should all use the same block size.
D. Yes, the reference table can experience less cache interference.
Answer: D
Question 86.
A Format 1 partition has primary and secondary extents of 5000 pages.
Which MAXEXTENTS value maximizes the table size?
A. 200
B. 215
C. 195
D. 220
Answer: A
Question 87.
A catalog contains a collation named "FRENCH".
What is an invalid definition?
A. C1 CHAR (5) COLLATE FRENCH UPSHIFT
B. C1 CHAR (5) COLLATE FRENCH
C. C1 CHAR (5) UPSHIFT
D. C1 CHAR (5) COLLATE UPSHIFT
Answer: D
Question 88.
Given the table definition:
(CUSTNUM NUMERIC (6,0) NO DEFAULT NOT NULL,
CUSTNAME PIC X(20) DEFAULT NULL,
STREET VARCHAR (100) DEFAULT NULL,
CITY VARCHAR (40) DEFAULT NULL,
ZIP CHAR (5) DEFAULT "00000")
Which INSERT command will fail with an error?
A. INSERT INTO CUSTOMER (*) VALUES (12345, "ADAMS", "5768 N Street",
"Palo Alto", "95123");
B. INSERT INTO CUSTOMER VALUES (12345, "ADAMS", "5768 N Street", "Palo
Alto");
C. INSERT INTO CUSTOMER VALUES (12345, "ADAMS", "5768 N Street", "Palo
Alto", "95123");
D. INSERT INTO CUSTOMER (custnum, custname, street, city) VALUES (12345,
"ADAMS", "5768 N Street", "Palo Alto");
Answer: B
Question 89.
If a create index operation terminates abnormally, which utility is used to remove the incomplete index?
A. goaway
B. sqlci purge
C. cleanup
D. sqlci drop index
Answer: C
Question 90.
An "S" following the table name in the output of an SQLCI FILEINFO command indicates that the table _______.
A. has a SHADOW label
B. is SAFEGUARD protected
C. is an SQL object
D. is opened for shared access
Answer: A
Question 91.
To assure that catalogs can only be created by members of the super group, you must logon on as a generalized owner of the system catalog and perform a ______.
A. SQLCI ALTER TABLE <$catvol>.SQL.CATALOGS SECURE "CCCC"
B. FUP LICENSE $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.SQLCI2
C. SQLCI ALTER CATALOG <$catvol>.SQL SECURE "CCCC"
D. FUP SECURE $SYSTEM.SYSTEM.SQLCI2, "CCCC"
Answer: A
Question 92.
Which SQL object can reside on a non audited volume?
A. non audited view
B. collation
C. program
D. non audited table
Answer: C
Question 93.
The declaration of a cursor must include the "FOR UPDATE OF" clause when_________ .
A. a DELETE is performed against a position of the cursor using the "WHERE
CURRENT OF" clause
B. any operation is performed against a position of the cursor using the "WHERE
CURRENT OF" clause
C. an UPDATE is performed against a position of the cursor using the "WHERE
CURRENT OF" clause
D. the cursor is restarted using OPEN CURSOR with the "WHERE CURRENT OF" clause
Answer: C
Question 94.
Which tool is used to recover SQL catalog tables?
A. SQLCI2
B. RESTORE
C. SQLCI
D. TMFCOM
Answer: D
Question 95.
What can be used to retrieve data using ad hoc queries? Select TWO.
A. SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol)
B. JSP (Java Server Pages)
C. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)
D. XML (Extensible Markup Language)
E. SQLCI (SQL Conversational Interface)
Answer: C, E
Question 96.
If a table is heavily accessed, a bottleneck can occur.
What can be done to prevent this from happening? Select TWO.
A. DCOM the disk so the index blocks are closer together.
B. Partition the table so that more than one processor can share the load.
C. Increase processor memory size so the cache can be larger.
D. Add the SQL executor process so more processes can access the table.
E. Increase the DP2 processes to 10 for the volumes.
Answer: B, C
Question 97.
The "CONTROL EXECUTOR PARALLEL EXECUTION ON" allows the optimizer to apply parallel execution________ .
A. when the query accesses multiple partitions
B. when the query accesses more than one table
C. when the query uses a cursor update
D. for all queries
Answer: A
Question 98.
Where is configuration information for parallel index loading maintained?
A. in the SQL system catalog TABLES table
B. in the SQL user catalog INDEXES table
C. in an edit file specified at command time
D. in DEFINES and PARAMS statements
Answer: C
Question 99.
