Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us

 Home

 Search

Latest Brain Dumps

 BrainDump List

 Certifications Dumps

 Microsoft

 CompTIA

 Oracle

  Cisco
  CIW
  Novell
  Linux
  Sun
  Certs Notes
  How-Tos & Practices 
  Free Online Demos
  Free Online Quizzes
  Free Study Guides
  Free Online Sims
  Material Submission
  Test Vouchers
  Users Submissions
  Site Links
  Submit Site

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Online Training Demos and Learning Tutorials for Windows XP, 2000, 2003.

 

 

 

 





Braindumps for "1Z0-045" Exam

Oracle Database 10g: New Features

 Question 1.
You need to create a schedule that will run a job on the second Friday of each month. 

What should the repeat interval of the schedule be set to?

A. FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = 2FRI;
B. FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = FR12;
C. FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = -2FRI;
D. FREQ = MONTHLY; BYDAY = FRI (2);

Answer: A

Question 2.
The list below display four step that you need to execute in order to switch from the primary database role to the standby database role.
Choose the correct order of execution for the steps;
1. Shut down and start up the former primary instance without mounting the database.
2. Issue the ALTER DATABASE COMMIT TO SWITCHOVER TO PHYSICAL STANDBY command.
3. Issue the ALTER DATABASEMOUNT STANDBY DATABASE command.
4. End read or update activity on the former primary and standby database.

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 3,2,4,1
C. 4,2,1,3
D. 4,3,2,1

Answer: C

Explanation:
Stop read or update activity on the primary and standby databases.
You must have exclusive database access before beginning a switchover. Ask users to log off the primary and standby databases, or query the V$SESSION view to identify users that are connected to the databases and close all open sessions except the SQL*Plus session from which you are going to execute the switchover statement.
Switch the primary database to the physical standby role.
On the primary database (in New York), execute the following statement:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE COMMIT TO SWITCHOVER TO PHYSICAL STANDBY
2>WITH SESSTION SHUT Down;
This statement does the following:
? Closes the primary database, terminating any active sessions
? Transmits any un archived redo log files and applies them to the standby database
? Adds an end-of-redo marker to the header of the last log file being archived
? Creates a backup of the current control file
? Converts the current control file into a standby control file
Shut down and start up the former primary instance, and mount the database.
Execute the following statement on the former primary database:
SQL>WITH SHUT Down NORMAL;
SQL>STARTUP MOUNT;
Switch the original standby database to the primary role.
Issue the following SQL statement:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE COMMIT TO SWITCHOVER TO PRIMARY
DATABASE;

Reference:
Oracle(r) Data Guard Concepts and Administration 10g Release 2 (10.2), 12-39

Question 3.
You want to enforce a company's business policy on several objects by using a single policy function.

Which two types of polices can be assigned to the policy type argument in the dbms_rls.add_policy procedure to achieve the above objective?

A. DBMS_RLS. STATIC
B. DBMS_RLS.DYNAMIC
C. DBM_RLS.SHARED_STATIC
D. DBMS_RLS.SHARED_DYNAMIC
E. DBMS_RLS. CONTEXT_SENSITIVE
F. DBMS_RLS.SHARED_CONTEXT_SENSITIVE

Answer: C, F

Question 4.
You decided to activate the presumable space allocation feature for all your database users by enabling the feature in a logon trigger.

This causes a statement that requires space beyond a user's quota________

A. to wait indefinitely for the quota to be increased, regardless of the timeout setting for other 
    space allocation problem
B. to fail because quota limits do not activate the resumable space allocation feature
C. to wait in a suspended state until the quota increased or until the timeout value is reached
D. to invoke the default trigger that resets user quota, if there is free space in the related table 
     space

Answer: C

Question 5.
Which statements are true regarding the new Persistent CONFIGURATION FEATURE IN RMAN? (Choose two)

A. It allows you to set the retention period of backups.
B. It remember the last backup command you used so that you can rescheule it easily.
C. It enables you to store your channel attribute settings in the Recovery catalog with each script.
D. It enables you to store the settings for channel attributes so that you do not have to specify 
    them in each backup o restore command

Answer: A, D

Explanation:
When implementing an RMAN-based backup strategy, you can use RMAN more effectively if you understand the more common options available to you. Many of these can be set in the RMAN environment on a persistent basis, so that you do not have to specify the same options every time you issue a command.

