Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us

 Home

 Search

Latest Brain Dumps

 BrainDump List

 Certifications Dumps

 Microsoft

 CompTIA

 Oracle

  Cisco
  CIW
  Novell
  Linux
  Sun
  Certs Notes
  How-Tos & Practices 
  Free Online Demos
  Free Online Quizzes
  Free Study Guides
  Free Online Sims
  Material Submission
  Test Vouchers
  Users Submissions
  Site Links
  Submit Site

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Online Training Demos and Learning Tutorials for Windows XP, 2000, 2003.

 

 

 

 





Braindumps for "70-300" Exam

Analyzing Requirements and Defining Microsoft .Net Solution Architectures

 Question 1.
You are preparing the functional specification for the new reservation application. Which two functionalities should you specify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two)

A. Localization
B. Monitoring of application performance
C. Secure storage of customer profile information
D. Availability of application for mobile phones and personal digital assistants
E. Integration with Active Directory

Answer: B, C

Explanation: 
We do have requirements to monitor the application and to secure it.

Incorrect Answers:
A: There is no requirements for this.
D: The case study makes no mention of any requirement to support mobile phones or PDA's. Therefore it would not be appropriate to prepare a functional specification for this functionality.
E: There is no requirements for this.

Question 2.
You are completing the technical specification for the new reservation application.
Which technique should you recommend for state management?

A. ASP.NET ViewState
B. Server-side database
C. Client-side cookies
D. Application cache

Answer: B

Explanation:
A: This will not be retained when the customer closes the session.
C: They may not be allowed on the client machine’s browser.
D: Incorrect.

Question 3.
Which business constraint poses the greatest potential risk to completing your project for Blue Yonder Airlines?

A. The current IT staff must support the solution in the future
B. All testing scenarios and all necessary rework must be completed during the one-month testing 
    period. 
C. The scheduling vendor will begin providing access by XML Web service in three months
D. The application must be completed within a five-month development period before it is tested

Answer: C

Explanation:
C: Business Manager says that the vendor only meets its deadlines for delivering updates 
    only 50 percent of the time. This will have the greatest impact.
A: The question is asking for risks to completing the project. This does not have any
     impact.
B: This is all a matter of resources.
D: Since there is enough funding it should not be a problem.

Question 4.
You are establishing a policy to measure the effectiveness of your deployment process.
You decide to track one or more phases of development to identify defects. Which phase or phases should you track?(Choose all that apply)

A. Design and analysis
B. Development
C. Stabilization
D. Requirements

Answer: C

Explanation:
C: It is during the stabilizing phase that the Testing team completes the tasks and creates the deliverables that move the feature-complete build to a state in which the defined quality level is reached and the solution is ready for full production deployment.
The two main tasks in the stabilizing phase are:

• Testing the solution: The team implements the test plans that were created during the planning phase, which were enhanced and tested during the development phase.

• Conducting the pilot: The team moves a solution pilot from development to a staging area to test the solution with actual users and real scenarios. The pilot is conducted before the deploying phase is begun.

A pilot is a test of the solution in the production environment, and a trial of the solution by installers, systems support staff, and end users. The primary purposes of a pilot are to demonstrate that the design works in the production environment as expected and that it meets the organization’s business requirements. A secondary purpose is to give the deployment team a chance to practice and refine the deployment process.

Question 5.
You are listing the operational requirements for the new reservation application. 
Which requirement should you include?

A. Extensibility
B. Localization
C. Maintainability
D. Availability
E. Deployability

Answer: D

Explanation:
D: The Chief Executive Officer, who is a Business Stakeholder, wants to allow customers to make reservations at any time, on any day of the week.

Incorrect Answers:
B: There is no mention of Localization in the case study.
A, C: These are not the best answers.

Question 6.
You are writing the primary scenario of a use case named Customer retrieves a saved itinerary. Which action or actions should be included?(Choose all that apply)

A. Application informs customers that no itineraries exist
B. Application informs customers that a saved flight is no longer available
C. Customer asks for saved itineraries
D. Application offers alternate flights
E. Application queries the database for saved itineraries
F. Application displays retrieved itineraries

Answer: C, E, F

Explanation:
C,E,F: The question is asking for the Primary Scenario.

Question 7.
You need to select a strategy that will provide detailed usage information for the new reservation application. Information must be provided with a minimum development effort. What should you do?

A. Use Microsoft .NET performance counters in the application
B. Create a Microsoft Management Console(MMC) snap-in for the application
C. Add Windows Management instrumentation to the application
D. Use the application’s configuration file to enable and disable logging

Answer: A

Explanation:
A: This method will require a minimum development effort.

Question 8.
You must ensure that the new reservation application can be monitored while it is running. Which approach should you use?

A. TraceSwitch objects
B. Diagnostic tools
C. PerformanceCounter objects
D. Windows Management Instrumentation Job Object provider

Answer: C

Explanation:
Using the Performance Counter object within the solution would allow developers to write performance specific information that can be monitored by Performance Monitor while the application is running.

Question 9.
You are creating the logical design for a use case named “Customer updates customer profiles”. Which object or objects should you include in the design? (Choose all that apply)

A. Data access object
B. Customer object
C. Flight object
D. Logging object
E. Airline object

Answer: A, B, D 

Explanation:
A, B: These are definitely needed for the use case in question.
D: The Business Manager wants detailed logging of usage information for analysis.

Incorrect Answers
C, E: These are not related to the use case named “Customer updates customer profiles”.