What most accurately describes the difference between the SQL statement COMMIT WORK and the Guardian procedure ENDTRANSACTION?
A. The SQL statement performs a FREE RESOURCES first, followed by the
ENDTRANSACTION.
B. ENDTRANSACTION can only be used with BEGINTRANSACTION.
C. The use of the Guardian procedure call in an SQL program is invalid.
D. The SQL statement and the Guardian procedure call are equal and interchangeable in an SQL
program.
Answer: A
Question 100.
Which SQL utility leaves a key-sequenced table with as few index levels as possible?
A. Data loader
B. LOAD
C. DUP
D. COPY
Answer: B
Question 101.
Foreign keys are used in the normalization process as consequences of which normal form?
A. 3rd Normal Form (3NF)
B. 2nd Normal Form (2NF)
C. 4th Normal Form (4NF)
D. 1st Normal Form (1NF)
Answer: B
Question 102.
Where is a program marked invalid? Select TWO.
A. in the catalog's program table
B. in the master executor
C. in the system catalog
D. in its file label
E. in cache
Answer: A, D
Question 103.
If an audited SQL table has been dropped in error, it may be recovered using TMF RECOVER FILES as long as an online dump has been taken previously.
Once the SQL table and its associated objects have been recovered, how can the file label and catalog entries be compared?
A. SQLCI VERIFY
B. TMFCOM CHECK RECOVERY
C. SQLCI CHECKTIMESTAMP
D. SCF LIST LABEL
Answer: A
Question 104.
Which TMF feature supports the transaction durability property?
A. before image logging
B. after image logging
C. transaction back out
D. AUTOABORT
Answer: B
Question 105.
Which DDL command defines the sort ordering that can be used with character columns?
A. DEFINE COLLATION
B. CREATE ALPHABET
C. DEFINE ALPHABET
D. CREATE COLLATION
Answer: D
Question 106.
During an SQLCOMP of a program, the processor in which the SQLCOMP is running fails after the program has been compiled, registered in the catalog, marked as valid and SQL sensitive, but the SQLCOMP has not yet completed.
What is the result?
A. The program file is valid and SQL sensitive, but has no registration in the catalog.
B. Both the program file and catalog entry are invalidated.
C. Both the catalog entry and the program file are deleted.
D. The program's entry in the catalog is invalidated.
Answer: A
Question 107.
Which operation does the optimizer perform first?
A. choose join strategy
B. form access plan
C. query transformations
D. choose sort strategy
Answer: C
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Question 1. Which statement accurately describes one difference between a small office and medium office topology? A. Small offices commonly use Rapid PVST+ for Layer 3 deployments. B. Medium offices use integrated 10/100/1000 interfaces as Layer 2 trunks. C. Medium offices use external access switches to support LAN connectivity. D. Medium offices commonly use integrated route and switching platforms. Answer: C Question 2. ITCertKeys.com is planning to upgrade its current network. The chief technology officer has supplied a topology diagram and an IP addressing scheme of the current network during an interview. ITCertKeys.com has been growing at about twenty percent per year. It has been difficult to maintain customer support at a satisfactory level. Therefore, the RST board has met with and directed the chief technology officer to look into network improvements. Which two items are most relevant in documenting ITCertKeys.com's business requirements? (Choose two.) A. network performance requirements B. existing network topologies C. the IP addresses assigned by the ISP D. improved customer support requirements E. projected growth estimates Answer: D, E Question 3. Which of these accurately describes dial backup routing? A. once the backup link is activated it will remain active even after the primary link is restored B. it always uses permanent static routes C. it is supplied by the service provider as a secondary PVC at no additional charge D. the router intiates the dial backup link when a failure is detected on the primary link E. it always uses distance vector routing protocols Answer: D Explanation: Dial backup routing is a way of using a dialup service for backup purposes. The switched circuit provides the backup service for another type of circuit, such as point-to-point or Frame Relay. The router initiates the dial backup line when it detects a failure on the primary circuit. The dial backup line provides WAN connectivity until the primary circuit is restored, at which time the dial backup connection terminates Question 4. DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, miss ITCertKeys, is interested in QoS features. Match the proper features with appropriate mechanism. Answer: Explanation: 1. LLQ is a congestion management tool, which brings strict PQ (Priority Queuing) to CBWFQ (Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing). It is a combination of PQ and CBWFQ. Strict PQ allows delay sensitive data such as voice to be dequeued and sent first (before packets in other queues are dequeued), giving delay-sensitive data preferential treatment over other traffic. 2. Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. WRED (Weighted random early detection) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. RED randomly drops packets when the queue gets to a specified level. 3. ACL (Access Control Lists) is used to control (Permit or Deny) the traffic moving through the network. In QoS implementation, ACL helps to classify the traffic. 4. Link Efficiency techniques like LFI and compression can be applied to WAN paths. The purpose of LFI is to prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-sped links. 5. CAC (Call Admission Control) is a traffic conditioners mechanisms, which extend the QoS capabilities to protect voice traffic from being negatively affected by other voice traffic by keeping excess voice traffic off the network Question 5. Western Associated News Agency recently acquired a large news organization with several sites, which will allow it to expand to worldwide markets. The new acquisition includes these connectivity technologies: Frame Relay ATM SONET cable DSL wireless From a Layer 1 viewpoint, which Enterprise Edge module will be most affected? A. E-Commerce B. Edge Distribution C. PSTN D. WAN/MAN E. Internet Connectivity F. ISP Answer: D Explanation: Wide Area Network(WAN)/MAN(Metropolitan Area Network) technologies are used to connect the different branches located into different locations. Frame-Relay, ISDN, DSL, Cable, Wireless are the technologies use for WAN/MAN. Question 6. Which H.323 protocol controls call setup between endpoints? A. RAS B. RTCP C. H.245 D. H.225 Answer: D Explanation: The H.225 is called Q.931 standard protocol. It describes call signaling and the Registration, Admission, and Status (RAS) signaling used for H.323 session establishment and packetization between two H.323 devices. Question 7. DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, miss ITCertKeys, is interested in bandwidth usage optimization techniques. Match the proper technique with appropriate defintion Answer: Explanation: Queuing: Queuing is called Congestion Management in Cisco documents and also occasionally called "scheduling" provides the ability to reorder packets when congestion occurs. Traffic Policing Policing can limit bandwidth by discarding traffic that exceeds a specified rate. Policing can discard the packets based on IP Precedence and DSCP value. Class-based traffic policing can be configured to mark packets at layer 2 or layer 3. Policing can apply to either inbound or outbound traffic. Compression reduces bandwidth utilization by making packets smaller before transmission. Two general types of compression tools exist in payload compression and header compression. Payload compression compresses the packet the portion of the data link frame between the frame header and trailer. Header compression compresses just particular headers Question 8. Which two routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.) A. OSPF B. IS-IS C. RIPv1 D. EIGRP E. IGRP F. RIPv2 Answer: A, D Explanation: Non-broadcast Multi-access NBMA topologies are similar to broadcast multi-access topologies (multiple devices accessing a medium), except that devices cannot hear each other's broadcasts because the medium is separated by other routers, such as with Frame Relay, ATM. OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols operate over NBMA point-to-multipoint networks without the use of point-to-point subinterface. Question 9. Which two capabilities of NetFlow accounting assist designers with network planning? (Choose two.) A. the monitoring of processor time on network devices B. the calculation of packet and byte counts of network traffic C. the monitoring of user network utilization D. the decoding and analyzing of packets E. the presentation of a time-based view of application usage on the network Answer: B, C Explanation: NetFlow can provide assistance with traffic engineering, network planning, accounting and billing, security monitoring, and information regarding peering arrangements. Enterprises typically use NetFlow for user and Internet access monitoring, application monitoring, charge-back billing for departments, and security monitoring. Question 10. DRAG DROP You work as a network technician at ITCertKeys.com. Your boss, miss ITCertKeys, is interested in Cisco Security solutions. Match the proper solution with appropriate function. Answer: Explanation: IPS: Network-based IPS solutions protect the network by helping detect, classify, and stop threats, including worms, spyware or adware, network viruses, and application abuse on Network. ASA Cisco ASAs consolidate all the foundation security technologies (including high performance firewall, IPS, network antivirus, and IPsec and SSL VPNs) in a single easily managed unified platform. Device consolidation reduces the overall deploymenand operations costs and complexity. ASAs can also be NAC-enabled. The Cisco Security Agent software integrates endpoint server and desktop computers into the Cisco Self-Defending Network. The Cisco Security Agent provides different services like: Spyware and adware protection, Protection against buffer overflows, Distributed firewall capabilities, Malicious mobile code protection.
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