To simplify ongoing use of RMAN for backup and recovery, the RMAN lets you set a number of persistent configuration settings for each target database. These settings control many aspects of RMAN's behavior when working with that database, such as backup retention policy, default destinations for backups to tape or disk, default backup device type (tape or disk), and so on.

Reference: 
Oracle(r) Backup and Recovery Basics 10g Release 2 (10.2), 3-7 and 3-8

Question 6.
You are using the Automatic Shared Memory Management configuration. 

Which four initialization parameters will be tuned automatically?

A. LOG_BUFFER
B. DB_CACHE_SIZE
C. JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D. LARGE_POOL_SIZE
E. STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
F. DB_Nk_cache_size
G. Shared_pool_size
H. Db_keep_cache_size
I. DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE

Answer: B, C, D, G

Explanation:
ASMM will tune automatically Db_cache_size, Shared_pool_size, large_pool_size and Java_pool_size

Question 7.
You need to ensure that the database users should be able to use the various flashback query features in order to go back in time by four hours. 

What would you do to achieve this?

A. set SQL_TRACE =True
B. set UNDO_RETENTION =14400
C. set FAST_START_MTTR_TARGET=240
D. set LOG_CHECKPOINT_INTERVAL= 240
E. set DB_FLASHBACK_RETENTION_TARGET= 14400
F. issue ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON; command
G. set the RETENTION GUARANTEE clause for the undo table space

Answer: E, F

Question 8.
You executed the following command to drop a user;
DROP USER Scott CASCADE;

Which two statements regarding the above command are correct?

A. All the objects of scott are moved to the Recycle Bin.
B. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to scott are purged.
C. All the objects owned be scott are permanently dropped from the database
D. All objects of scott in the Recycle Bin must be purged before executing the DROP command.
E. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to Scott will not be affected by the above DROP 
    command.

Answer: B, C

Question 9.
Which four statements regarding the block change track file are correct?

A. The minimum size of this file is 10MB
B. The maintenance of this file is fully automatic.
C. The changed block are tracked in this file as redo is generated
D. The location of this file must be different from that of the database files.
E. The Oracle database records block change information in this file by default
F. The V$BLOCK_CHANGE_TRACKING view contains the name and location of this file.

Answer: A, C, E, F

Explanation:
A - True. Should say "start" not "minimum". The size of the change tracking file is proportional to the size of the database and the number of enabled threads of redo. The size is not related to the frequency of updates to the database. Typically, the space required for block change tracking is Overview of Reporting on Backups and the RMAN Repository approximately 1/30,000 the size of the data blocks to be tracked. 
B - False. Using change tracking in no way changes the commands used to perform incremental backups, and the change tracking files themselves generally require little maintenance after initial configuration.
C - True. Changed blocks are tracked by the CTWR background process as redo is generated. Database incremental backup, automatically use the change tracking file; 
D - False. You can also create the change tracking file in a location you choose yourself, using the following SQL statement:
SQL> ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING
USING FILE '/mydlr/rinan_change_track.fREUSE
E - True. One change tracking file is created for the whole database. By default, the change tracking file is created as an Oracle managed file in DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.
F - True. From SQL*Plus, you can query V$BLOCK_CHANGE_TRACKING.STATUS to determine whether change tracking is enabled, and if it is, query V$BLOCK_CHANGE_TRACKING.FILENAME to display the filename.

Reference: 
Oracle(r) Backup and Recovery Basics, 4-19, 4-20 and 4-21

Question 10.
What must you do to enable Automated SQL Execution Memory Management?

