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Question 1.
Which three stages support the dynamic (runtime) definition of the physical column metadata? (Choose three.)
A. the Sequential stage
B. the Column Export stage
C. the CFF stage
D. the DRS stage
E. the Column Import stage
Answer: A, B, E
Question 2.
A Varchar (10) field named Source Column is mapped to a Char(25) field named Target Column in a Transformer stage. The APT_STRING_PADCHAR environment variable is set in Administrator to its default value.
Which technique describes how to write the derivation so that values in Source Column are padded with spaces in Target Column?
A. Include APT_STRING_PADCHAR in your job as a job parameter. Specify the C/C++ end of
string character (0x0) as its value.
B. Map Source Column to Target Column. The Transformer stage will automatically pad with
spaces.
C. Include APT_STRING_PADCHAR in your job as a job parameter. Specify a space as its value.
D. Concatenate a string of 25 spaces to Source Column in the derivation for Target Column.
Answer: C
Question 3.
Which three privileges must the user possess when running a parallel job? (Choose three.)
A. read access to APT_ORCHHOME
B. execute permissions on local copies of programs and scripts
C. read/write permissions to the UNIX/etc directory
D. read/write permissions to APT_ORCHHOME
E. read/write access to disk and scratch disk resources
Answer: A, B, E
Question 4.
In a Teradata environment, which stage invokes Teradata supplied utilities?
A. Teradata API
B. DRS Teradata
C. Teradata Enterprise
D. Teradata Multi load
Answer: D
Question 5.
When importing a COBOL file definition, which two are required? (Choose two.)
A. The file you are importing is accessible from your client workstation.
B. The file you are importing contains level 01 items.
C. The column definitions are in a COBOL copybook file and not, for example, in a COBOL
source file.
D. The file does not contain any OCCURS DEPENDING ON clauses.
Answer: A, B
Question 6.
Which two tasks will create Data Stage projects? (Choose two.)
A. Export and import a Data Stage project from Data Stage Manager.
B. Add new projects from Data Stage Administrator.
C. Install the Data Stage engine.
D. Copy a project in Data Stage Administrator.
Answer: B, C
Question 7.
Which three defaults are set in Data Stage Administrator? (Choose three.)
A. default prompting options, such as Auto save job before compile
B. default SMTP mail server name
C. project level default for Runtime Column Propagation
D. project level defaults for environment variables
E. project level default for Auto-purge of job log entries
Answer: C, D, E
Question 8.
Which three are keyless partitioning methods? (Choose three.)
A. Entire
B. Modulus
C. Round Robin
D. Random
E. Hash
Answer: A, C, D
Question 9.
Which two must be specified to manage Runtime Column Propagation? (Choose two.)
A. enabled in Data Stage Administrator
B. attached to a table definition in Data Stage Manager
C. enabled at the stage level
D. enabled with environmental parameters set at runtime
Answer: A, C
Question 10.
Which three are valid ways within a Job Sequence to pass parameters to Activity stages?
(Choose three.)
A. Exec Command Activity stage
B. User Variables Activity stage
C. Sequencer Activity stage
D. Routine Activity stage
E. Nested Condition Activity stage
Answer: A, B, D
Question 11.
A client requires that a database table be done using two jobs. The first job writes to a dataset. The second job reads the dataset and loads the table. The two jobs are connected in a Job Sequence.
What are three benefits of this approach? (Choose three.)
A. The time it takes to load the table is reduced.
B. The database table can be reloaded after a failure without re-reading the source data.
C. The dataset can be used by other jobs even if the database load fails.
D. The dataset can be read if the database is not available.
E. The data in the dataset can be archived and shared with other external applications.
Answer: B, C, D
Question 12.
You are reading customer data using a Sequential File stage and transforming it using the Transformer stage. The Transformer is used to cleanse the data by trimming spaces from character fields in the input. The cleansed data is to be written to a target DB2 table.
Which partitioning method would yield optimal performance without violating the business requirements?
A. Hash on the customer ID field
B. Round Robin
C. Random
D. Entire
Answer: B
Question 13.
Which three are valid trigger expressions in a stage in a Job Sequence? (Choose three.)
A. Equality (Conditional)
B. Unconditional
C. Return Value (Conditional)
D. Difference (Conditional)
E. Custom (Conditional)
Answer: B, C, E
Question 14.
An Aggregator stage using a Hash technique processes a very large number of rows during month end processing. The job occasionally aborts during these large runs with an obscure memory error. When the job is rerun, processing the data in smaller amounts corrects the problem.
Which change would correct the problem?
A. Set the Combinability option on the Stage Advanced tab to Combinable allowing the
Aggregator to use the memory associated with other operators.
B. Change the partitioning keys to produce more data partitions.
C. Add a Sort stage prior to the Aggregator and change to a sort technique on the Stage
Properties tab of the Aggregator stage.
D. Set the environment variable APT_AGG_MAXMEMORY to a larger value.
Answer: C
Question 15.
Which three actions are performed using stage variables in a parallel Transformer stage?
(Choose three.)
A. A function can be executed once per record.
B. A function can be executed once per run.
C. Identify the first row of an input group.
D. Identify the last row of an input group.
E. Lookup up a value from a reference dataset.
Answer: A, B, C
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Question 1.
What is fading?
A. Another signal source is producing energy on the channel in which you are trying to operate.
B. The desired signal reaches the receiving antenna via multiple paths, each of which has a
different propagation delay and path loss.
C. A time-varying change in the path loss of a link with the time variance governed by the
movement of objects in the environment, including the transmitter and receiver themselves.
D. A function of the frequency and should be provided in the cable specification by the vendor.
E. The minimum signal level for the receiver to be able to acceptably decode the information.
F. The time delay from the reception of the first instance of the signal until the last instance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 2.
Which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?
A. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), not no
secure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
B. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to
which the client is associated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question 3.
Up to how many Cisco WiSMs are supported in a single mobility group operating under v5.0 code?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24
E. 150
F. 300
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question 4.
The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS.
What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary?
A. Critical
B. Flash
C. Major
D. Minor
E. Urgent
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 5.
Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers.
Which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.)
A. forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
B. implements the validation of wireless management frames
C. requires CCXv5
D. requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
E. requires CCXv4
Answer: B, C
Explanation:
Question 6.
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question 7.
The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication using a centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n.
What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS, prohibiting
authentication.
B. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with v4.1 and must be upgraded to v4.2.
E. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 8.
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to
750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN
controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for
Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question 9.
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question 10.
Which two attacks does Management Frame Protection help to mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. Eavesdropping
B. Denial of Service
C. War Driving
D. Man-in-the-Middle
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
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