Question 10.
You are creating constraints for tables named Flight and Airport. You must ensure data integrity. Which action or actions should you take?(Choose all that apply)

A. Create a primary key constraint on the AirportCode column and the CityOfOrigin column in the 
    Airport table
B. Create a primary key constraint on the FlightNumber column in the Flight table
C. Create a cascading delete constraint on the AirportCode column in the Airport Table 
D. Create a foreign key constraint on the ArriveAirportCode column in the Flight table to reference 
     the AirportCode column in the Airport table.
E. Create a primary key constraint on the FlightNumber column, the FilghtDate column and the 
    DepartAirportCode column in the Flight table
F. Create a foreign key constraint on the DepartAirportCode column in the Flight table to 
    reference the AirportCode column in the Airport table.
G. Create a primary key constraint on the AirportCode column in the Airport table. 
H. Create a foreign key constraint on the AirportCode column in the Airport table to reference the 
    DepartAirportCode column in the Flight table

Answer: D, E, F, G

Explanation:
The answers will meet the design shown below:

 

• Primary Keys
o Airport Table: AirportCode is unique enough.
o Flight Table: Composite primary key for FlightNumber, FlightDate and
DepartAirportCode. (Flight Number itself may not be unique enough since they could be reused)
• Foreign Keys
o Airport Table: DepartAirportCode will reference AirportCode
o Airport Table: ArriveAirportCode will reference AirportCode.
• CityOfOrigin is not necessary to uniquely identify records within the Airport Table.
• FlightDate has to be part of the composite key within the Flight Table.
Having a cascade delete is a nice-to-have option on the database. It isn’t essential.
If you wish to delete an airport, you have 2 options:
o Delete all the related Flight records (programmatically) then delete the Airport record.
o Delete the Airport code and let the database delete all related flight children records.


Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Braindumps: Dumps for JN0-400 Exam Brain Dump

Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us





Braindumps for "JN0-400" Exam

Juniper Networks EX, Associate (JNCIA-EX)

 Question 1.
Which statement is true regarding the EX-series file system?

A. Contents in the /var directory are automatically removed upon a successful software upgrade.
B. The file system must be cleaned manually after every upgrade.
C. Contents in the /var directory are automatically archived for future software rollbacks.
D. The file system must be cleaned manually before every upgrade.

Answer: A

Question 2.
Which two statements describe the EX 4200 switches? (Choose two.)

A. All EX 4200 switches support either partial or full Power over Ethernet (PoE) support.
B. The fan tray used for the EX 4200 switches is not field replaceable.
C. The EX 4200 switches support redundant load-sharing AC power supplies.
D. The EX 4200 switches can be interconnected to form a single virtual chassis.

Answer: C, D

Question 3.
Click the Exhibit button.

In the exhibit, what does the asterisk (*) indicate?
 

A. The interface is configure for PoE.
B. The interface receives untagged frames.
C. The interface is up and active.
D. The interface contains Layer 3 configuration.

Answer: C

Question 4.
Which Spanning Tree Protocol is enabled in the factory-default configuration?

A. STP
B. PVST
C. MSTP
D. RSTP

Answer: D

Question 5.
Which statement is true for configuring a link aggregation group?

A. No more than 10 member links can belong to a link aggregation group.
B. Link duplex mode and speed must match within a link aggregation group.
C. Layer 2 and Layer 3 interfaces can be mixed when creating a link aggregation group.
D. Member links cannot span multiple member switches within a virtual chassis.

Answer: B

Question 6.
Which three statement describe benefits of bridging? (Choose three.)

A. Bridging allows mixed physical media types on a common LAN.
B. Bridging uses Layer 2 bridge tables to intelligently forward traffic towards its destination.
C. Bridging logically segments user groups based on administrative policy.
D. Bridging allows for the creation of multiple broadcast domains.
E. Bridging can reduce the number of collisions on a LAN.

Answer: A, B, E

Question 7.
When configuring a redundant trunk group (RTG) on an interface, which restriction would apply?

A. The interface must be configured as a Layer 3 interface with an assigned IP address.
B. The interface cannot be configured as a Layer 2 trunk.
C. The gratuitous-ARP-reply must be disabled on the interface.
D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) cannot be configured on the interface.

Answer: D

Question 8.
Which two commands are valid for verifying NTP operation? (Choose two.)

A. show ntp status
B. show ntp associations
C. show ntp synchronization
D. show ntp server

Answer: A, B

Question 9.
What describes the way the JUNOS software evaluates a route against a policy?

A. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route 
    matches all criteria specified in the match clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in 
    the then clause and stops processing further terms.
B. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route 
    matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the 
    then clause and continues processing further terms if the accept action was specified.
C. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route 
    matches any criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in 
    the then clause and stops processing further terms.
D. The JUNOS software evaluates all terms in a policy sequentially. When it finds that the route  
    matches all criteria specified in the from clause of a term, it applies the actions specified in the 
    then clause and stops processing further terms.

Answer: D

Question 10.
Click the Exhibit button.

In the exhibit, in which configuration hierarchy would the block-stuff filter be defined?
 

A. [edit firewall family vlan]
B. [edit firewall family ethernet]
C. [edit firewall family ethernet-switching]
D. [edit firewall family inet]

Answer: C


Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Study Guides and Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA





              Privacy Policy                   Disclaimer                    Feedback                    Term & Conditions

www.helpline4IT.com

ITCertKeys.com

Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.