A. Execute the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SYSTEM_STATES procedure with appropriate values
B. Set the instance parameters PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY 
     to appropriate values.
C. Set the instance parameters SORT_AREA_SIZE,BITMAP_MERGE_AREA_SIZE,
    CREATE_BITMAP_AREA-SIZE,HASH_AREA_SIZE,SORT_AREA_SIZE, and
    SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE, all to Auto.
D. Unset the instance parameters SORT_AREA_SIZE, BITMAP_MERGE_AREA_SIZE,
    CREATE_BITMAP_AREA_SIZE, HASH_AREA_SIZE,SORT_AREA_SIZE, and
    SORT_AREA_RETAINED_SIZE.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The automatic SQL execution memory management feature is enabled by setting the parameter WORKAREA_SIZE_POLICY to AUTO and by specifying a size of PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET in the initialization file.

Reference: 
Meta link Note: 262946.1

Question 11.
When enabling a flashback, you must identify the version of the database contents you want to see.

Which two options can you use to identify this version? (choose two)

A. a point in time
B. a start and an end time
C. a start and an end SCN
D. a System Change Number (SCN)
E. a transaction ID

Answer: A, D

Question 12.
Identify four uses of the Oracle Scheduler. (choose four)

A. Enables you to set idle time limits for a resource plan.
B. Enables you to schedule job execution based on time
C. Enables you to execute jobs in a clustered environment
D. Enables you to assign priorities to the consumer groups
E. Enables you to map a consumer group to an Oracle user.
F. Enables you to create a job that makes use of saved program and schedules

Answer: B, C, D, F

Question 13.
You have 100 segments in the users table space. You get an alert that the users table space is running low on space. 

You decide to shrink some segments. Which option would you use to determine which segments to shrink?

A. Segment Advisor
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. Segment Resource Estimation
E. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Segment Advisor identifies segments that have space available for reclamation. It performs its analysis by examining usage and growth statistics in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR), and by sampling the data in the segment. It is configured to run automatically at regular intervals, and you can also run it on demand (manually). 

The regularly scheduled Segment Advisor run is known as the Automatic Segment Advisor.

Reference:
Oracle(r) 10g Administrator Guide, 14-16

Question 14.
You have three production databases HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB, that use the same ASM instance. At the end of the day, you execute the following command on the ASM instance to shut down; SQL> shutdown immediate;

What is the result of executing this command?

A. All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the ABROT mode.
B. The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running
C. The ASM instance is still functional, but the other instances are shut down.
D. All the instances including the ASM instance, are shut in the IMMEDIATE mode.
E. HRDB, FINDB, and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM 
     instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.
F. HRDB, FIND, and ORGDB instances are shout down NORMAL mode and the ASM instance is 
    shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode.

Answer: D

Question 15.
Which two data types can be converted to LOBs using an ALTERMODIFY command?

A. raw
B. long
C. varchar
D. long raw

Answer: B, D


Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Braindumps: Dumps for 350-040 Exam Brain Dump

Study Guides and Actual Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA


Advertise

Submit Braindumps

Forum

Tell A Friend

    Contact Us





Braindumps for "350-040" Exam

Storage Networking

 Question 1.
Which statements are true about a cascaded FICON topology? Select three.

A. It requires Fabric binding to be configured in all the switches.
B. Only one hope (ie:traversing 2 switchs) is supported.
C. Separate ISLs must be used dedicated to FICON traffic.
D. Two byte link addressing as defined in FC-SB2, is mandatory.

Answer: A, B, D

Question 2.
MDS3 _ 9509# install all system bootflash:m9500-sf1 ek9-mz.1.3.4.bin kickstart
bootflash:m9500-sfek9-kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Verifying image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "sic"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "ips" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "system" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "kickstart"version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Extracting "loader" version from image bootflash:/m9500-sf1ek9kickstart-mz.1.3.4.bin
[####################] 100% -- SUCCESS
Compatibility check is done:
Module bootable impact install-type reason
--------- --------- ---------- ------- ----- ---------
2 yes non-disruptive rolling
3 yes disruptive rolling Hitless upgrade is not supported
5 yes non-disruptive reset
6 yes non-disruptive reset
Images will be upgraded according to following table:
Module Image Running-Version Net-Version Upg-Required
--------- ------- ---------- ----------- ------ ----------
2 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
2 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
3 slc 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
3 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
5 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
5 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
6 system 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 kickstart 1.3(4b) 1.3(4) yes
6 bios v1.1.0(10/24.03) v10.8(08/07/03) no
6 loader 1.2(2) 1.2(2) no
Do you want to continue with the installation (y/n)? [n]

What is the reason the upgrade would not be hit-less for the entire switch, above?

A. The supervisor module requires a BIOS upgrade, which is disruptive.
B. The "rolling-upgrade" for module 2 requires a second "slc" to be hit-less.
C. Module 3 is an IPS-8 card, which does not support non-disruptive downgrades.
D. Nodule 3 is an IPS-8 and the switch does not have a second IPS-8 card for route diversity 
    which could provide a "stable" upgrade.
E. No reason - the upgrade is non-disruptive and hit-less.

Answer: C

Question 3.
Which methods can be used to control Iscsi INITIATOR ACCESS TO VIRTUAL TARGETS? Select three.

A. Zoning
B. Specifying on which Gigabitethernet port the virtual target is advertised.
C. Setting up Iscsi PROXY MODE FOR THE INITIATORS
D. Specifying which IP subnet virtual target can be accessed
E. Enabling role-based access control.

Answer: A, B, C

Question 4.
In a scenario with three lSLs between two switches, a single host in VSAN 5 on switch A, and a single storage device on switch B in the same VSAN. 

What would be the effect on the lSLs if Flow based load balancing option was enabled in VSAN 5?

A. Each subsequent frame will use the least utilized link, based on FCC.
B. Each subsequent frame will use a different link.
C. All frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.
D. Flow based load balancing is not enabled for an individual VSAN.

Answer: C

Flow based load balancing : all frames between source and destination would follow same link for given flow.

Question 5.
Which organization produce standards related to SCSI, Fiber Channel or Fiber Channel protocol? Select two.

A. SNIA
B. T11 Committee
C. Cisco Systems
D. T10 Committee
E. T12 Committee

Answer: B, D

=> T11 for fiber channel, T10 for SCSI

Question 6.
What is the User-specified VSAN Ids range?

A. 1-4093
B. 2-4093
C. 2-4094
D. 2-4092

Answer: B
=> user-specific VSAN 2-4093

Question 7.
What can be configured on a FCIP Profile?

A. Max and Min bandwidth, peer-info, compression ratio
B. Passive mode, peer-info, compression ratio
C. TCP port number, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth
D. Sack-enable, TCP port number peer-info
E. TCP port number, write accelerator compression ratio

Answer: C
=> FCIP profile for TCP port, sack-enable, Max and Min bandwidth

Question 8.
A Brocade 12000 in its native corePID mode (1) is connected to VSAN 1009 on an MDS. 

What is the correct output of the "show vsan 1009" command?

A. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:default loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
B. vsan 1009 information:
   name: VSAN 1009 state:active
   interoperability mode:1 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
   operational state:up.
C. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
    interoperability mode:2 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
    operational state:up.
D. vsan 1009 information:
    name: VSAN 1009 state:active
   interoperability mode:3 loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
   operational state:up.
E. vsan 1009 information:
   name: VSAN 1009 state:active
   interoperability mode:Brocade Native loadbalancing:src-id/dst-id/oxid
   operational state:up.

Answer: D

=> interop mode 3 for Brocade 12000

Question 9.
What TCP feature reduces the chances of an oversized IP packets from being fragmented?

A. SACK
B. Extended ping
C. PMTU
D. Retransmit timeout
E. Send buffer size

Answer: C

Question 10.
In Raid 0+1 the loss of a single drive:

A. Does not affect the redundancy of the array
B. Reduces the array redundancy to that of a Raid level 0
C. Same level of redundancy to that of a Raid level 1+0
D. Reduces the performance of the array
E. Has no affect what so ever on the array

Answer: B



Google
 
Web www.certsbraindumps.com


Study Guides and Real Exam Questions For Oracle OCP, MCSE, MCSA, CCNA, CompTIA





              Privacy Policy                   Disclaimer                    Feedback                    Term & Conditions

www.helpline4IT.com

ITCertKeys.com

Copyright © 2004 CertsBraindumps.com Inc. All rights reserved.